A nurse should conduct the following evaluation on a patient who choked while eating: Check the client's lungs for adventitious breath sounds using auscultation.
What does the phrase "no accidental breath sounds" mean?The medical professional using a stethoscope may hear regular breathing sounds, reduced or missing breathing sounds, and aberrant breathing sounds. Reduced or absent sounds could indicate: Air or fluid within or surrounding the lungs (such as pneumonia, heart failure, and pleural effusion) increased chest wall thickness.
Why was it crucial to listen for unauthorized breath sounds?Asthma, chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD), and influenza are only a few of the disorders that can benefit from automatic identification or classification of acoustic anomalies.
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a nurse is teaching a client with asthma about the proper use of the prescribed inhaled corticosteroid. which adverse effect should the nurse be sure to address in client teaching?
The negative consequence that the nurse would make sure to include in client education is a decreased degree of consciousness.
The most effective long-term treatment for asthma control and management is inhaled corticosteroids.
Cortisone-like drugs are inhaled corticosteroids. They are employed to aid in the mitigation of asthmatic symptoms like repeated episodes of coughing, dyspnea, chest tightness, and wheezing .
Inhalation corticosteroids reduce the frequency and severity of asthma episodes when taken consistently throughout the day.
Lung damage is a side effect of asthma. Repeated episodes of coughing, dyspnea, chest tightness, and wheezing are also brought on by it. By taking medication and avoiding the triggers that might set off an attack, asthma can be managed.
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daniel smith is a 44-year-old man who was diagnosed with adhd-inattentive subtype in college, but has not taken medication for the last several years. he is seeking treatment now because of declining work performance following a promotion 7 months ago. specifically, he complains of difficulty finishing papers and staying focused during meetings and fears that his boss is losing confidence in him. assessment confirms a diagnosis of adhd-inattentive subtype. after 2 months treatment on a therapeutic dose of a long-acting stimulant, he states that his focus, sustained attention, and distractibility are much better, but that he still can't get organized and that it takes him longer to complete tasks than it should. would it be appropriate for the pmhnp to raise the dose of the stimulant to address his residual symptoms?
A 44-year-old man has ADHD-inattentive subtype from college, but has not taken medication for several years. It would not be appropriate to raise the dose of the stimulant to address his residual symptoms.
Why would it not be appropriate to raise the dose of stimuli for residual symptoms?Dose response studies of stimulant medications suggests that optimal dose varies across individuals and depends on the domain of function. Higher doses may lead to greater improvement of some domains but not executive function.
If medication dose is high enough to diminish symptoms of inattention and distractibility, then executive function needs to be addressed independently and will not response to higher dose.
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a 23- year old sex worker presents to the emergency department for evaluation of pelvic pain and fever. her pregnancy test is negative. her last period was 1 week ago and normal. cbc reveals and elevated wbc. on pelvic examination, she has cervical motion and tenderness and a right adnexal mass that is larger than 5cm in diameter and is extremely tender to palpation. what is the most likely cause of this adnexal mass
Problems with female reproductive system are what lead to the majority of adnexal masses. Cysts in the ovaries are among the most typical causes. These cysts with fluid inside develop on your ovaries.
Describe adnexal.a mass in the fallopian tube or an ovary that is located close to the uterus. Ovarian cysts, endo (tubal) pregnancy, benign (not cancerous), and malignant tumors are examples of adnexal masses. The ovaries, fallopian tubes, and ligaments that hold the female reproductive systems in place are referred to as "adnexa."
Adnexal masses disappear, right?The type of treatment employed will depend on where the adnexal mass is located and what caused it. Ovarian cysts can be surgically removed or let to disappear naturally in some cases. Surgical removal of tumors, whether benign or cancerous, is common.
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using your best interpersonal skills, how would you respond to a patient who says she does not want her blood drawn because all phlebotomists hurt her?
If a person balks at letting you take a blood sample, remind them that the findings of their blood test are crucial to their care. Patients do, however, have the option to decline blood tests.
Is phlebotomy labor-intensive?
Phlebotomy is not a difficult profession, but it does take much training and practice. Blood-drawing phlebotomists will pick up a lot of knowledge on the job and develop their skills over time. For those who are sensitive to a sight of bodily fluids, this profession may be challenging.
The following step after phlebotomy is what?
Your next move might be to think about potential job paths that apply what you've learned throughout your education. Those with phlebotomy certifications can pursue careers in nursing, healthcare assisting, doctor assisting, EKG technician, and more.
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the nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. based on her last normal menstrual period, she is 8 weeks' gestation. appropriate physical assessments are completed. which findings are anticipated to be present at this time? select all that apply.
Check your blood pressure. Look for protein in the urine. Identify the deep tendon reflexes. Emphasize the value of maintaining a daily weight log.
Is 150/90 a healthy blood pressure reading?Pressure should be 120/80 or less .Your pulse is considered high if it is 130/80 or higher. 140/90 or greater is considered grade 2 high blood pressure. If your hypertension routinely reads 180/110 m Hg or above, get medical help right once.
What is blood pressure at the stroke level?If your heart rate is 180/120 mm Hg or higher and you are experiencing chest pain, short breath, or stroke-related symptoms, call 911 or immediate medical assistance right away. Numbness or tingling, difficulty speaking, or abnormalities in eyesight are all signs of a stroke.
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a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is immunosuppressed. which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is immunosuppressed, then the statement by the client that indicates the need for additional teaching is: "I can eat whatever I want but it should be low in fat."
What should be taught to discharging patient who is immunosuppressed?
The client requires additional teaching if he/she says that they can eat anything. Immunosuppressed clients should not have raw fruits and vegetables because they may have bacteria that can increase the risk of infection.
Foods must be properly cooked. Avoiding people who are sick, products having alcohol, and people who have just received vaccines are some appropriate actions for an immunosuppressed patient.
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a client is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a fractured femur after a motorcycle accident. the client has been placed in traction until the femur can be rodded in surgery. for what early complication(s) should the nurse monitor this client? select all that apply.
early complication(s) should the nurse monitor this client is Deep vein thrombosis , Compartment syndrome , Fat embolism.
What assessment findings of the leg are consistent with a fracture of the femoral neck?Over the femoral neck, there is noticeable tenderness to palpation. There could be swelling here as well. A femoral neck stress fracture may be indicated by increased discomfort at the extremes of hip rotation, an abduction lurch, and an inability to stand on the affected leg.
What do you understand when a patient is diagnosed with a fractured femur?The longest, strongest, and heaviest bone in the human body, the femur, breaks when it is shattered. Due to the size and strength of the femur, it typically takes a significant amount of force or damage to cause a fracture.
How would you manage a patient with fracture femur?Currently, intramedullary nailing is the procedure that most surgeons employ to treat femoral shaft fractures. A specifically crafted metal rod is placed into the femur's canal during this treatment. To hold the fracture in place, the rod crosses it.
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the provider orders 500 ml vancomycin to infuse over 6 hours. how many ml will the client receive per hour? round the answer to the nearest whole number.
The client receive 83 mL/hour
By using the Formula:
Total milliliters ordered divided by the number of hours to run equals mL/hour. 500 mL divided by 6 hours equals 83.33 mL per hour. 83 mL/hour, rounded to the next whole number.Vancomycin is used to treat bacterial infections. It functions by eradicating germs , bacterial infections or stopping their development. For viral infections such as the flu, cold, or other, vancomycin is ineffective. In addition, dangerous infections for which other medications may not be effective are treated with vancomycin injection.
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which definition is correct to explain the nursing process quizlet procedures to implement client care
The correct definition that explains the nursing process is sequence of steps used to meet the client's needs. The Option B is correct.
What is a nursing process?The nursing process functions mainly as a systematic guide to client-centered care with 5 sequential steps. These sequential steps includes assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
By using the nursing process, encourages the nurses to practice critical thinking, creativity, and problem-solving and sharpens their decision-making abilities in clinical practice.
Missing options "(A.) procedures used to implement client care (B.) sequence of steps used to meet the client's needs (C.) activities employed to identify a client's problem (D.) mechanisms applied to determine nursing goals for the client (B.) sequence of steps used to meet the client's needs
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a nurse on the cardiovascular operating team has been asked to develop a policy for the use of a new drug-eluting stent. which aspects of the policy should the nurse consider to ensure quality?
The nurse should consider: unbiased approach
What are the noticable points of cardiovascular diseases ?High blood pressure, high LDL cholesterol, diabetes, smoking, exposure to secondhand smoke, obesity, a poor diet, and inactivity are the main risk factors for heart disease and stroke.
elevated blood pressure (hypertension).
High triglycerides (hyperlipidemia).
nicotine use (including vaping).
diabetes type 2.
heart disease in the family history
absence of exercise.
being overweight or obese.
high-sodium, high-sugar, and high-fat diet.
The seven cardiovascular risk factors are body weight, blood sugar, total cholesterol, smoking status, physical activity, and diet. Each factor related to cardiovascular health was divided into three groups.
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the nurse educator is preparing to conduct a teaching session for the nursing staff regarding the theories of growth and development and plans to discuss kohlberg's theory of moral development. what information should the nurse include in the session? select all that apply
Answer:
Explanation:
When discussing Kohlberg's theory of moral development in a teaching session for nursing staff, the nurse educator should cover the key components of the theory and provide relevant examples to illustrate its concepts. Kohlberg's theory focuses on how individuals develop their moral reasoning and understanding of right and wrong throughout different stages of life. Here are the essential points to include in the session:
Three Levels of Moral Development: Kohlberg proposed three levels of moral development, each consisting of two stages. The levels are:
a. Pre-conventional Level (Stages 1 and 2): In this level, moral reasoning is based on self-interest and obedience to authority. Individuals follow rules to avoid punishment (Stage 1 - Punishment and Obedience Orientation) or to gain rewards (Stage 2 - Instrumental Relativist Orientation).
b. Conventional Level (Stages 3 and 4): Moral reasoning at this level is influenced by societal norms and values. Individuals seek approval and maintain social order. They behave in ways that conform to social expectations (Stage 3 - Good Interpersonal Relationships) or uphold laws and rules for the sake of society (Stage 4 - Maintaining the Social Order).
c. Post-conventional Level (Stages 5 and 6): This level involves more abstract and principled moral reasoning. Individuals at this stage focus on individual rights, social contracts, and ethical principles. They may question and challenge societal norms and laws based on their own sense of justice (Stage 5 - Social Contract and Individual Rights) or adhere to universal ethical principles, even if they conflict with societal rules (Stage 6 - Universal Ethical Principles).
Progression through the Stages: According to Kohlberg, moral development is a sequential process, and individuals typically progress through the stages in a fixed order. Advancement to higher stages is contingent upon cognitive and social development.
Cultural Influences: Kohlberg's theory acknowledges that cultural and environmental factors can influence an individual's moral development. Different cultures may emphasize specific values and ethical principles, leading to variations in moral reasoning.
Moral Dilemmas and Assessment: Kohlberg used moral dilemmas, such as the Heinz Dilemma, to assess individuals' moral reasoning. The response to these dilemmas provides insight into the individual's current stage of moral development.
Application in Nursing Practice: The nurse educator should discuss how understanding Kohlberg's theory can help nurses in patient care. By recognizing patients' moral development stages, nurses can tailor ethical discussions and decision-making support to align with the patients' cognitive abilities and values.
Ethical Decision Making: Kohlberg's theory highlights the importance of ethical decision making in nursing practice. Nurses can use the theory to guide discussions on complex ethical issues and assist patients in making informed decisions based on their moral reasoning.
Limitations and Criticisms: The nurse educator should also discuss the limitations and criticisms of Kohlberg's theory. These may include cultural bias in the assessment, gender differences in moral development, and the lack of attention to emotion and empathy in moral decision making.
By covering these key points, the nursing staff will gain a better understanding of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and its implications for ethical decision making in nursing practice.
a 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital for altered mental status. he had been in his usual state of good health until this morning when a nurse at the long-term care facility where he lives noticed that he was confused. shortly after being admitted to the hospital, he became combative and had to be restrained. his bed linens have to be changed frequently because of urinary incontinence. which nursing diagnosis best describes this client's condition?
A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital for altered mental status and had been good health until this morning when nurse noticed he was confused, diagnosis is : functional incontinence.
What is functional Incontinence?Functional incontinence is the inability of a normally continent person to reach bathroom in time to avoid the unintentional pass of urine.
It occurs in both men and women with a normally functioning urinary system who have one or more limitations in mobility that impairs their ability to reach toilet in time.
Functional incontinence is treated by using behavioral methods that teach to urinate on a timed voiding schedule and also by modifying your environment so you use the toilet more quickly.
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a client had a previous myocardial infarction and has been experiencing angina from occluded coronary arteries. what teaching should the nurse provide in the stable phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness?
The nurse advises the patient to give up smoking. In general, the objectives of chronic care do not include improving cognition, quality of life, preventing secondary illnesses, or curing patients.
What is the chronic disease self-management model?The Self Management of Chronic Conditions (SMoCC) service seeks to enhance participants' quality of life by empowering them with the self-management abilities needed to slow the advancement of their chronic disease and assist them in navigating the healthcare system more effectively.
What causes a myocardial infarction primarily?A myocardial infarction, is also known as a heart attack, occurs when the blood supply to a portion of the heart muscle is inadequate.The more time that goes by without receiving care to improve blood flow, the more damage the heart muscle sustains.
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the registered nurse (rn) is caring for a client with aplastic anemia who is hospitalized for weight loss and generalized weakness. laboratory values show a white blood count (wbc) of 2,500/mm3 and a platelet countof 160,000/mm3. which intervention is the primary focus in the client's plan of care for the rn to implement?
Maintain stringent safety measures. Obtained from the NGT, aspirated stomach contents should be checked for pH. drinking alcohol of any kind or eating foods high in tyramine.
Describe the stomach.One of the digestive system's organs. By combining food to digestive fluids but also kneading to a thin liquid, the stomach aids in food digestion.
Which side of the stomach is it on?A muscular organ, the stomach is situated upon that left portion of the upper intestines. Food enters the stomach through the esophagus. The lower esophageal sphincter, a muscle valve, allows food to enter the stomach as it comes to the end of the esophagus.
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a nurse provides teaching to a patient with allergic rhinitis who will begin using an intranasal glucocorticoid. which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. if the glucocorticoid causes burning or itching, i should use it every other day. b. i should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid. c. i should use the glucocorticoid whenever i have symptoms. d. i will probably develop systemic effects from the topical glucocorticoid.
b. i should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching.
For a patient with allergic rhinitis, what patient education should you provide?The significance of preventing allergen exposure is one of the main areas of patient education. Patients should have a variety of strategies at their disposal to get rid of or reduce indoor allergens such dust mites, pet dander, and mold.
Finding the cause(s) of the condition and, if feasible, eliminating or avoiding it(they) are the first steps in managing allergic rhinitis. Immunotherapy and medicines shouldn't be used in place of decreasing exposure to allergy triggers; instead, they should be used as supplements.
Singulair can help ease allergic rhinitis symptoms.
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a 68-year-old black man presents to your office with urinary frequency, hesitancy, and nocturia. digital rectal exam reveals asymmetric areas of induration and nodules. which lab finding is most consistent with the diagnosis?
Increased serum The lab result that is the most reliable is prostate specific antigen.
What does an antigen do and what is it called?An antigen is any substance that causes human immune system to create antibodies against it. Antigens can be any foreign invaders, including microorganisms (bacteria), chemicals, poisons, and pollen. Normal biological proteins can develop become self-antigens under pathogenic circumstances.
What does a blood antigen do?Plasma contains proteins called antibodies. They are a component of your body's built-in defenses. They identify alien objects, like bacteria, and notify their immune system, which then eliminates them. Protein molecules called antigens can be detected on the outer layer and red blood cells.
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a mother brings her 6-year-old child to the pediatric clinic, stating that the child has not been feeling well, is weak and lethargic, and has a poor appetite, headaches, and smoky-colored urine. what additional information should the nurse obtain that will aid diagnosis?
The additional information given by the patient include strep throat in the past two weeks that lead nurse to suspect glomerulonephritis.
What is glomerulonephritis?It is the inflammation of tiny filters inside the kidney (glomeruli). It is mainly caused by the attack of own immune system on the healthy body tissue.
Symptoms of glomerulonephritis:
Pink or smoky-colored urine from red blood cells in the urineFoamy or bubbly urine due to the presence of excess urine (proteinuria).High blood pressure (hypertension)Fluid retention (edema) with swelling in face, hands, feet, and abdomen.Urinating less than unusalNausea and vomitingHeadache, lethargyToxins, metabolic wastes, and excess fluid are not filtered in the urine and they build up in the body causing swelling and fatigue in the patient suffering with glomerulonephritis.
Let us discuss other options:
A rash on the hands and feet is associated with scarlet fever, not glomerulonephritis.Shoulder and knee pain is associated with rheumatic fever, not glomerulonephritisWeight loss generally occurs in children with type 1 diabetes, not in those with glomerulonephritis.Hence, strep throat in past two weeks is the additional information used in the diagnosis of glomerulonephritis.
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a nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. when discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:
The nurse should mention about alcohol abuse and smoking.
What are the risks of peptic ulcer ?The nurse should mention that alcohol misuse, smoking, and stress are risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers.
Hemorrhoids and a sedentary lifestyle are not risk factors for peptic ulcers. Duodenal ulcers are linked to chronic renal failure rather than acute renal failure.
Internal bleeding may occur as a result of untreated peptic ulcers.
Blood loss can be gradual and cause anemia, or it can be severe and necessitate hospitalization or blood transfusions.
Black or bloody feces or vomit might result from significant blood loss.
Both H. pylori and cigarette smoking contribute to the development of peptic ulcer disease. Both patients with and without peptic ulcers have a substantial correlation between H. pylori infection and cigarette smoking.
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six weeks after an above-the-knee amputation (aka), a client returns to the outpatient office for a routine postoperative checkup. during the nurse's assessment, the client reports symptoms of phantom pain. what should the nurse tell the client to do to reduce the discomfort of the phantom pain?
The nurse will instruct the client to take opioid agonists as prescribed in order to lessen the agony of the lingering pain.
What program is ideal for nursing?Undoubtedly, the B.sc. Nursing program is superior to general midwives if a person wishes to have a distinguished career in the field of healthcare (GNM). The value of a B.sc. Nursing degree exceeds that of a General Nursing (GNM) programme in terms of job growth, further education, and remuneration.
Can nurses perform surgery?They are already in charge of many aspects of preoperative planning, particularly postoperative care in surgery. Additionally, a lot of surgical nurses working opt to specialize in a certain field, including obstetrics, children's surgery, or heart surgery.
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in some occasions an individual with stomach cancer may have complete or partial removal of their stomach. resulting from the surgery, individuals may experience a syndrome due to the rapid gastric emptying into the small intestine. what is this syndrome called?
This condition is referred to as Dumping syndrome.
What happens once a stomach is removed due to cancer?When the stomach is partially or completely removed, the food that is ingested quickly enters the intestine, which can cause issues with nausea, diarrhea, sweating, and flushing after eating. Treatments are available to alleviate these symptoms.
What results in dumping syndrome after gastric bypass surgery?The thick bulk of food that enters your small intestine at an earlier stage of digestion can trigger early dumping syndrome. The release of gut hormones occurs when the intestines recognize that this food mass is too concentrated.
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the nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client diagnosed with cranial arteritis. what is the priority nursing intervention?
The 82-year-old patient is being treated by the nurse for cerebral arteritis. The likelihood of developing vision loss or blood vessel rupture can be reduced by taking the corticosteroid as prescribed.
What exactly are corticosteroids and how do they work?Steroids, also referred to as corticosteroids, are an anti-inflammatory drug. They are recommended for a variety of ailments. They are synthetic versions of hormones that are typically produced by adrenal glands, two tiny glands located above the kidneys.
The safety of corticosteroids.Corticosteroids are frequently prescribed by doctors to treat illnesses including lupus, asthma, and hives because they reduce swelling and irritation. Although corticosteroids carry a risk with serious side effects, specifically if used long-term, they can significantly reduce symptoms.
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you are a nurse in a medical-surgical hospital unit caring for a patient who has had limited mobility due to a chronic leg wound and has been taking oxycodone for pain multiple times per day. the patient tells you they have not had a bowel movement for five days. (8 pts) what could have contributed to the development of the constipation?
Opioids, which include morphine, hydromorphone, oxycodone, and other pain relievers, may have contributed to the development of constipation.
Which of the following is the client getting opiate therapy's most critical prospective nursing diagnosis?The following are the most typical opioid toxicity nursing diagnoses: reduced ventilatory rate and impaired gas exchange.
One of the objectives of acute pain management is to lessen the impact of pain on patient function and quality of life because pain interferes with many daily activities. Relevant functions for patients after surgery include the capacity to resume activity, maintain a favorable affect or mood, and sleep.
As directed, administer non-opioids, such as acetaminophen and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), including aspirin or ibuprofen. NSAIDs affect tissues in the periphery. Some prevent prostaglandins, which activate nociceptors, from being made. They work well to control mild to severe discomfort.
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the registered nurse (rn) is caring for an older client who has been bedridden for two weeks. which assessment findings indicate to the rn that the client is developing a complication related to immobility?
Joint stiffness is a warning symptom of muscular atrophy and nerve entrapment brought on by idleness and immobility.
What program is ideal for nursing?Undoubtedly, the B.sc. Nursing program is superior to general midwives if a person wishes to have a distinguished career in the field of healthcare (GNM). The value of a B.sc. Nursing degree exceeds that of a General Nursing (GNM) programme in terms of job growth, further education, and remuneration.
Can nurses perform surgery?They are already in charge of many aspects of preoperative planning, particularly postoperative care in surgery. Additionally, a lot of surgical nurses working opt to specialize in a certain field, including obstetrics, children's surgery, or heart surgery.
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you are by the side of a 2-month-old baby who was born prematurely and is on an apnea monitor. while the patient is in your care, the apnea alarm emits a loud alarm. quick assessment of the baby reveals no respiratory activity. what would your immediate action be?
The immediate action will be to Start positive pressure ventilation
What is positive pressure ventilation?
Positive pressure ventilation is primary type of mechanical ventilation used today.
During positive pressure ventilation, ventilator forces air into the central airways and the resulting pressure gradient causes airflow into small airways and alveoli
What is apnea?
Apnea of infancy is defined as, unexplained episode of cessation of breathing for 20 seconds or longer, or shorter respiratory pause associated with bradycardia, cyanosis, pallor, and/or marked hypotonia
It's normal for infants to have short pauses in the breathing.
In infant apnea (ap-nee-uh), these pauses are too long, and heart slows down too much. This is more common in the premature babies born before 37 weeks. Apnea is a pause in the breathing.
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an outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. rotavirus is the most likely causative agent. group of answer choices true false
It is accurate to say that a paediatrics ward has a viral gastroenteritis outbreak. The most likely culprit is the rotavirus.
Which of the above ailments can be contracted by drinking tainted water?Cholera, diarrhoea, dysentery, hepatitis A, typhoid, and polio are just few of the illnesses that can spread due to contaminated water and poor sanitation.
Because of its ability to raise the ph of its immediate environment, can H pylori survive in the stomach's acidic environment?Urease is an enzyme that H. pylori secretes in order to survive in the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach. Urease changes the chemical urea into ammonia. The stomach's acidity is neutralised by the ammonia produced around H. pylori, making the environment more favourable for the bacterium.
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on review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the admission was voluntary. based on this information, the nurse plans care anticipating which client behavior?
On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the admission was voluntary. based on this information, the nurse plans care anticipating: A willingness to participate in the planning of care and treatment plan, this type of client behavior.
What is voluntary?The Latin term voluntaries, which means "of one's free volition," is where the word voluntary originates. A voluntary service is one that is done without any expectation of money in return. For example, if someone works for the community theater on a volunteer basis, that person is not compensated for their time.
Volunteering may help you develop new skills, experience, and even certificates. Accept a challenge. Volunteering allows you to push yourself to try new things, achieve personal objectives, practice utilizing your abilities, and find hidden talents.
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a nurse is preparing a client for colon surgery. which teaching should the nurse provide first to prepare the client for what to expect after surgery?
Inhibiting peristalsis directly during abdominal surgery can result in a syndrome known as paralytic ileus. This brief halt often lasts 24 to 48 hours.
Which course of action ought the nurse to advise to support a patient's intestinal health?bulking up the diet with fibre. the patient receiving enemas as necessary. boosting activity and hydration intake. use a stool softener and bowel stimulant.
Why is it crucial to check your patient's bowel movements after surgery?Long before other symptoms show up, changes in the patient's bowel habits may suggest issues. For instance, before a patient vomits or complains of abdominal pain, the absence of bowel sounds following surgery can signify an ileus.
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the nurse is providing client education for the parents of an obese child diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. what treatment measures would the nurse explain during the education session? select all that apply.
Use of a mandibular advancement device, a weight loss program, and a CPAP machine (MAD).
What kinds of jobs do nurses have?Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and carry out medical procedures, provide emotional support to the relatives of patients, and inform the public about a variety of health issues. Most registered nurses collaborate with doctors and other healthcare providers in a variety of settings.
Nurses are one group of potential applicants.Numerous post-operative surgical treatment tasks are included in their responsibilities. A common field of expertise for surgical nurses is heart, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.
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mrs. laird is a 56-year-old postsurgical patient who has an unremarkable social and medical history. her surgeon has ordered fentanyl patient-controlled analgesia (pca) but mrs. laird admits to you that she is very reluctant to use it for fear of becoming addicted. how should you best respond to mrs. laird's concerns?
Your chances of developing a drug addiction with patient-controlled analgesia (pca) are quite minimal. I'll make a note for your doctor to check, if you can have non-narcotic painkillers for your discomfort.
What element lessens the spread of pain?The opioid family, which includes morphine, and heroin are the most effective ones for providing brief analgesia and pain relief in clinical settings.Acetaminophen: This medication dulls the brain's pain receptors. Consequently, you experience less discomfort. NSAIDs: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications Prostaglandin production is decreased by NSAIDs. These hormone-like substances aggravate nerve endings, resulting in swelling and discomfort.
What are the three different approaches to treating pain?medication for pain. bodily exercises (such as heat or cold packs, massage, hydrotherapy and exercise) psychosocial treatments (like cognitive behavioral therapy, meditation and relaxation techniques) Mind-body strategies
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a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. what medication will the nurse anticipate will be prescribed to produce an anti-inflammatory effect and protect the stomach lining?
Hydroxychloroquine. Visual changes, GI distress, skin rash, headaches, sensitivity to light, and hair bleaching are all side effects of the DMARD hydroxychloroquine.
A headache is what?Commonly classified as throbbing, constant, intense, or dull pressure, headaches are sensations in the head or face. There is a wide range in the kind, severity, location, or frequency of headaches. The majority of people will experience headaches at a certain point in their lives.
How do brain tumor-related headaches feel?Even while some individuals occasionally experience sharp or "stabbing" pain, their headaches are typically described as mild and "pressure-type." They could be broadly applicable or specific to a certain place. They can become worse with straining, coughing, or sneezing.
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