The balanced half-reaction describing the oxidation of aqueous oxide anions to gaseous dioxygen is [tex]\rm 2 O_2^- (aq) \rightarrow O_2(g) + 4 e-[/tex].
The removal of one electron from a molecule during a chemical reaction is known as oxidation.
Balancing the oxygen atom:
Oxygen has an oxidation state of -2 in oxide anions and 0 in gaseous dioxygen.
Therefore, add 4 electrons to each oxide anion in order to balance the oxidation state.
[tex]\rm2 O_2^-(aq) \rightarrow O_2(g) + 2 H_2O(l)[/tex]
Balancing the hydrogen atom:
We now have a total of 4 electrons on the left side of the equation. To balance the charge on the right side, we require 4 electrons.
[tex]4 H^+ (aq) + 4 e^- \rightarrow 2 H_2O(l)[/tex]
The result is a gaseous dioxygen molecule with a total charge of zero after we add 4 electrons to the product side.
So, the balanced equation is
[tex]2 O_2^-(aq) + 4 H^+ (aq) \rightarrow O_2(g) + 2 H_2O(l)[/tex]
Therefore, the balanced half-reaction is [tex]\rm 2 O_2^- (aq) \rightarrow O_2(g) + 4 e-[/tex].
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what is the difference between gross primary production (gpp), and net primary production (npp), in an ecosystem?
Gross primary production (GPP) is the overall rate at which a substance is produced, and net primary production (NPP) is the rate at which a substance accumulates beyond respiration. So NPP is his GPP minus his breath.
Gross primary production: The amount of chemical energy produced by plants and algae from light energy. Net primary production (NPP) is the total minus the energy lost through respiration by plants and algae. Gross primary productivity (GPP) also refers to the rate of the production of the organic matter during the photosynthesis. Net primary productivity: Net primary productivity (NPP) refers to the remainder of the gross production that remains after being used by the grower or plant in the respiratory process. Net primary production are equals gross primary production which minus the energy used by the primary producers for the respiration. Gross primary production is also the amount of the energy from the light converted to the chemical energy per unit of that time
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B
What is the
probability of
heteorzygous
offspring for these
two parents?
B. 75%
D. 0%
Answer:
There is a 75% probability that an offspring will have the dominant trait and a 25% probability that an offspring will have a recessive trait.
Explanation:
May I have Brainliest please? My next rank will be the highest one: A GENIUS! Please help me on this journey to become top of the ranks! I only need 6 more brainliest to become a genius! I would really appreciate it, and it would make my day! Thank you so much, and have a wonderful rest of your day!
PLEASE HELP ME, I HAVE TO DO IT TODAY, IT'S MISSING WORK. PLEASE. AT LEAST A SIMILAR PICTURE OR SOMETHING, I'M HAVING TO DO IT ON THE CHROMEBOOK, PLEASE HURRY. I AT LEAST NEED AN IDEA BECAUSE I'M CLUELESS.
(Also this is Agriscience)
Create a drawing to demonstrate each step in the cell division mitosis cycle:
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Interphase
Pics from my Biology textbook....XDXD
What would be the consequence of ectopically expressing hoxd10 throughout the developing mouse limb bud?.
Converting the thumb into an index finger will be the consequence of ectopically expressing HOX10 throughout the developing mouse limb bud.
The HOXD10 gene in humans produces the protein homeobox D10, commonly known as HOXD10.
The protein that this gene produces has a homeobox DNA-binding domain and is a member of the Abd-B homeobox family. It is a component of a group of homeobox D genes on chromosome 2. The nuclear protein is expressed in growing limb buds and performs as a sequence-specific transcription factor that is involved in differentiation and limb development.
The miR-10a and miR-10b microRNAs suppress the HOXD10 gene.
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low blood glucose is called , whereas high blood glucose is called . group of answer choices hyperglycemia; hypoglycemia hypoglycemia; polydipsia hypoglycemia; hyperglycemia metabolic syndrome; hyperglycemia
how could the duplication of the hox gene complex help facilitate animal adaptive radiation? how could the duplication of the hox gene complex help facilitate animal adaptive radiation? the new gene copies led to lower metabolic rates. the new gene copies helped facilitate the evolution of more complex body plans
The new gene copies helped facilitate the evolution of more complex body plans, thus duplication of the hox gene complex help facilitate animal adaptive radiation.
The function of the Hox genes is to specify positional identity in the embryo rather than the development of any specific structure. These genes are an evolutionary highly conserved gene family. These genes determine the anterior-posterior body axis in bilateral organisms and influence the developmental fate of cells. One copy of a gene can perform the original function, while other copies are available to take on new functions. Patterns of Hox gene activity give each of the segment an identity, giving information about where it is in the body and what structures it should grow. Thus, essentially as the hox gene is responsible for some sort of macro scale body organization and help facilitate animal adaptive radiation.
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Complete question- How could the duplication of the Hox gene complex help facilitate animal adaplive radiation? a) The new gene copies helped facilitate the evolution more complex pody plans b) The new gene copies led to lower metabolic rates c) It is unlikely that gene duplication events in the Hox complex played role in the adaptive radiation animals d) The new gene copies helped facilitate the evolution of smaller bodies.
hich of the following enhances phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages? i) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes ii) antibody-mediated opsonization of microbes iii) the release of cytokines by activated b cells
Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by both the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes & antibody-mediated opsonization of microbes.
Phagocytosis is the process through which larger-than-0.5 m-diameter particles, such as bacteria, foreign objects, and apoptotic cells, are taken up and excreted by cells.
Since phagocytosis occurs in a wide variety of cell types, it is crucial for maintaining tissue homeostasis.
However, only specialized cells called professional phagocytes are able to phagocytose with great efficiency.
Macrophages, neutrophils, monocytes, dendritic cells, and osteoclasts are a few of these specialized cells.
Identification of the object to be ingested, activation of the internalization process, development of a specialized vacuole called a phagosome, and maturation of the phagosome into a phagolysosome are the four stages of phagocytosis.
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parasympathomimetic ophthalmic drugs such as pilocarpine reduce intraocular pressure in the treatment of glaucoma by what mechanism of action?
Pilocarpine and other parasympathomimetic medicines constrict the pupil and "pull" on the trabecular meshwork, increasing the flow of aqueous out of the eye.
What is pilocarpine's mechanism of action in the treatment of glaucoma?Pilocarpine contracts the ciliary muscle in open-angle glaucoma, increasing the outflow of aqueous humour and lowering intraocular pressure. Pilocarpine-induced miosis in closed-angle glaucoma widens the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye, allowing aqueous fluid to leave.
Pilocarpine acts on a subtype of muscarinic receptor (M3) located on the iris sphincter muscle, causing the muscle to contract and cause miosis. This effect is crucial in the treatment of various angle-closure glaucomas in the short term.
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what structures compose a portal triad? branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and hepatic duct branches of the common bile duct, central vein, and hepatic artery branches of the hepatic duct, cystic duct and central vein branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic duct
The portal triad, which consists of a portal vein, bile duct, hepatic artery, and lymphatic arteries, is where blood enters the lobule.
What is portal triad?Three main tubes make up portal triads. Hepatic artery branches deliver oxygenated blood to the hepatocytes, whereas portal vein branches deliver blood with nutrients from the small intestine. The bile duct transports bile products from the hepatocytes to the gall bladder and larger ducts.
Although the portal triad is rarely injured, it is one of the most challenging traumatic injuries to treat due to its high morbidity and fatality rates.
Exsanguinating haemorrhage, frequently from several sources and difficult exposure, is the primary cause of death. Furthermore, vascular occlusion of the portal vein or hepatic artery in an effort to stop bleeding may lead to total intestinal ischemia or liver necrosis, respectively. Ductal injuries can be hard to spot, and infections, leaks, and fatalities are common post-reconstruction consequences.
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The more kate learned about the process of fertilization, the more questions she came up with. She now understood that when released from a follicle, the oocyte enters the uterine tube. And that the follicle then begins to release hormones that signal the uterus that an oocyte is on the way. She also understood why women trying to get pregnant kept track of their temperature, as a rise in body temperature might indicate the presence of an oocyte in the uterine tube where fertilization could occur. But now she wondered how the oocyte traveled from ovary to the uterus. What best explains how an oocyte (whether fertilized or not) makes its way from the ovary to the uterus?.
The oocyte is kept going toward the uterus by the contraction of the smooth muscles and the cilia lining the uterine canal.
An egg travels from the ovary to the uterus in what way?Fallopian tubes These are slender tubes that connect to the top section of your uterus and are used to transport your egg (ovum) from your ovaries to your uterus.
Which phase does the egg leave the follicle?Only one of the growing follicles produces an egg that is completely developed between days 10 and 14 of the cycle. This egg is released by the ovary on day 14 of the menstrual cycle in response to an abrupt rise in LH. This is ovulation. Progesterone increases following ovulation, aiding in uterine preparation for pregnancy.
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identify the type of tissues that make up the outer and inner skin. how did they appear different in the chicken skin?
The epithelium is the type of tissue that make up the outer and inner skin.
The epithelium is a type of frame fabric that forms the top on all within and outside surfaces of your bulk, lines physique craters, and hollow tools and is the major fabric in glands. The epithelium is extensive during the whole of the party.
The epithelium has an assortment of functions that contain guardianship, discharge, absorption, defecation, filtration, spread, and sonic acceptance. The skin is the best tissue for the frame. The skin and allure descendants (eyebrow, nails, sweat, and lubricate glands) create the integumentary order. One of the main functions of the skin is care.
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examine the satellite view of chlorophyll concentrations in the southern atlantic ocean along the southwest coast of africa (the nations of namibia and south africa). which of the following statements offers the best explanation for the observed pattern(s)?
Chlorophyll concentrations are highest along the edges of continents, such as the west coastlines of Africa, North and South America.
Alongshore breezes sweep away the surface water, allowing nutrient-rich deep water to rise along the steep continental edges in a process known as coastal upwelling.
Cold polar waters or regions where ocean currents carry cold water to the top, such as near the equator and along continent coasts, have the highest chlorophyll concentrations, where microscopic surface-dwelling ocean plants thrive.
Rising water, also known as upwelling, transports iron and other nutrients from the ocean floor. Cold coastal upwelling, followed by phytoplankton growth, is most visible along the west coastlines of North and South America, as well as southern Africa.
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a farmer crosses a yellow feathered hen with a red feathered rooster and observed that all their offspring have both yellow and red feathers. if the feather color is determined by both dominant gene, then what is the likely explanation for these results?
if the feather color is determined by both dominant gene, then incomplete dominance is the likely explanation for these results.
Incomplete dominance results from a cross in which each parental contribution is genetically distinct and produces progeny with an intermediate phenotype. Semi-dominance and partial dominance are other terms for incomplete dominance. Mendel defined dominance but not partial dominance.
It is also referred to as partial dominance. In roses, for example, the allele for red color predominates over the allele for white color.
Codominance implies that no allele can prevent or mask the expression of the other allele. Incomplete dominance, on the other hand, is a condition in which a dominant allele does not completely mask the effects of a recessive allele.
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for a lateromedial view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette shoud be placed in which position?
On the medial surface to view of the tarsal joint of a horse.
Standard metatarsal series
Four views make up a typical metatarsal series: a plantarodorsal, lateral, and two obliques that are designed to profile the lateral and medial splint bones away from the shaft of the cannon bone. For orientation, it can be helpful to include small amounts of the tarsus above or the fetlock beneath, although combined tarsometatarsal or metatarsophalangeal exams typically result in subpar images due to geometric distortion brought on by decentering.
It is simple to distinguish between the medial and lateral aspects of the proximal metatarsus because the head of the lateral splint bone (fourth metatarsal) is almost twice as big as its medial counterpart (second metatarsal).
Another way to distinguish the lateral from the medial aspect of the metatarsus is by the partial articulation of the lateral splint with the overlaying fourth tarsal bone.
The little metatarsal bones' natural curvature, especially distally, usually causes the surrounding cannon bone to partially obscure them, mimicking a fractured splint.
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Use the graph and your knowledge of enzymes to identify the three true statements about enzymes.
Enzymes lower the overall energy input needed for a reaction to occur.
By binding to reactant molecules, enzymes make it easier for the bonds in the molecules to break apart.
Only reactions that are controlled by enzymes require activation energy.
Chemical reactions cannot occur without enzymes.
Reactants cannot convert to products without an initial input of energy to start the reaction.
Enzymes lower the overall energy input for a reaction to occur.
By binding to the reactant molecules the enzymes make it easier for the bonds to break apart.
The reactants cannot convert to the products without an initial input of energy to start the reaction.
These statements above regarding the enzymes are true.
Enzymes are proteins that aid in the speeding up of metabolism, or the chemical events that occur in our bodies. Some chemicals are created while others are destroyed. Enzymes are found in all living organisms. Enzymes are naturally produced by our bodies. However, enzymes can also be found in manufactured goods and food.
What are the 5 enzymes?
Types of Digestive Enzymes
Amylase.Maltase.Lactase.Lipase.Proteases.Sucrase.Learn more about Enzymes to visit this link
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A company is having a contest for the best way to reduce energy use. All ideas must be in the form of a written report. How will it help the company to have reports in writing?.
Decision-makers can compare the reports and refer to them frequently, which will benefit the company. Option(c) is the correct answer. Simply put, energy efficiency is the reduction of energy waste while achieving the same goal.
Using less energy results in less demand for fossil fuels, which in proper sequence results in less colorless odorless gas in the air. Heat waves, drynesses, climbing sea levels, different weather patterns, and a profound contingency of unaffected accidents are all belongings of climate change.
Energy preservation boosts the atmosphere for all by threatening air and water pollution and protecting the timber. Energy efficiency creates enrollment and financial funds. Decision-makers can compare the reports and refer to them frequently, which will benefit the company.
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Answer:Decision makers can compare the reports and refer to them often.
Explanation:
the global distribution of terrestrial ecosystems is primarily controlled by two factors, and . (choose 2 from below)
The global distribution of terrestrial ecosystems is primarily determined by two factors, They are Temperature and Precipitation .
Soil ecosystems are the communities of soil organisms and the combination of biotic and abiotic factors in a given area. the distribution of terrestrial ecosystems will change as the flora and fauna changes.The functioning of terrestrial ecosystems is governed by three main factors: The study helps to better assess the capacity of global ecosystems to adapt to climate change. scale ecosystems (biomes) are dominated by time. Latitude, air pressure, and winds are important factors that determine the climate of an area.
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which nerve is highlighted? which nerve is highlighted? facial vestibular vestibulocochlear cochlear
Determine the entity that transmits olfactory nerve fibers. The trigeminal nerve crosses the petrous temporal bone, which is depicted in yellow.
It is then referred to as Meckel's cave and is covered in dura mater. The ocular, maxillary, and mandibular branches make up its three divisions.
When compared to the cochlear nerve, which controls hearing, the vestibular nerve is primarily in charge of maintaining balance and eye movements.
The vestibulocochlear nerve is located on the eighth cranial nerve. The vestibular section of it controls balance, spatial awareness, and posture, while the cochlear branch is in charge of the unique sense of hearing.
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what biome is characterized by alternating rainy and dry seasons and large herds of grazing animals that migrate in response to the seasons?
Tropical dry forest, also called monsoon forest or tropical deciduous forest, biome of any open forest in tropical areas that have a long dry season followed by a heavy rainy season.
Except for Antarctica, all continents are home to the grassland biome, which is characterized by its flat, grassy terrain and scant tree cover. These areas are home to huge grazing species like elephants or bison in addition to small mammals, birds, and predators. The grassland biome is made up of broad, open grassy plains. They are housed in a setting that frequently has fires and grazing animals. There are two different types of grasslands: savannas and temperate grasslands. If it rained all year, the savannahs would transform into lush tropical forests with tall trees. Grasslands cannot persist without periods of dry weather that prevent trees from encroaching.
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What must happen to a cell's chromosomes before they line up at a cell's equator during mitosis?
O They condense into X shapes.
O They pair up as homologous chromosomes.
O They divide in half among each other.
O They separate based on size.
What must happen to a cell's chromosomes before they line up at a cell's equator during mitosis?
O They condense into X shapes.
O They pair up as homologous chromosomes.
O They divide in half among each other.
O They separate based on size.
A cell's chromosomes condense into X-shape before they line up at a cell's equator, during mitosis.
Why it is necessary to condense the chromosome as X-shape during mitosis?
Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle for cell growth. It is also known as equational division as the cell will divide into two exactly similar cells. To make sure the equal division of cell chromosome to each daughter cells it is necessary for the chromosome to aline as X-shape so that during division the chromatins move to their respective poles.
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Compare how fast a deep wound would heal compared to a scrape?
A fall, accident, or trauma could result in a significant scrape, abrasion, or cut. A deep wound also includes a surgical cut made by a medical professional while performing a surgery.
What do you mean by Deep wound ?Wound could be deeper or closer to the skin's surface. Tendons, muscles, ligaments, nerves, blood vessels, and even bone can be harmed by a deep cut. A nail, knife, or pointy tooth are examples of pointed objects that can cause punctures. Puncture wounds frequently look superficial but may penetrate deeper tissue layers.
Clean wounds are those classified as
class 1. They are primarily closed, uninfected, and devoid of irritation.Class 2 injuries are regarded as clean-contaminated.Class 3 injuries are regarded as polluted.Class 4 wounds are regarded as having a filthy infection.Your body has a sophisticated system for treating skin injuries. Every stage is necessary for effective wound healing. Body repair occurs as a result of a number of components and steps involved in wound healing.
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griffith's experiments with s. pneumoniae were significant because they showed that traits could be transferred from one organism to another. what else did he find that was significant? see concept 16.1 (page)
Griffith's experiments with S. pneumonia were significant because they showed that traits could be transferred from one organism to another. He found that more products were significant because the transferred traits were heritable.
An illness called pneumonia causes the air sacs in one or both lungs to become inflamed. The air sacs may swell with fluid or pus (purulent material), which can lead to a cough that produces pus or phlegm, a fever, chills, and breathing difficulties. Pneumonia can be brought on by a number of different species, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) and Mycoplasma pneumoniae, particularly in children, are frequent causes of bacterial pneumonia.
The bacteria streptococcus pneumoniae is frequently detected in the nose and throat. Children, the elderly, and other people with compromised immune systems can occasionally develop life-threatening illnesses from the bacteria.
Early signs include a fever, a dry cough, a headache, muscle discomfort, and weakness, which are similar to influenza symptoms. The symptoms usually worsen over the course of a day or two, including an intensifying cough, shortness of breath, and muscle soreness.
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if an individual failed to develop any mature lymphocytes, they would have lessened innate responses to infection and lessened adaptive responses to infection. true
The statement 'if an individual failed to develop any mature lymphocytes, they would have lessened innate responses to infection and lessened adaptive responses to infection' is true.
In the field of biology, lymphocytes can be described as a certain kind of white blood cells that help the body in generating an immune response in various ways. they also help in activating other immune cells such as the B cells, natural killer cells, T cells etc.
Lymphocytes help in generating an innate as well as an adaptive response. Hence, if an individual fails to develop any mature lymphocytes, then the innate, as well as the adaptive responses against infections, will be affected.
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Prokaryotes stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell ___.
Due to variations in the cell wall, prokaryotes can either stain gram-positive or gram-negative.
Why are prokaryotes gram-positive or gram-negative stained?The thick, peptidoglycan coating of gram-positive bacteria's cell walls will hold onto the dye, causing them to stain violet. The bacteria will stain red if they are gram-negative and the dye leaks through the thin peptidoglycan coating.
What distinguishes gram-positive bacteria from gram-negative bacteria?The hue of a Gram stain is purple. The bacteria in a sample will either stay purple or turn pink or red when the stain and bacteria combine.
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Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him?
A) the masseter and buccinator
B) the buccinator and orbicularis oris
C) the orbicularis oris and risorius
D) the risorius and zygomaticus minor
E) the levator labii superioris and mentalis
Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. option A- the buccinator and orbicularis oris
The orbicularis oris muscle helps to shape and form the lips. This muscle contracts to close and protract the lips. Several mimetic muscles that elevate and depress the lips act on their position and movement. During ingesting, masticatory, blasting, and trying to suck, the buccinator muscle cooperates with the orbicularis oris and superior detrusor muscle muscles. By compressing the cheek inwards, it aids in mastication and blowing. The buccinator muscle is a major facial muscle that lies beneath the cheek. It secures the cheek to the teeth and aids in chewing.
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the mechansim of stabilizing the gfr (glomerular filtration rate) based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when streched is known as . a. sympathetic control b. tubuloglomerular feedback c. renal autoregulation d. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism e. the myogenic mechanism
There are two mechanisms by which this occurs. The first is called the myogenic mechanism. The second mechanism is called the tubuloglomerular feedback. So, option b and e are the correct answers.
Renal myogenic mechanisms are part of the autoregulatory mechanisms that maintain constant renal blood flow under various arterial pressures. Simultaneous autoregulation of glomerular pressure and filtration indicates regulation of preglomerular resistance.
Tubuloglomerular feedback is an adaptive mechanism that relates glomerular filtration rate to salinity in the tubular fluid of the macula compacta. A high proportion of [NaCl] and reabsorption at this site constricts afferent arterioles and reduces GFR.
In this mechanism, termed tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF), an increase in NaCl concentration in the macula densa constricts glomerular afferent arterioles, reducing single freon GFR. Along with myogenic responses, TGFs contribute significantly to renal autoregulation.
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which methods can identify a genetic disorder in a fetus? take a blood sample from the placenta take a blood sample from the father take a sample of amniotic fluid perform pcr on the dna of a sibling perform an ultrasound
Take a sample of amniotic fluid can identify a genetic disorder in a fetus. So option (c) is the correct answer.
An amniocentesis is a prenatal test that can diagnose genetic disorders and other health problems in the fetus.
Genetic amniocentesis is usually performed between the 14th and 20th weeks of pregnancy. An amniocentesis performed before 14 weeks of gestation may cause additional complications. Reasons for genetic amniocentesis include: A positive prenatal screening test result.
Amniotic fluid is the clear fluid that surrounds your baby in your belly during pregnancy. This fluid provides a cushion that protects the baby from injury and gives it room to grow, move and develop.The amniotic fluid also prevents the umbilical cord from getting caught between the baby and the walls of the uterus.
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In the process of photosynthesis, Green plants use light energy to convert?
Answer:
a sugar called glucose
Explanation:
Answer:
glucose
Explanation:
When four hydrogen atoms bind with oxygen and four electrons, what molecule is created?
When four hydrogen atoms bind with oxygen and four electrons, Covalent bond and H3OH molecule creation occurs.
A covalent bond is a type of chemical relationship in which atoms share electron pairs.
What do you mean by Molecule ?A molecule is the smallest fundamental unit of a chemical substance and is defined as a collection of two (2) or more atoms that are chemically linked together. Additionally, molecules have the ability to participate in chemical reactions.
According to Science, molecular biology is a subfield of biology that is primarily concerned with studying molecules, particularly the actions and chemical composition connected to biological ideas and occurrences.When atoms share electrons, a stable equilibrium of the attractive and repulsive forces between them is known as covalent bonding. These electron pairs are also known as shared pairs or bonding pairs. (From a dictionary)Compared to hydrogen, oxygen attracts the electron density closer to itself.To know more about Molecule please click here : https://brainly.com/question/26044300
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Returning fluid and solutes from filtrate to blood happens via __________.
A) tubular secretion
B) tubular reabsorption
C) tubular absorption
D) glomerular filtration
The four stages of urine formation: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion, and water conservation are discussed below.
Explain about urine formation?Urine Formation
Kidney contains nephrons ,whose main function is excrete out unwanted substance from body , in the form of urine.Urine formation involves three major process i.e. , Glomerular filtration , Tubular reabsorption and Tubular secretion.Glomerular filtration -
It is the filtration process in which blood is filtered and the nitrogenous waste and water moves inside the glomerulus.It is a process of ultrafiltration that is carried out by the glomerulus and it's the first step in urine formation.Around 1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute.Tubular reabsorption -
In this process, the molecules and ions gets reabsorbed into the circulatory system.Around 99% of the glomerular filtrate formed is reabsorbed by the renal tubules in the kidneys.Substances like glucose, amino acids, sodium ions, nitrogenous wastes, water, etc. are reabsorbed.Tubular secretion -
The secretion process in which , substances like hydrogen ions , creatinine and drugs are removed from the blood and collected in the duct.And the end product of this is the Urine.It is an important step in urine formation as it helps in maintaining ionic and osmotic balance in the body.Sodium ion, hydrogen ion, and ammonia are secreted into the filtrate by the tubular cells in the kidneys.To learn more about urine formation refer to:
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