Answer:
39 months
Explanation:
loan balance $5,000
APR = 17.3% compounded monthly / 12 = 1.44167% monthly interest rate
monthly payment = $170
if we use the present value of annuity formula:
PV = payment x ({1 - [1/(1 + r)ⁿ]} / r)
5,000 = 170 x ({1 - [1/(1 + 0.0144167)ⁿ]} / 0.0144167)
29.4118 = {1 - [1/(1.0144167)ⁿ]} / 0.0144167
0.42402 = 1 - [1/(1.0144167)ⁿ
1/(1.0144167)ⁿ = 0.57598
1.0144167ⁿ = 1 / 0.57598 = 1.73617
n log1.0144167 = log1.73617
n 0.00621639 = 0.2395926
n = 0.2395926 / 0.00621639 = 38.54 ≈ since the payments must be made in full months, we have to round up to 39 months
to check our answer:
PV = payment x ({1 - [1/(1 + r)ⁿ]} / r)
PV = 170 x ({1 - [1/(1 + 0.0144167)³⁹]} / 0.0144167)
PV = $5,044.36
Travis invested $9,250 in an account that pays 6 percent simple interest. How much more could he have earned over a 7-year period if the interest had compounded annually
Answer: $773.58
Explanation:
From the question, we are told that Travis invested $9,250 in an account that pays 6 percent simple interest over a 7 year period.
We need to calculate the simple interest first. This will be:
= PRT/100
where
P = principal = $9250
R = rate = 6%
T = time = 7 years
Simple interest = (9250 × 6 × 7)/100
= $388500/100
= $3885
Amount after 7 years will now be:
= $9250 + $3885
= $13135
If the interest was compounded annually, this will be:
FV = PV(1 + r)^n
= $9,250(1 + 0.06)^7
= $13,908.58
Therefore, the difference will be:
= $13,908.58 - $13,135
= $773.58
Which senior managers may assume a greater deal of transferability between domestic and international HRM practices?
Answer: d. All of the Above
Explanation:
All the above senior managers are more likely to apply more Domestic HRM practices to make them International HRM practices when they are put into a situation where International practices will be needed.
This is because they have been with the Domestic companies for much of their time and so know more about Domestic practices than international.
The first options refers to senior managers in firms with large domestic markets. To be a senior manager demands experience in the market they are in so it is not far fetched to say that they are more knowledgeable in domestic practices than international.
The second option speaks of managers with little International experience meaning they are more likely to engage in transferability between domestic and International practices.
The third option speaks of managers who built their careers on domestic experience. They will find it hard letting go of what has brought them such success so will more likely apply domestic practices on an international scale.
True or False? Financial instruments can be grouped by time to maturity (money vs. capital) or type of obligation (stock, bond, derivative).
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Financial Instruments are agreements pertaining to the exchange of money between parties. The financial instruments could be in the form of cash or the right bound by contractual laws to receive or deliver items with monetary value. Shares, bonds, loans, and derivatives like futures and forwards are other examples of financial instruments. These financial derivates are securities whose prices are hinged on underlying assets like bonds, stocks, commodities, and currencies. Cash instruments, on the other hand, have their prices determined mainly by the market fluctuations.
Classification of financial instruments could be based on the asset or debt classes. The debt classification could also be broken down as being long or short term. So, the grouping by time to maturity (money vs. capital) or type of obligation (stock, bond, derivative) is a system of classifying financial instruments.
Cullumber Company sells office equipment on July 31, 2022, for $20,260 cash. The office equipment originally cost $72,300 and as of January 1, 2022, had accumulated depreciation of $35,000. Depreciation for the first 7 months of 2022 is $4,290.Required:Prepare the journal entries to: a. Update depreciation to July 31, 2022. b. Record the sale of the equipment.
Answer:
a.
July 31, 2022
Depreciation expense $4290 Dr
Accumulated depreciation - Equipment $4290 Cr
b.
July 31. 2022
Cash $20260 Dr
Accumulated depreciation-Equipment $39290 Dr
Loss on disposal $12750 Dr
Equipment $72300 Cr
Explanation:
a.
The entry would be to charge depreciation expense for the first six months of equipment and to do so, we debit the depreciation expense account and credit the accumulated depreciation account.
b.
We first need to determine the net book value of the asset on the day of sale and then calculate the gain or loss on disposal.
Net Book Value or NBV = Cost - Accumulated depreciation
Accumulated depreciation = 35000 + 4290 = 39290
NBV = 72300 - 39290 = $33010
Loss on disposal = 20260 - 33010 = - $12750 loss
Patricia Nall was approved for a $3,000, two-year, 11 percent loan with the finance charges figured using the discount method. How much cash will Patricia receive from this loan?
Answer:
$2,340
Explanation:
The computation of cash received from this loan is shown below:-
cash received from this loan = Approved amount - (Approved amount × Two year × Percentage of loan )
= Approved amount - ($3,000 × 2 × 11% )
= $3,000 - ($3,000 × 2 × 0.11 )
= $3,000 - $660
= $2,340
Therefore, for computing the cash will Patricia receive from this loan we simply applied the above formula.
Suppose the money supply (as measured by checkable deposits) is currently $850 billion. The required reserve ratio is 20%. Banks hold $170 billion in reserves, so there are no excess reserves. The Federal Reserve ("the Fed") wants to decrease the money supply by $42.5 billion, to $807.5 billion. It could do this through open-market operations or by changing the required reserve ratio. Assume for this question that you can use the simple money multiplier.
1. If the Fed wants to decrease the money supply using open-market operations, it should (buy / sell)$_____billion worth of U.S. government bonds.
2. If the Fed wants to decrease the money supply by adjusting the required reserve ratio, it should_______the required reserve ratio.
Using the following information please prepare a schedule of cost of goods sold and calculate the value of ending inventory and cost of goods of sold included in the Schedule of Cost of Goods Sold for the year ended December 31, 2019, Using FIFO, First In First Out The total Inventory valuation using FIFO on December 31, 2018 was 2,000 units at a cost of $10 per unit. On June 30, 2019 the company purchased 5,000 units at cost of $20 per unit. On September 30, 2019 the company purchased 3,000 units at a cost of $30 per unit. On December 1, 2019 the company sold 6,000 units.
Answer:
Ending inventory= $110,000
COGS= $100,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Beginning inventory=2,000 units for $10 per unit.
Purchases:
June 30, 2019= 5,000 units at cost of $20 per unit.
September 30, 2019= 3,000 units for $30 per unit.
On December 1, 2019 the company sold 6,000 units.
Using the FIFO (first-in; first-out) inventory method, the value of ending inventory is calculated using the cost of the last units incorporated into inventory.
Ending inventory in units= 10,000 - 6,000= 4,000
Ending inventory= 3,000*30 + 1,000*20= $110,000
COGS= 2,000*10 + 4,000*20= $100,000
In December, Davis Company had the following cost flows:
Molding Department Grinding Department Finishing Department
Direct materials $112,100 $29,200 $16,900
Direct labor 8,100 13,300 11,900
Applied overhead 9,200 60,800 10,700
Transferred-in cost:
From Molding 129,400
From Grinding 232,700
Total cost $129,400 $232,700 $272,200
Required:
1. Prepare the journal entries to transfer costs from (a) Molding to Grinding, (b) Grinding to Finishing, and (c) Finishing to Finished Goods.
2. CONCEPTUAL CONNECTION: Explain how the journal entries differ from a job-order cost system.
Answer and Explanation:
1. The Journal entry is shown below:-
a. Work in process for Grinding department Dr, $129,400
To Work in process for Molding department $129,400
(Being transfer the cost to the grinding department is recorded)
b. Work in process for Finishing department Dr, $232,700
To Work in process for Grinding department $232,700
(Being transfer the cost to the finishing department is recorded)
c. Finished goods Dr, $272,200
To Work in process-Finishing department $272,200
(Being transfer the cost to the finishing goods is recorded)
2. According to the job order costing, all cost is transferred on one time to the finished goods inventory plus there is no carry forward
On the other side, the process costing is the costing in which all the journal entries are interconnected with each type of department
First National Bank charges 13.5 percent compounded monthly on its business loans. First United Bank charges 13.8 percent compounded semiannually. Calculate the EAR for First National Bank and First United Bank. (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Answer: 14.28%
Explanation:
Effective Annual Rate is the rate that takes the periodic rates and converts it to an annual rate if compounding the periodic rate was taken into account.
The formula is;
EAR = (1 + r/m)^m - 1
Where;
r is the Annual nominal rate of interest and,
m is Number of compounding periods in a year
EAR = ( 1 + 13.8/2)² - 1
= 1.142761 - 1
= 0.142761
= 14.28%
DeKay Dental Supplies issued $10,000 of bonds on January 1, 2018. The bonds pay interest semiannually. This is a partial bond amortization schedule for the bonds Effective Decrease in Outstanding Payment Cash interest balance 400 400 400 400 409 409 409 410 balance 9,080 9,089 9,098 9,107 9,117 10 What is the stated annual rate of interest on the bonds?
a) 4.5%.
b) 9.0%.
c) 40%.
d) 80%.
Answer: d. 8.0%
Explanation:
The Stated Annual Rate of Interest on a bond refers to the coupon rate which is the amount that the company promises to pay on the bond pay period.
Looking at the question, the company is paying $400 every 6 months on the $10,000 bonds . The interest therefore is;
= 400/10,000
= 4%
Company pays 4% on the bonds every 6 months.
This 4% should be stated in annual terms so;
= 4% * 2
= 8%.
"The nature and purpose of the public sector result in a unique organizational characteristics". Discuss
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
Although the question is incomplete because it does not provide the location, country, or any other further reference, we can say the following.
The nature and purpose of the public sector result in unique organizational characteristics, basically in the formation of bureaucracies that are a form of governmental and administrative organizations with many employees and hierarchies that more that improve management and operations, complicate it and make it slow due to the fact that the number of people working is numerous.
Experts say that this is not the more efficient and effective form of managing governmental offices. On the contrary, it is slow and inefficient.
An ad for Maybelline age-minimizing makeup in Ladies' Home Journal magazine featured actress Melina Kanakaredes and offered readers a $1-off coupon when they tried the new makeup. In the context of the communication model, measuring which of the following would be the best way for the source to measure feedback?A) the number of subscribers to Ladies' Home Journal
B) the number of people who make up the target market
C) the number of people who redeem the coupon
D) the number of people who have purchased Maybelline products in the past
E) the number of people to whom Melina Kanakaredes is an appealing spokesperson
Answer: C) the number of people who redeem the coupon.
Explanation:
The coupon was for people who tried the makeup if they saw the ad. To measure how many people tried the new makeup then based on the ad it would be best to use the number of people who redeemed that coupon when purchasing because it would mean that those people saw the ad and decided to act on it especially if the ad contained an actual physical coupon or a digital coupon that can only be used once. This way Maybelline will know for a fact that those using the coupons saw the ad.
Telecom Company is preparing its annual budgeted income statement. What is the best place to locate the amount of interest expense for the year
Answer: d. Cash Budget
Explanation:
The Cash budget is used to project the company's expected position in terms of the cash it holds in the future. As such, the budget contains both cash receipts and cash disbursements.
Some of the disbursements include expenses and loan payments. The loan payments are where the interest expense will be found for the coming year.
Gross profit margin (Gross profit/Sales) is an important determinant of NOPAT. Identify two factors that can cause gross profit margin to decline. Is a reduction in the gross profit margin always bad news
Answer:
Please find the detailed answer in the explanation section.
Explanation:
Gross profit margins can decline because:
1. When the industry becomes more competitive and/or the company's products have lost their competitive advantage so that the company will have to reduce prices inorder to sell more.
2. Product costs have increased. These are the cost to produce goods and services. Examples are direct labour, direct materials etc. Gross profit will decline if these increases
Declining gross profit margins are usually viewed negatively i.e the reduction in the gross profit margin is always a bad news for a company.
What causes gross profit margin to decline? - when the competition in the industry is high and the company is losing the competition in the market.
"A new customer opens an account and buys a variable annuity contract, investing $20,000. 90 days later, the client calls and tells the representative that he wants to surrender the contract. The representative explains that this is not a good idea, since there will be a high surrender fee of 8% imposed. The client tells the representative that he does not care about the surrender fee and that he wants the net proceeds wired to an account at a bank in another country. What should the representative do?"
Answer:
The insurance representative should first verify that the call was actually received from the customer that opened the annuity account.
Then, she should follow due process established by her insurance company. After these, she can then comply with the customer's instructions.
Explanation:
Investopedia.com defines a variable annuity as the "type of annuity contract, the value of which can vary based on the performance of an underlying portfolio of mutual funds." This means that variable annuities differ from fixed annuities. Fixed annuities provide a specific and guaranteed return.
Suppose that the risk-free rates in the United States and in the United Kingdom are 4% and 6%, respectively. The spot exchange rate between the dollar and the pound is $1.60/BP. What should the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities, ignoring transactions costs
Answer:
The futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities would be $1.63/BP.
Explanation:
In order to calculate the the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities we would have to make the following calculation:
futures price of the pound for a one-year contract=Spot rate*(1+United Kingdom risk free rate)/(1+United States risk free rate)
futures price of the pound for a one-year contract=$1.60/BP*(1+6%)/(1+4%)
futures price of the pound for a one-year contract=$1.63/BP
The futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities would be $1.63/BP.
Recording Factory Labor Costs A summary of the time tickets for January is as follows: Job No 3467 3470 3471 Amount Job No.Amount 3478 3480 3497 3501 $6,829 3,438 11,273 21,352 $9,106 9,891 12,638 17,474 Indirect labor
a. Determine the amounts of factory labor costs transferred to Work in Process and Factory Overhead for January
b. Illustrate the effect on the accounts and financial statements of the factory labor costs transferred in.
Answer:
Work in process = $70649
Factory overhead = 21,352
Explanation:
A.
Factory labor cost transferred to Work in process is the sum of all direct labor cost incurred
Factory labor cost transferred to Factory Overhead is the sum of all indirect labor cost incurred
Work in Process = $6,829 + $3,438 + $11,273 + $9,106 + $9,891 + $12,638 + $17,474
Work in process = $70649
Factory overhead = 21,352
B.
Balance sheet
Assets = liabilities + Capital
$70649 + $21,352 = 92,001 No Effect
Statement of cashflow = No Effect
Income statement = No Effect
Diamond's Corporation has an investment in 5,000 shares of Sigmoid Company common stock with a cost of $218,000. These shares are used in a property dividend to stockholders of Diamond's. The property dividend is declared on May 25 and scheduled to be distributed on July 31 to stockholders of record on June 15. The market value per share of Sigmund stock is $63 on May 25, $66 on June 15, and $68 on July 31. The net effect of this property dividend on retained earnings is a reduction of
Answer:
$218,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the net effect of this property dividend on retained earnings
First step is to find the market value per share Total amount on May 25
Market value =(5,000 * $63)
Market value= $315,000
Second step is to find the net effect of this property dividend on retained earnings
Using this formula
Net effect = Total Market value amount-(Total Market value amount-Cost)
Let plug in the formula
Net effect =$315,000 - ($315,000 - $218,000)
Net effect=$315,000-$97,000
Net effect =$218,000
Therefore the net effect of this property dividend on retained earnings will be $218,000
Janelle Heinke, the owner of Ha'Peppas!, is considering a new oven in which to bake the firm's signature dish, vegetarian pizza. Oven type A can handle 20 pizzas an hour. The fixed costs associated with oven A are $20,000 and the variable costs are $2.00 per pizza. Oven B is larger and can handle 40 pizzas an hour. The fixed costs associated with oven B are $30,000 and the variable costs are $1.25 per pizza. The pizzas sell for $14 each.
a) What is the break-even point for each oven?
b) If the owner expects to sell 9,000 pizzas, which oven should she purchase?
c) If the owner expects to sell 12,000 pizzas, which oven should she purchase?
d) At what volume should Janelle switch ovens?
Answer:
a) Oven A = 1,667; Oven B = 2,353 pizzas.
b) Oven A
c) Oven A
d) 13,334 pizzas
Explanation:
Since nothing was mentioned regarding her time availability, the capacity of each oven will not be taken into account.
The income equation for ovens A and B, respectively, are:
[tex]A=(14-2)x-20,000\\B=(14-1.25)x-30,000[/tex]
Where 'x' is the number of pizzas sold.
a) The break-even occurs when income is zero:
[tex]A=0=(14-2)x-20,000\\x_A=1,666.66\\B=(14-1.25)x-30,000\\x_B=2,352.94[/tex]
Rounding up to the next whole pizza, the break-even for oven A is 1,667 pizzas and for oven B it is 2,353 pizzas.
b) For x = 9,000:
[tex]A=(14-2)*9,000-20,000\\A=\$88,000\\B=(14-1.25)*9,000-30,000\\B=\$84,750[/tex]
Income is greater with oven A, so Janelle should use oven A.
c) For x = 12,000
[tex]A=(14-2)*12,000-20,000\\A=\$124,000\\B=(14-1.25)*12,000-30,000\\B=\$123,000[/tex]
Income is greater with oven A, so Janelle should use oven A.
d) She should switch ovens at the value for 'x' that causes B to be greater than A:
[tex]A<B\\(14-2)*x-20,000<(14-1.25)*x-30,000\\10,000<0.75x\\x>13,333.33[/tex]
Rounding up to the next whole pizza, she should switch ovens at a volume of 13,334 pizzas.
What is google pay level? How do you define and measure its pay level?
Answer: Google pay level involves the total compensation for its employees.
Hope it helps.
Explanation:
Tyrell Co. entered into the following transactions involving short-term liabilities in 2016 and 2017. 2016 Apr. 20 Purchased $38,000 of merchandise on credit from Locust, terms n/30. Tyrell uses the perpetual inventory system. May 19 Replaced the April 20 account payable to Locust with a 90-day, $35,000 note bearing 7% annual interest along with paying $3,000 in cash. July 8 Borrowed $60,000 cash from NBR Bank by signing a 120-day, 11% interest-bearing note with a face value of $60,000. __
Missing information:
Amount paid to Locust (interest + principal)
Amount paid to NBR bank (interest + principal)
Answer:
Amount paid to Locust
interest = $604.11principal = $35,000total = $35,604.11Amount paid to NBR bank
interest = $2,169.86principal = $60,000total = $62,169.86Explanation:
Tyrell Co. entered into the following transactions involving short-term liabilities in 2016 and 2017.
April 20, 2016 Purchased $38,000 of merchandise on credit from Locust, terms n/30. Tyrell uses the perpetual inventory system.
Dr Merchandise inventory 38,000
Cr Accounts payable 38,000
May 19, 2016, replaced the April 20 account payable to Locust with a 90-day, $35,000 note bearing 7% annual interest along with paying $3,000 in cash.
Dr Accounts payable 38,000
Cr Cash 3,000
Cr Notes payable 35,000
August 17, 2016, paid the note to Locust with interest ($35,000 x 7% x 90/365)
Dr Notes payable 35,000
Dr Interest expense 604.11
Cr Cash 35,604.11
July 8. 2016, borrowed $60,000 cash from NBR Bank by signing a 120-day, 11% interest-bearing note with a face value of $60,000.
Dr Cash 60,000
Cr Notes payable 60,000
November 5, 2016, paid the note to NBR Bank with interest ($60,000 x 11% x 120/365)
Dr Notes payable 60,000
Dr Interest expense 2,169.86
Cr Cash 62,169.86
During May, Darling Company incurred factory overhead costs as follows: indirect materials, $2,250; indirect labor, $6,370; utilities cost, $2,660; and factory depreciation, $3,320.
Required:
Journalize the entry to record the factory overhead incurred during May.
Answer:
factory overheads $14,600 (debit)
indirect materials, $2,250 (credit)
indirect labor, $6,370 (credit)
utilities cost, $2,660 (credit)
factory depreciation, $3,320 (credit)
Explanation:
The factory overheads account is debited with factory overheads actually incurred during the period.
Overheads applied to work in process are credited in the overheads account.
This leaves the balance of over or under-applied overheads on either the debit or credit of this account.
Open market operations:___________.
a. are used infrequently
b. are a prime source of income for the U.S. economy
c. are used by the Fed to alter bank reserves
d. are used by the Fed to issue securities
Answer:
The answer is D.
Explanation:
Open market operation is one of the moneytary tools used by The Fed in the United States and the Central banks in other countries to control the money supply in the economy.
In the tools, The Fed increase the money supply by buying bonds/securities from the country's commercial banks This act will inject money into the economy. And to reduce the money supply, The Fed sells bonds/securities to the commercial banks.
The other moneytary tools are reserve requirement and discount rates(Interest rate).
Journalize the following entries on the books of Winston Co. for August 1, September 1, and November 30. (Assume a 360-day year is used for interest calculations.) Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles.Aug. 1 Winston Co. purchased merchandise for $75,000 on account from Bagley Co., terms n/30.Sept. 1 Winston Co. issued a 90-day, 6% note for $75,000 on account.Nov. 30 Winston Co. paid the amount due.CHART OF ACCOUNTSWinston Co.General LedgerASSETS110 Cash111 Accounts Receivable112 Interest Receivable113 Notes Receivable115 Inventory116 Supplies118 Prepaid Insurance120 Land123 Building124 Accumulated Depreciation-Building125 Office Equipment126 Accumulated Depreciation-Office EquipmentLIABILITIES210 Accounts Payable213 Interest Payable214 Notes Payable215 Salaries Payable216 Social Security Tax Payable217 Medicare Tax Payable218 Employees Federal Income Tax Payable219 Employees State Income Tax Payable220 Medical Insurance Payable221 Retirement Savings Deductions Payable222 Union Dues Payable224 Federal Unemployment Tax Payable225 State Unemployment Tax Payable226 Vacation Pay Payable228 Product Warranty PayableEQUITY310 Common Stock311 Retained Earnings312 Dividends313 Income Summary REVENUE410 Sales610 Interest RevenueEXPENSES510 Cost of Merchandise Sold520 Salaries Expense525 Delivery Expense526 Repairs Expense531 Rent Expense533 Insurance Expense534 Supplies Expense535 Payroll Tax Expense536 Vacation Pay Expense538 Cash Short and Over539 Product Warranty Expense541 Depreciation Expense-Building542 Depreciation Expense-Office Equipment590 Miscellaneous Expense710 Interest ExpenseJournalize the entries on the books of Winston Co. for August 1, September 1, and November 30. (Assume a 360-day year is used for interest calculations.) Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles.PAGE 1JOURNALDATE DESCRIPTION POST. REF. DEBIT CREDIT1234567
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entries are shown below:
On Aug. 1
Merchandise Inventory $75,000
To Accounts Payable $75,000
(Being the purchase of merchandise inventory is recorded)
For recording this we debited the merchandise inventory as it increased the assets and credited the account payable as it also increased the liabilities
On Sept. 1
Accounts Payable $75,000
To Notes Payable $75,000
(Being the issued of note payable on the account is recorded)
For recording this we debited the account payable as it decreased the liabilities and credited the note payable as it increased the liabilities
On Nov. 30
Notes Payable $75,000
Interest Expense $1,125 ($75,000 × 6% × 90 days ÷ 360 days)
To Cash $76,125
(Being cash paid is recorded)
For recording this we debited the note payable and interest expense as it decreased the liabilities and increased the expense and credited the cash as it decreased the assets
For each of the following, compute the present value (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answers to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16)): Present Value Years Interest Rate Future value $ 13 7 % $ 15,451 4 13 51,557 29 14 886,073 40 9 550,164
Answer:
To calculate these values, we use the present value formula:
FV = PV (1 + i)^n
Where:
FV = Future ValuePV = Present Valuei = interest raten = number of compounding periods (years in this case)Present value #1
15,451 = PV (1 + 0.07)^13
15,451 = PV (2.41)
15,451 / 2.41 = 6,411
Present value #2
51,557 = PV (1 + 0.13)^4
51,557 = PV (1.63)
51,557 / 1.63 = 33,471
Present value #3
886,073 = PV (1 + 0.14)^29
886,073 = PV (44.69)
886,073 / 44.69 = 19,827
Present value #4
550,164 = PV (1 + 0.09)^40
550,164 = PV (31.41)
550,164 / 31.41 = 17,516
You are considering two mutually exclusive projects. Both projects have an initial cost of $52,000. Project A produces cash inflows of $25,300, $37100, and $22,000 for years 1 through 3, respectively. Project B produces cash inflows of $43,600, $19,800 and $10,400 for years 1 through 3, respectively. The required rate of return is 14.2 percent for Project A and 13.9 percent for Project B. Which project should you accept and why? a) Project A because it has the higher required rate of return b) Project A because it has the larger NPV c) Project 8, because it has the largest cash inflow in year 1. d) Project B; because it has the lower required rate of return
Answer:
b) Project A because it has the larger NPV
Explanation:
Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.
NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator
Project A
Cash flow in year 0 = $-52,000
Cash flow in year 1= $25,300,
Cash flow in year 2 = $37100
Cash flow in year 3= $22,000
I = 14.2
NPV = $13,372.95
Project B
Cash flow in year 0 = $-52,000
Cash flow in year 1= $43,600
Cash flow in year 2 =, $19,800
Cash flow in year 3= $10,400
I = 13.9
NPV = $8,579.62
The NPV of project A is larger than that of project B, so, project A is more suitable
Bailand Company purchased a building for $286,000 that had an estimated residual value of $6,000 and an estimated service life of 10 years. Bailand purchased the building 4 years ago and has used straight-line depreciation. At the beginning of the fifth year (before it records depreciation expense for the year), the following independent situations occur:
1. Bailand estimates that the asset has 8 years’ life remaining (for a total of 12 years).
2. Bailand changes to the sum-of-the-years’-digits method.
3. Bailand discovers that the estimated residual value has been ignored in the computation of depreciation expense.
Required: For each of the independent situations, prepare all the journal entries relating to the building for the fifth year. Ignore income taxes.
Answer:
Bailand Company
Journal Entries:
1. Re-estimated useful life to 8 years (12 in total):
Debit Depreciation Expense $21,000
Credit Accumulated Depreciation $21,000
To record depreciation expense for the year.
2. Sum of the digit method:
Debit Depreciation Expense $37,333
Credit Accumulated Depreciation $37,333
To record depreciation expense for the year.
3. Bailand discovers that the estimated residual value had been ignored:
Debit Depreciation Expense $27,600
Credit Accumulated Depreciation $27,600
To record depreciation expense for the year.
Explanation:
A) Calculations:
Building $286,000
Residual value = $6,000
Depreciable amount = $280,000 ($286,000 = 6,000)
Straight-line Depreciation per year = $28,000 ($280,000/10)
Accumulated Depreciation after 4 years = $112,000 ($28,000 x 4)
Book value after 4 years = $174,000
Independent situations:
1. Bailand estimates that the asset has 8 years’ life remaining (for a total of 12 years).
Book Value = $174,000
Residual value = $6,000
Depreciable amount = $168,000
Remaining Lifespan = 8 years
Depreciation expense each year = $21,000
2. Bailand changes to the sum-of-the-years’-digits method.
8/36 x $168,000 = $37,333 for fifth year.
7/36 x $168,000 for the sixth year
6/36 x $168,000 for the seventh year, and so forth
B) The Sum-of-the-years'-digits (SYD) is an accelerated method for calculating an asset's depreciation. For each year, there is a digit reflecting the number of years remaining. This digit is then divided by this sum of the years to determine the percentage by which the asset should be depreciated each year, starting with the highest number in the first year of application.
3. Bailand discovers that the estimated residual value has been ignored in the computation of depreciation expense.
Determination of annual depreciation expenses:
Depreciable amount = $286,000
Depreciation expense per year = $28,600 ($286,000/10)
After four years, Accumulated Depreciation = $114,400 ($28,600 x4)
Book Value = $171,600 ($286,000 - 114,000)
less salvage value $6,000
Depreciable amount = $165,600
Depreciation expense each year = $27,600 ($165,600 / 6)
Economic growth is illustrated by: Group of answer choices a leftward shift of the short-run aggregate supply curve. a rightward shift of the short-run aggregate supply curve. a leftward shift of the long-run aggregate supply curve. a rightward shift of the long-run aggregate supply curve.
Answer:
a rightward shift of the short-run aggregate supply curve.
Explanation:
a rightward shift of the short-run aggregate supply curve shows that more quantity of real GDP is produced at every price level.
a leftward shift of the short-run aggregate supply curve shows that less quantity of real GDP is produced at every price level.
Clooney Corp. establishes a petty cash fund for $200 and issues a credit card to its office manager. By the end of the month, employees made one expenditure from the petty cash fund (entertainment, $25) and three expenditures with the credit card (postage, $47; delivery, $72; supplies expense, $37).Record all employee expenditures, and record the entry to replenish the petty cash fund. The credit card balance will be paid later.
Answer:
1.Dr Postage expense $47
Dr Delivery expense $72
Dr Supplies expense $37
Dr Entertainment expense $25
Cr Petty cash $181
2.
Dr Petty cash $181
Cr Cash $181
Explanation:
Preparation of the Journal entry to record all employee expenditures and the entry to replenish the petty cash fund.
1.Since we were told to record all employee expenditures this means that the employee expenditures Journal entry will be recorded as:
Dr Postage expense $47
Dr Delivery expense $72
Dr Supplies expense $37
Dr Entertainment expense $25
Cr Petty cash $181
($47+$72+$37+$25)
2. Since we were told to record the entry to replenish the petty cash fund, this means that the petty cash fund will be recorded as:
Dr Petty cash $181
($47+$72+$37+$25)
Cr Cash $181
1) In the previous problem, suppose Ferguson has announced it is going to repurchase $15,600 worth of stock. What effect will this transaction have on the equity of the firm? How many shares will be outstanding? What will the price per share be after the repurchase? Ignoring tax effects, show how the share repurchase is effectively the same as a cash dividend.
Answer:
1. Equity reduces to $372,300
2. 11,517 shares
3. $32.33
Explanation:
1. Effect on Equity
The company will use $15,600 cash to buy the equivalent amount of shares.
Cash Balance will reduce by;
= 52,900 - 15,600
= $37,300
Equity will reduce by the amount of stock repurchased;
= 387,900 - 15,600
= $372,300
2. Shares Outstanding
Current Stock Price = [tex]\frac{Equity Value}{Number of shares outstanding}[/tex]
= 387,900/12,000
= $32.33
Number of shares repurchased = 15,600/32.33
= 483 shares
New Shares Outstanding = 12,000 shares - 483 shares
= 11,517 shares
3. Price per share after repurchase
= [tex]\frac{New Equity Value}{New Number of shares outstanding}[/tex]
= 372,300 / 11,517
= $32.33
4. Dividends declared reduces the equity value.
= 32.33 - 1.30
= $31.03
The share repurchase is the same as the cash dividend because the stock price after the repurchase is the same as the stock price if dividends are declared less the cash dividends.