Answer:
b. 178 calories
ok so 17mph is 0.57 weight/min
so what were going to do is multiply 125 times 0.57 which is 7.125
then multiple that answer by 25 mintues: 7.125 x 25 = 178.12...etc
now if we round this up it stays as 178!
Which statement describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude?
It is measured by the Mercalli scale.
It is based on the size of seismic waves.
O It is not usually affected by the amount of fault movement.
It is used to determine damage caused by earthquakes.
Answer:
b. It is based on the size of seismic waves
Explanation:
just did the test
The statement that describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude is: "It is based on the size of seismic waves."
What is an earthquake's magnitude?An earthquake's magnitude is a measure of the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and it is determined by measuring the amplitude (height) of the seismic waves generated by the earthquake. The size of the seismic waves is directly related to the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and this is used to calculate the earthquake's magnitude.
The most commonly used scale for measuring earthquake magnitude is the Richter scale, which is based on the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram. Other scales, such as the moment magnitude scale, are based on the seismic moment, which takes into account the size of the fault rupture and the amount of slip on the fault.
Learn more about earthquake, here:
https://brainly.com/question/29500066
#SPJ7
The graph below shows the temperature of ocean water at different depths. Which part of the graph represents the thermocline? a. AB b. BC c. CD d. DE
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Generally temperature changes rapidly with the dept in aquatic bodies especially the oceans.The thin distinct or transition layer where the variation in temperature with depth is most significant is called Thermocline.
Its represents the gaps which separate the upper mixed layer from the lower deeper water bed below,it therefore represent the layer of mixture of the upper surface warmer water (C) below 200 meters, with the cooler water layer(E) below,from 1000 meters check the attachment.
It is caused by variation in intensity of sunlight.The latter hits the surface water layer and therefore raises the temperature.But,because of decrease in sunlight penetration,with increasing dept, the temperature of the lower water dept decreases.
Humans breathe in oxygen and release ____ gas.
Answer:
Carbon
Explanation:
Reverse photosynthesis
Answer:
carbon dioxide
Explanation:
our body changes it
which describes a meta phase plate
Answer:Metaphase plate refers to sister chromatids lining up in the center of the cell. This event occurs during the metaphase of the cell division and it is the indication of this phase. Metaphase plate is a moment when all of the chromosomes organize, line up literally in a row and after that begin to.
As Hite and Seitz (2016) discuss in Chapter 5: Climate Change, reputable scientific studies continue to show that the Earth is warming at an unsustainable rate because of a rise in the release of CO2 and methane gases. What is the relationship between population increases and climate change
Answer:
See the answer below
Explanation:
The relationship between climate change and increased population of humans is a direct one. As the population of humans increases, their activities leading to the release of greenhouse gases such as CO2 and methane also increases. The greenhouse gases are primarily responsible for the warming of the earth.
As more and more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere, more radiation from the sun is trapped in the atmosphere and the earth receives more warmth. This extra heat received leads to increase in the global temperature, a phenomenon known as global warming. As the average global temperature increases, climate becomes more erratic and unpredictable.
The greenhouse gases-related activities of humans that are bound to increase with the increase in population include deforestation, fossil fuel burning, industrialization, etc.
What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds
Answer:
90 percent
Explanation:
Based on average estimated juvenile and adult survival rate for each species
 What is the most likely explanation for how speciation occurs?
A. It occurs by more than one method.
B. It occurs by gradual changes.
C. It occurs only by geographic isolation.
D. It occurs only by natural selection.
Answer:
The answer is (C) geographical isolation
Explanation:
Speciation is most likely to occur when populations become geographically isolated from one another, and come to inhabit environments that differ significantly from one another.
Specialized cells such as white blood cells interact with foreign particles in the body. A particular cell belonging to this category recognizes bacteria and forms a covering around it, pinching off the vacuole. The cell then performs . The foreign particles recognized by the particular type of cells differ from the ones recognized by another type of white blood cell. This situation indicates that the receptors are .
Answer:
specific
Explanation:
The immune system contains different types of cells that act in both innate and acquired (adaptive) immune responses to destroy pathogenic microorganisms that invade our body. The immune cells include B and T cells, dendritic cells, macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, etc. These cells contain specific receptors that play different roles in the immune response. For example, macrophages and dendritic cells contain receptors required for antigen presentation, while white blood cells (B and T cells) have receptors required for antigen recognition.
Answer: I just took the test
Explanation:
Here's the answer
Huntington's disease, which causes degeneration of neurons, runs in Mark's family. Huntington's is a heritable autosomal dominant genetic disease, in an autosomal dominant disease, only one abnormal allele is required to cause the disease in offspring. However, it is possible not all offspring will receive the abnormal allele from an affected heterozygous parent.
Family members that have the disease include Mark's maternal grandfather and Mark's maternal aunts. Mark's maternal grandmother does not have the disease.
Because symptoms of Huntington's disease do not appear until later in life, genetic testing is necessary to determine whether a younger individual possesses the allele for the disease. These tests determined that Mark's mother does not carry the allele for Huntington's disease.
Mark's paternal aunt suggested that Mark create a pedigree to track the disease in his family. Use the symbols provided to complete the pedigree. Each symbol may be used more than once.
Answer:
As it is given that Mark's paternal grandmother and grandfather does not carry the disease. The symbols on the right side of the Punnett represent Mark's paternal family. If both his paternal grandparents are unaffected then his father and paternal aunt are also not affected by the disease.
His maternal grandfather is affected as mentioned and also his maternal aunts are affected. Mark's mother is unaffected as she does not have the disease-causing alleles determined by genetic testing.
Both of the marks parents are unaffected which indicates that marks also do not carry the allele of the disease.
Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder in which the presence of even one dominant allele can cause the disorder.
The autosomal disorder can not skip a generation, have to be present in every generation.
Condition Given:
Affected Member: Mark's Maternal grandfather and Maternal aunts.
Normal: Mark's Maternal grandmother and Mark's Mother.
As MArk's Maternal Grandfather is affected then his genotype must be Aa because Mark's Maternal grandmother is unaffected (aa), this is the only condition where Mark's mother will be normal.
A- Dominant (Huntington)
a- Recessive
Maternal means on the mother's side and paternal means on the father's side.
The diagram is attached below.
I-1: Mark's maternal Grandmother
I-2: Mark's maternal Grandfather
I-3&4: Mark's Paternal Grandparents
II-1&2: Mark's Maternal aunts
II-5: Mark's paternal aunt
II-3&4: Mark's mother and father respectively will not have the disease as both father and mother of Mark are normal.
Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/9982951
What best describes the behavior of nonconservative elements in seawater?
The given question is incomplete due to missing options, however, the options for the question as follows:
A. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.
B. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
C. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
D. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Non conservative components are components that enter the ocean water and have little concentration in the sea and show spatial variations. These components have short home time that is short replacements time and they are non responsive.
Constituents, for example, phosphate, nitrate, and different supplements, and broke up oxygen, carbon dioxide, and so on are non-conservative on the grounds that their concentrations are later altered by chemical reactions in the ocean.
Thus, The correct answer is option C.
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
Complete question:
Part C: Using the Punnett square to make predictions
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note: You will find the Punnet square in the attached files.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
1) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random will be yellow?
2) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random from along the yellow seeds will breed true when selfed?
3) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include at least one yellow seed?
4) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include one green seed and two yellow seeds?
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
Y is the dominant allele and expresses yellow color y is the recessive allele and expresses green colorSeeds with YY and Yy genotype are yellowSeeds with yy genotype are greenParental) Yy x Yy
Gametes) Y y Y y
Punnet Square)
(1/2) Y (1/2) y
(1/2) Y (1/4) YY (1/4) Yy
(1/2) y (1/4) yY (1/4) yy
F2) 1/4 YY
2/4 = 1/2 Yy
1/4 yy
1) There will be 3/4 of probabilities of getting a yellow F2 seed
1/4 YY + 2/4 Yy = 3/4 Y-
The symbol "-" means that in its position there might be either a Y or y allele.
2) As there are only three yellow possible genotypes for yellow seeds, the fourth genotype for green seeds is not considered. Our pool now is only yellow seeds. So the probability of getting a pure breeding yellow seed among all yellow seeds is 1/3.
1/3 YY
1/3 Yy
1/3 yY
In the pool of yellow seeds, there are three genotypes, and only one of them corresponds to pure breeding yellow seed.
3) To calculate the probability of getting at least one yellow seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we need to multiply and then perform addition. This is, when we take three seeds from the pool, we have different possibilities of getting seeds with different genotypes. So:
the three chosen seeds could be yellow. In this case, we multiply their probabilities. The probability of getting one yellow seed is 3/4, so, the probabilities of getting three yellow seeds are: 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 27/64There might also be one green sees and two yellow seed, so we multiply their probabilities in the order in which we might get them. This is:
Two yellow seeds and one green seed: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow seed, one green seed, and one yellow seed: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed, and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64And we could also get two green seeds and only one yellow seed:
Two green and one yellow seed: 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64one green, one yellow and one green: 1/4 x 3/4x 1/4 = 3/64one yellow seed and two green seeds: 3/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 3/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
27/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 3/64 + 3/64 + 3/64= 63/64.
Note that we did not include the possibility of getting three green seeds (1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4). This is because we were asked to calculate the probabilities of getting AT LEAST one yellow seed.
4) To calculate the probability of getting two yellow seeds and one green seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we should multiply probabilities and then sum them up.
The orders in which we could get the seeds are:
Two yellows and one green: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow, one green, and one yellow: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
6/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 = 27/64.
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
1) yellow seed could either be GG, Gg or Gg from Punnett square, therefore, there is a 3/4 probability
2) true-breeding = either GG or gg. Therefore, out of the 3 yellow seed options, only 1 is true-breeding, therefore, it's a 1/3 probability
3) "there are 7 possible groupings that have at least 1 yellow seed; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 63/64. Note that you could have also calculated this answer by subtracting the probability of the one category that doesn’t fit the criterion (Green, Green, Green) from the total probability (1 – 1/64 = 63/64)"
4) "there are 3 possible groupings that have 1 green and 2 yellow seeds; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 27/64"
**all rights reserved to Pearson Mastering Genetics**
which proteins serves as a chemical messenger
Answer:
Neuropeptides
Explanation:
They are proteins that function as chemical messengers and are released by neurons. They contain 3 to 36 amino acids.
Hope this helps!!! PLZ MARK BRAINLIEST!!!
150 ml of 54% CaCI2 solution contains how many grams of CaCI2?
Answer:
mass of CaCl₂ = 67.4 g of CaCl₂
Explanation:
A 45% CaCl₂ Solution contains 45 g of solute per 100 mL of solution.
mass concentration = mass of solute (g)/ volume of solution (L)
100 mL of solution = 100 * 1L /1000 = 0.1 L
Mass concentration of solution = 45 g/0.1 L = 450 g/L
Molar concentration of solution = mass concentration / molar mass
molar mass of CaCl₂ = 111 g/mol
molar concentration = 450 g/L / 111 g/mol = 4. 05 mol/L
Number of moles of CaCl₂ present in 150 ml of 4.05 mol/L solution = molar concentration * volume (L)
number of moles of CaCl₂ = 4.05 * 150 * 1 L/1000 = 0.6075 moles
mass of CaCl₂ present in 0.6075 moles = number of moles * molar mass
mass of CaCl₂ = 0.6075 * 111 = 67.4 g of CaCl₂
When ______ is released, the subsequent receiving neuron ________ fire because that neurotransmitter is _______.
Answer:
When a neurotransmitter is released, the posterior receptor neuron has the receptor to bind to it because that neurotransmitter is a stimulator of the postsynaptic membrane.
Explanation:
The neurotransmitters that are released from the motor plate, that is, from the postsynaptic membrane to the presynaptic space, are captured by receptors of the postsynaptic membrane, which can be another neuronal structure to transmit an impulse or a muscle to be able to execute the contraction.
I leave you an image that draws up the stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane by means of a neutrotranismor, these are called as: adrenaline, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, etc.
Number 1 is the presynaptic membrane that releases the neurotransmitter (yellow balls), number 2 is the intersynaptic space, 3 is the postsynaptic membrane that in number 4 can be seen to be activated by relating to the neurotransmitter
what is a part of interphase A. cytokinesis B. telophase C. anaphase D. s phase
Answer:
D
Explanation:
I did it on my own soci know it's the answer
In the context of interphase, the S phase is the specific part where DNA replication occurs, contributing to the overall process of cell division and ensuring the transmission of genetic material to new cells and the correct option is option D.
Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle, and it is divided into three main stages: G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase. Among these stages, the S phase is specifically responsible for DNA replication. It is during the S phase that the cell's DNA is duplicated in order to prepare for cell division.
During the S phase, the DNA helix unwinds, and the two strands separate. Enzymes and proteins then work together to synthesize new complementary strands for each of the separated DNA strands. As a result, two identical copies of the DNA molecule are produced.
The S phase plays a crucial role in maintaining the genetic integrity of the cell. By accurately duplicating the DNA, the cell ensures that each daughter cell formed during cell division receives an identical set of genetic information. This is vital for the proper functioning and development of organisms.
Thus, the ideal selection is option D.
Learn more about Interphase, here:
https://brainly.com/question/30622117
#SPJ5
difference between plant and animal cyanide resistance respiration.
Answer:
The cyanide resistant respiration differs in plants as oxidation of reduced coenzyme continues even in the presence of cyanides.
Explanation:
The mitochondrial is the electrons through which the animals and plants perform the aerobic exercise and is blocked by the release of the cyanides that stops the activity and is known as cyanide sensitive respiration Plant mitochondria is different from the animal as they both have different oxidase system pathways. Cyanide resistant is responsible for the climacteric in fruits and for the generate heat in thermogenic tissues.If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?
Answer:
The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
Explanation:
One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.
An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.
Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel
Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).
Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .
Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/11252418
Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided
Which of the following example(s) does NOT cause bias in a research study.
A) Measuring body temperature with an oral thermometer in half of subjects and an ear thermometer in others
B) Counting the number of firefighters at your house to predict if it will be destroyed
C) Using a set of standardized questions to measure food intake in children
D) Studying workers to see the effects of a new health care law on unemployed
The first glycolysis rate-limiting enzyme is under various allosteric regulations. This protein is nearly inactive because of inhibition by ( ) under physiological conditions. The activity is restored by ( ), its most potent allosteric activator.
a. AMP :::: citrate
b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
c. ATP :::: citrate
d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
e. All of these
Answer:
d. ATP; Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
Explanation:
Phosphofructokinase-1 is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate from fructose-6-phosphate and ATP. The phosphofructokinase step is the first rate-limiting step of glycolysis.
Phosphofructokinase-1 activity is allosterically regulated. Its activity is increased whenever the cell's ATP supply is depleted or when its breakdown products, ADP and AMP accuulates in he cell. However, it is inhibited when the cell is amply supplied with ATP.
The activity of phosphofructokinase-1 is restored by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, its most potent activator.
From the given options:
a. AMP :::: citrate is wrong because AMP increases the activity of phosphofructokinase-1 and citrate is not its activator but an inhibitor
b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2 is wrong because AMP increases its activity same as fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
c. ATP :::: citrate is wrong because both citrate and ATP are inhibitors
d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2 is correct as explained above
e. All of these is wrong because of the other wrong options above.
As we continue to learn, what allows our brain to reformat and adapt by developing new neural pathways?
Answer:
Developing new neural pathways
A chemical reaction is an interaction that always causes:
O A. matter to be changed into energy.
B. macromolecules to be formed from glucose.
O C. molecules to break apart into atoms.
O D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.
Answer:
D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.
Explanation:
Chemical reactions involve interaction between chemicals such that all reactants are changed into new materials. The properties of the new materials are different from those of the reactants.
Chemical reactions involve breaking chemical bonds between reactant molecules (particles) and forming new bonds between atoms in product particles (molecules). The number of atoms before and after the chemical change is the same but the number of molecules will change.
List the functions of proteins
Answer:
Growth and Maintenance.
Causes Biochemical Reactions.
Acts as a Messenger.
Provides Structure.
Maintains Proper pH.
Balances Fluids.
Bolsters Immune Health.
Transports and Stores Nutrients.
Uncellular eukaryotic organisms belong to?
All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to Protista.
Answer:
Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista.
Explanation:
Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista. They depend on other organisms for their food since they're not able to produce their own.
Hope this helps :)
Which activity involves a chemical change?
A. Ice melting into liquid water
B. A metal rod being bent into a ring
C. Colorless egg becoming a white solid
D. Salt dissolving in water
SUBMIT
Need help now pls!!
option C is correct........
.. Please follow me and mark as brainliest
What was the population density of the original sample? What would have happened if you had inoculated an agar plate with 1 mL of the original sample?
Answer:
The sample was at a population density of 8.75x10^4 CFU/mL originally.
Explanation:
Had it been inoculated in the way as described in the question statement, the bacterial growth would have covered all of the agar plate and we would not have been able to distinguish individual colonies of bacteria. 1 mL is too much of a sample volume to use in cases like these.
which type of research study compares disease rates among population groups?
Answer:
Epidemiological
Explanation:
Epidemiology compares disease rates among population groups, and attempts to identify related conditions or behaviors.
Answer: Epidemiological studies
Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-
cutting?
extinction of species
death of organisms
speciation
global warming
Answer:
Death of organism
Explanation:
Human activities include the clear-cutting of areas of forest to make space for farming.
Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting?
Is this your question?
Death of organisms effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting.
What do you mean by clearcutting?Clearcutting is an extreme logging method in which resilient natural forests are harvested and replaced with man-made tree plantations that do not replicate the ecosystem services of a healthy forest.
Clearcutting is one of the most publicly maligned and misunderstood forest regeneration treatments. It is the only way to grow trees that require full sunlight to reproduce, such as tulip poplar, black cherry, and aspen, and the fastest way to provide/create shrubland habitat.
Clear-cutting often contributes to reductions in root strength and soil water-holding capacity, due to soil compaction and reduced transpiration. Moreover, the removal of the forest cover exposes the soil surface to heavy precipitation and large variations in temperature.
Learn more about clear-cutting:
https://brainly.com/question/7324699
#SPJ6
A friend comes to you extremely agitated and says her husband beat her last night.She says she doesn't know what to do.You Can See She's Very panicky.Everything you suggest just seems to provoke more anxiety and fears.When you try to respond to one aspect of the problem.Your friend interrupt's frantically and jumps to another.Explain what can you do to help.
why was an Archea considered as a prokaryote
Answer:
Archaea is prokaryotic because it doesn't have a nucleus, nor any membrane-bound organelles. The reason why Archaea is different from Bacteria is it is more prominent, most of them are extremophiles.
because they are composed of cell which doesn't have nucleus and other some cell organelles and also considered as incomplte cell.