An investigator conduct laboratory tests on unburned control material collected from a fire scene to analyze the breakdown products A gas chromatograph is most often used to detect and characterize recovered flammable residues.
Laboratory tests, Analyses of the breakdown products produced by the material's exposure to intense heat during the fire can be performed in the laboratory on unburned control material. Analytical chemistry commonly employs gas chromatography for the separation and analysis of compounds that can be vaporized without decomposition.
The gas chromatograph is the most delicate and solid instrument for distinguishing and portraying combustible buildups. Accelerants like gasoline and kerosene are what start the majority of arsons.
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based on whay you know about neuroendocrinology and stress, why is it common for peoopple t stress eat in respose to hallehgning systems
Based on neuroendocrinology and stress we observe that when you are stressed, your adrenal glands secrete hormone called cortisol. You might indeed observe an increase in appetite and an urge to eat sugary, salty, or fatty foods when this occurs.
Neuroendocrinology is the result of the relationship between the nervous system and the endocrine system, or how the brain regulates hormonal activity in the body. Thus, neuroendocrinology is the study of hormone-brain interactions, specifically how hormonal changes affect behavior.
Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone produced and released by your adrenal glands. Hormones are chemicals that help your body coordinate different functions by transporting signals through your blood to your organs, skin, muscles, and other tissues. These signals instruct your body regarding what to do and when. Cortisol is a steroid hormone produced and released by your adrenal glands, which are located on top of your kidneys. Cortisol influences several aspects of your body, primarily regulating your body's stress response.
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Question 1 of 10
What are two examples of stem cells working in adult animals?
A. Cells divide to form the blastocyst and then the gastrula.
B. New nerve cells are produced to repair nervous tissue.
C. Germ layers develop into specialized cells and tissues.
D. Bone marrow produces new blood cells to fight disease.
Answer:B and D
Explanation just did the test
Stem cells serve as a source of fresh cells for the development or replacement of specialized tissues. These cells must divide to replenish themselves in order to carry out their role, and some of their offspring will eventually differentiate to form new tissues. Thus option B, D is correct.
What role stem cells working in adult animals?The embryo's stem cells divide as it grows and develops to create the various types of specialized cells it will require to create functional tissues and organs.
In order to regenerate and repair damaged tissues, adult stem cells are used. Findings: Adult stem cells can differentiate into a wide range of tissues and cell types in response to pathophysiological stimuli. They have been extracted from adult tissue, umbilical cord blood, and other non-embryonic sources.
Therefore, New nerve cells are produced to repair nervous tissue and Bone marrow produces new blood cells to fight disease.
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dna is found in association with proteins within the cell. what is the term for this dna-protein complex?
This DNA-protein complicated is known as chromatin, in which the mass of protein and nucleic acid is almost equal. Within cells, chromatin typically folds into feature formations known as chromosomes.
Each chromosome incorporates a unmarried double-stranded piece of DNA along side the aforementioned packaging proteins. Chromatin is a complicated of DNA and proteins that paperwork chromosomes in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. Nuclear DNA does now no longer seem in loose linear strands; it's far pretty condensed and wrapped round nuclear proteins so one can match within the nucleus.
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basil will produce tiny flowers if it is not kept trimmed back. after these tiny flowers are pollinated, they produce tiny seeds encased in a papery covering. basil is an example of a(n
Basil will produce tiny flowers if not kept trimmed back. After these tiny flowers are pollinated, then they produce tiny seeds encased in a papery covering. Basil is an example of : angiosperm.
What do you understand by angiosperms?Flowering plants that bear flowers and fruits, and form the clade angiosperms. The term "angiosperm" is derived from the Greek words angeion and sperma, and are those plants that produce their seeds enclosed within a fruit.
Angiosperms are vascular plants and they have stems, roots, and leaves. Unlike gymnosperms, angiosperm's seeds are found in a flower. Angiosperm eggs are fertilized and develop into seed in an ovary.
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UUU-CAG-GUA-UAC
15. What is the sequence of amino acids that will be translated from the mRNA above?
O phenylalanine-histidine-valine-tyrosine
Ophenylalanine-stop
Ophenylalanine-histidine-stop
O phenylalanine-glutamine-valine-tyrosine
At King's College in London, Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins were studying DNA. Wilkins and Franklin used X-ray diffraction as their main tool -- beaming X-rays through the molecule yielded a shadow picture of the molecule's structure, by how the X-rays bounced off its component parts.
Diffraction of X-rays Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins were conducting DNA research at King's College in London.
Wilkins and Franklin's primary method was X-ray diffraction, which produced a shadow image of the molecule's structure based on how the X-rays rebounded off its constituent components after passing through the molecule.
The crucial piece of information that DNA has a double helix shape was revealed by Rosalind Franklin's X-ray diffraction patterns of DNA molecules.
James Watson, Francis Crick, and Maurice Wilkins shared the 1962 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for discovering the structure of DNA. Rosalind Franklin, whose X-ray images of DNA directly led to the discovery of the double helix, was conspicuously absent from the platform.
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Do you think that Earth is overpopulated by humans?
Answer:
no there is land water also
Yes, I believe that Earth is currently overpopulated by humans.
According to the Population Division of the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs, the world’s population is estimated to reach 8.5 billion people by 2030 and 9.7 billion by 2050. This is a significant increase from the current population of 7.8 billion people.
The problem of overpopulation is compounded by the fact that the global population is expected to continue to grow at a rapid rate in the coming decades. This is because the fertility rate in many countries remains high, while the mortality rate continues to decline due to advances in healthcare and nutrition.
In addition, the number of people living in cities is also increasing, which is putting strain on urban infrastructure and resources. This is leading to several problems such as air pollution, traffic congestion, water shortages, and overcrowding.
Finally, the large number of people on the planet has also had a significant environmental impact. The increasing demand for resources such as food, water, and energy is resulting in deforestation, habitat destruction, and climate change.
Overall, it is clear that the Earth is overpopulated by humans, and this is hurting the environment and the quality of life of many people. Governments and other stakeholders must take action to address the issue of overpopulation and its associated problems.
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a mixture of ddntps and dntps is used in sanger sequencing. which of the following statement is correct?
When added to a growing chain, dNTPs prevent DNA synthesis because they lack a hydroxyl group in the 3' position.
What is Sanger sequencing?
The "chain termination method," often known as Sanger sequencing, is a technique for figuring out the nucleotide sequence of DNA. The Sanger Sequence is a technique that was created in 1977 by two-time Nobel laureate Frederick Sanger and his colleagues.
The Sanger sequencing process consists of three key phases.
DNA SEQUENCE FOR ENDING CHAIN PCR
Chain-termination PCR is a unique form of PCR that uses the DNA sequence of interest as a template. While chain-termination PCR functions similarly to normal PCR, it differs significantly in that modified nucleotides (dNTPs) known as dideoxy ribonucleotides are added (ddNTPs).
ELECTROPHORESIS OF GEL TO SEPARATE SIZE
The second stage involves separating the chain-terminated oligonucleotides by size using gel electrophoresis. The oligonucleotides will be drawn toward the positive electrode on the other side of the gel in gel electrophoresis because DNA is negatively charged. DNA samples are placed into one end of a gel matrix and an electric current is applied.
DNA SEQUENCE DETERMINATION & GEL ANALYSIS
The final step consists of simply reading the gel to ascertain the input DNA sequence. Each terminal ddNTP will match a specific nucleotide in the original sequence as DNA polymerase only creates DNA in the 5' to 3' direction beginning at a supplied primer.
Hence, When added to a growing chain, dNTPs prevent DNA synthesis because they lack a hydroxyl group in the 3' position.
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why do we use skulls to determine the number of mammals present in the owl pellet? why are other bones not used
The purpose of this laboratory is to examine the contents of owl pellets to infer the type and amount of food the owls ate. Barn owls are carnivorous birds that hunt, kill and eat other animals.
The easiest way to tell which small mammals have been eaten is to look for the mandible and "pair" the left and right jaws from each pellet. These pellets can provide valuable information about an owl's diet. By examining the contents of owl pellets, it is possible to discover differences in seasons, regions, habitats, and even individual differences in owls. Skulls and jawbones help identify eaten prey, as the bones usually do not break down throughout the process. also provide clues to the diet and hunting habits of owls. It also provides information. The relatively small amount of indigestible bone and fur that remains is compressed into pellets by stomach muscles, similar to owls.Eagle pellets will not be as useful as owl pellets. This is because there are fewer whole objects (feathers, bones, etc.) that can be used to identify what they ate.
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Answer the following questions in complete sentences.
1.
What is the direct effect of this type of weathering?
How does freeze-thaw weathering occur in a glacler?
What can be the results from abrasion?
2.
3. How does deposition form from a glacier? What are two landforms that can be formed from glacial deposits?
This type of weathering can cause changes to the shape, size, and texture of different landforms. It can also play a role in landslides and the formation of new landforms.
What is weathering?Weathering may be defined as the process of breaking down or dissolving rocks and minerals on Earth's surface. It involves the complete deterioration of rocks, soils, and minerals as well as wood and artificial materials through contact with water, atmospheric gases, and biological organisms.
Freeze-thaw weathering is the main type of weathering. In proceeding in a manner that during the day when temperatures are higher, the snow melts and water enters the cracks in the rock. When the temperature drops below 0°C the water in the crack freezes and expands by about 9%. This makes the crack larger.
The majority of abrasions heal without leaving any scars. However, the abrasions that extend into the dermis may result in scarring of the tissue upon healing. The most common mechanism of the formation of abrasion is due to friction against the epidermis, resulting in its denudation.
A glacial deposition is the settling of sediments left behind by a moving glacier. As glaciers move over the land, they pick up sediments and rocks. Drumlins and ribbed moraines are two types of landforms left behind by glacial deposits.
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20 POINTS!!! HELP QUICKLY PLEASE Genre, :Science:
Homeostasis is a ________ of an internal environment in an organism's body to remain in a ________ and balanced condition.
Responses
A.maintenance, stable
B.repair, higher
C.maintenance, higher
D.repair, stable
Homeostasis is a mantainance of an internal environment in an organism's body to remain in a stable and balanced condition (Option a).
What is the homeostasis state of the biological systems?The homeostasis state of the biological systems refers to a state of internal equilibrium which is reached in order to make possible both life and metabolic activities.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the homeostasis state of the biological systems is fundamental to carrying out metabolic activities that otherwise we can not achieve in non-stable conditions.
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Can the typical behavior of bird populations change over time?
Answer: yes
Explanation: the birds would die off and they could keep reproducing
select all of the changes that occur upon sympathetic stimulation. check all that apply vasoconstriction of blood vessels to salivary glands, resulting in thick, viscous saliva vasoconstriction of blood vessels to salivary glands, resulting in thick, viscous saliva contraction of smooth muscle in the gi tract wall contraction of smooth muscle in the gi tract wall relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary bladder wall and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary bladder wall and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreas
This muscle contracts, releasing the bladder's pee. The parietal peritoneum is the bladder wall's external layer on the superior surface. In every other.
Which part of the ANS causes the internal urethral sphincter to relax and the urine bladder wall to contract?The neurons in the sacral spinal cord segments (S2-S4) that innervate visceral motor neurons in parasympathetic ganglia in or close to the bladder wall are the source of the parasympathetic regulation of the bladder musculature, the contraction of which promotes bladder emptying.
What element of the neurological system regulates the bladder's sphincters and urine production?The external urinary sphincter and the pelvic diaphragm's voluntary movements are controlled by the pudendal nerve, which emerges from the nucleus of Onuf.
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A dam is built that separates a river into two sections—a deep upstream section and a shallow downstream section. When the dam is first built, a fish species is able to move from the upstream section into the downstream section, but not vice versa. Predators can more easily catch the fish in the shallow downstream section than they can in the deep upstream section. Which scenario is most likely to lead to speciation?.
The fish population contains individuals with effective predation evasive traits and eventual changes to the dam to prevent fish from moving downstream is the most likely scenario to lead to speciation (Option A).
What is speciation?Speciation refers to an evolutionary process in which individuals of a population diverge by the restriction of the gene flow among them and therefore they emerge as new species that are not able to produce interfertile individuals when they are crossed.
Speciation is a type of evolution associated with the appearance of reproductive isolation barriers between individuals of a given population.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that speciation may lead to the generation of new species from individuals of a population due to the emergence of reproductive isolation barriers and restriction of gene flow.
Complete question:
A dam is built that separates a river into two sections—a deep upstream section and a shallow downstream section. When the dam is first built, a fish species is able to move from the upstream section into the downstream section, but not vice versa. Predators can more easily catch the fish in the shallow downstream section than they can in the deep upstream section. Which scenario is most likely to lead to speciation?
A. The fish population contains individuals with effective predation evasive traits and eventual changes to the dam prevent fish from moving downstream.
B. The fish completely lack any effective predation evasive traits across the entire population, move infrequently from upstream to downstream locations, and reproduce with low frequency.
C. The fish reproduce with high frequency, move with high frequency from upstream to downstream locations, and have a robust set of predation evasive traits across the entire population.
D. The rate of upstream fish entering the downstream section decreases over time without being completely shut off, and many of these fish carry predation evasive traits.
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11) describe the defining characteristics of a lipid and be able to recognize a structural diagram of a lipid as being a lipid.
Lipids are fatty, waxy, or oily compounds that are essential to many body functions and serve as the building blocks for all living cells. Lipids help regulate hormones, transmit nerve impulses, cushion organs, and store energy in the form of body fat.
All living cells are made up of lipids, which are fatty, waxy, or oily substances that are crucial to numerous bodily processes. Lipids aid in hormone regulation, nerve impulse transmission, organ cushioning, and the storage of energy in the form of body fat.
Phospholipids, sterols (which include the many types of cholesterol), and triglycerides—which make up more than 95% of the lipids in food—are the three primary categories of lipids. Fried foods, animal fats, and dairy products like cream, butter, and cheese contain higher levels of lipids than other dietary groups.
Even though eating too many lipids can cause diseases including atherosclerosis (also known as "hardening of the arteries"), hypertension (high blood pressure), and coronary artery disease, lipids are necessary for your health.
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if a man with blood type a marries a woman with blood type a, what phenotypes would their children have?
Two dad and mom with A blood kind can produce a infant with both A or O blood types. Two dad and mom with B blood kind can produce a infant with both B or O blood kind.
Even though each dad and mom nonetheless have blood kind A, Dad can by skip on both his A or his O gene version. Mom also can both by skip on her A or her O. Because of this, you could see that there is 1 in four or 25% hazard for a kid to have OO, or blood kind O.
If one discern has A and every other has O, they are able to both produce a infant with A or O blood types. The Rh (+/-) element is inherited one at a time from the ABO blood types.
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chegg assume an aneurysm has widened a blood vessel from a diameter of 1 cm to a diameter of 4 cm. what is the velocity v1 of blood flow in the region of the aneurysm relative to the velocity v0 in the healthy portion of the blood vessel.
According to the equation, the total pressure in the flow is equal to the sum of the static pressure (ps) and dynamic pressure (pd), which is equal to one-half of the density (r) times the velocity (V) squared.
This constant is known as the flow's overall pressure, or pt. According to Bernoulli's principle, which governs fluid dynamics, a fluid's speed increases concurrently with a reduction in pressure or potential energy. The mathematical concept is named after Swiss mathematician Daniel Bernoulli, who first published it in his book Hydrodynamics in 1738. The pressure difference between two measurements is denoted by the symbol P. This can be assessed at several points within a system or at various times/dates. The measurement can vary depending on the situation.
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The cycle of events that initiates gonadarche involves signals from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, which secretes hormones that in turn stimulate production of hormones in the __________________.
GONADS
The cycle of events that initiates gonadarche involves signals from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, which secretes hormones that in turn stimulate production of hormones in the GONADS .
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are anterior pituitary topic hormones that stimulate the gonads (testes and ovaries) to create gametes and emit sex steroids.
The major reproductive organs are the gonads. Males have testes, whereas females have ovaries. The male testes release testosterone. The female ovaries release oestrogens and progesterone.
The hypothalamic production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) modulates pituitary secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), and subsequently FSH and LH act on the gonads to drive gonadal growth and maturation.
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what part of the inner ear houses the receptor organ of hearing, the spiral organ (organ of corti)? what part of the inner ear houses the receptor organ of hearing, the spiral organ (organ of corti)? a b c d
The cochlea contains the inner ear organ known as the Organ of Corti, which aids in hearing.
Hearing is facilitated by the cochlea's Organ of Corti, an inner ear structure.The Organ of Corti is made up of three rows of outer hair cells and one row of inner hair cells.Stereocilia of these hair cells are bent by electromechanical vibrations caused by sound waves.The hair cells convert mechanical energy into electrical energy that is sent to the central nervous system via the auditory nerve in order to facilitate audition.On the surface of the basilar membrane, sensory hair cells are arranged in neat rows that generate nerve impulses in response to sound vibrations.
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a vaginal swab for anaerobic culture is received in the laboratory. how should this specimen be handled?
The specimen should be rejected.
What is anaerobic culture?
In anaerobic cultures, tests are done without letting oxygen get to the sample.
Infections caused due to anaerobic bacteria can occur almost anywhere in your body. These could be infections in the mouth or lungs, diabetes-related foot infections, infected bites, and gangrene, etc.
Finding the bacteria that are causing infection helps your healthcare provider in choosing the right treatment.
It may take some time to get the results, maybe up to a week. Because any bacteria from the sample needs time to grow so they can be looked at in a lab.
Therefore, a vaginal swab for anaerobic culture is received in the laboratory. This specimen should be rejected.
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which of the following does not lead to an increase in phytoplankton reproduction? a. increased nutrient availability b. increased sunlight c. increased oxygen levels d. increased levels of carbon dioxide
Option (C) is correct i.e. increased oxygen levels does not lead to an increase in phytoplankton reproduction.
The autotrophic (self-feeding) phytoplankton constituents are a crucial component of freshwater and ocean ecosystems. Photosynthesis is how land plants, like trees and phytoplankton, get their energy. Phytoplankton lives on the highly lit surface layers (euphotic zone) of seas and lakes because they need sunlight to survive. Phytoplankton is more extensively distributed, less seasonal, and has noticeably higher turnover rates than trees as compared to terrestrial plants (days versus decades). As a result, phytoplankton reacts to climatic changes quickly and widely. Both freshwater and marine food webs are based on phytoplankton, which is also essential to the global carbon cycle. They generate at least 50% of the world's oxygen production and nearly 50% of the photosynthetic activity despite making up only about 1% of all plants' biomass. With photosynthesizing bacteria, algae that resemble plants, and coccolithophores with armor-like plates, phytoplankton is immensely diverse. The dinoflagellates, cyanobacteria, and diatoms are some of the most prominent phytoplankton species.
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Answer:
C) Increased oxygen levels
Explanation:
bi331 synovial fluid: group of answer choices is located within intervertebral discs is found in synarthrotic joints is produced by chondrocytes is used by some cells to make atp
A synarthrosis is a nearly or completely immobile joint. The joints between the bones of the skull that surround the brain, such as the manubriosternal joint, are an example.
What does the Manubriosternal joint is synovial, right?
Description. The joint connecting the manubrium with the body of the sternum is a synovial joint known as the synovial manubriosternal joint in mature pigs, bovis, sheep, and some goat species (by opposite to the cartilaginous joint called the manubriosternal synchondrosis)
What does the manubrium serve to accomplish?
The tympanic membrane's central section is attached to the manubrium of the malleus, which draws the membrane inward into the middle ear cavity and is the cause of the conical form of the membrane.
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Is thermal energy, or heat, transferred by conduction, convection, or radiation in a geyser?.
An illustration of the convection mode of heat transfer is the transmission of heat energy from an immersion water heater to water.
In a geyser, how is thermal energy transferred?Geysers heat water using heat from deep beneath. As the water warms, steam rises, pressure increases, and the geyser explodes. Humans first used geysers to capture geothermal energy to create hot bathwater.
A geyser uses what form of heat transfer?Convection is the chosen way because it causes matter particles to disperse or heat up and lose density. The bubbles in the geyser are brought on by this. Hot magma in the earth's mantle is transferring its heat to the sea.
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Which of these RNA polymerases catalyze the synthesis of rRNA in eukaryotes?A) RNA polymerase IB) RNA polymerase IIC) RNA polymerase IIID) RNA polymerase IV
In eukaryotes, three RNA polymerases are involved in the transcription of nuclear genes: RNA polymerase (pol) I synthesizes large rRNA, pol II synthesizes mRNA, and pol III synthesizes tRNA and 5S rRNA.
Eukaryotic cells have three unique nuclear RNA polymerases that transcribe various gene types. RNA polymerase II transcribes protein-coding genes to produce mRNAs; RNA polymerases I and III transcribe ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs) and transfer RNAs (tRNAs).
RNA Polymerase I is a ribosomal RNA transcription enzyme. RNA Polymerase II is an enzyme that transcribes mRNA precursors. RNA Polymerase III is a tRNA transcription enzyme. Except for the 5S rRNA component, it transcribes all rRNAs.
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Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A) belief in a preconceived idea
B) formulate a hypothesis
C) systematic observation
D) laboratory experimentation
E) development of a theory
A) belief in a preconceived idea
A) belief in a preconceived idea is not a process in the scientific method. Preconceived/prejudice notions are opinions you have about something before you have enough knowledge or experience to create one.
Preconceived concepts are opinions that are formed without any proof or evidence, often known as unconscious biases. Prejudices, preconceptions, and several other unconscious biases are examples. A preconceived view, judgment, or attitude toward some individuals based on their membership in a particular group is referred to as prejudice. It is a group of mentalities that encourage, promote, or defend discrimination. Hint, imply, insinuate, and intimate are some typical synonyms for the word "suggest." While all of these phrases have the same meaning "to express an idea indirectly suggest may emphasis placing into the mind through idea association, awakening of a desire, or starting a line of thought.
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which of the following is true about noncompetitive inhibition? group of answer choices the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme the shape of a noncompetitive inhibitor is at least partially similar to the actual substrate of the target enzyme. it is an example of allosteric regulation the binding of the inhibitor does not causes a conformational change.
The statement that is true about non competitive inhibitors is that it is an example of allosteric regulation.
What is inhibition?When we talk about inhibition, we are talking about a situation in which there is a substance that occupies the position that an enzyme is suposed to bind. It could be a case of competitive or non competitive inhibition.
When we talk about a competitive inhibition, it means that the inhibitor looks somewhat like the enzyme thus it can occupy its place. On the other hand when we have a non competitive inhibitor, the inhibitor does not look like the enzyme.
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During fermentation, most of the pyruvate produced during glycolysis is used to convert nadh to?.
Reduced NADH from glycolysis is utilized during fermentation to decrease pyruvate. Reduced pyruvate is converted to lactate or ethanol.
How does fermentation affect NADH?In the course of fermentation, the NADH + H+ produced during glycolysis will be recycled back into NAD+, allowing glycolysis to proceed. NAD+ is converted into NADH + H+ during the glycolysis process. Glycolysis won't be able to proceed if NAD+ isn't present.
What function does NADH, a byproduct of glycolysis, serve?NADH helps with the oxidation of glucose by contributing to oxidation in cell processes like glycolysis. In the process of aerobic cellular respiration, the TCA cycle provides the energy stored in this reduced coenzyme NADH, which fuels the electron transport activity in the membranes of mitochondria.
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Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms can combine to form
a monosaccharide. Many monosaccharides can combine
to form a large carbohydrate.
Which sentence is true?
A. The monosaccharides are macromolecules, and the large
carbohydrate is a monomer.
B. The monosaccharides are monomers, and the large carbohydrate
is a macromolecule.
C. The monosaccharides are atoms, and the large carbohydrate is a
monomer.
D. The monosaccharides are monomers, and the large carbohydrate
is an atom.
According to the research, the correct answer is Option B. The monosaccharides are monomers, and the large carbohydrate is a macromolecule.
What are monomers?They are molecules that have a low molecular mass and are joined through chemical bonds to form a polymer, which is a macromolecule.
In this sense, monosaccharides, meanwhile, are the monomers of carbohydrates.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, monosaccharides are the monomers of so-called carbohydrates, which are also known as polysaccharides.
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The formation of bivalents and subsequent crossing over occur in what phase of meiosis?.
The formation of bivalents happens at some stage in the prophase I of meiosis and entails the coordination among homologous recombination, pairing, and synapsis (Mercier et al., 2015).
During meiosis, crossing-over happens at the pachytene stage, whilst homologous chromosomes are absolutely paired. At diplotene, whilst homologs separate, the webweb sites of crossing-over end up seen as chiasmata, which maintain the 2 homologs of a bivalent collectively till segregation at anaphase I.
Because handiest one replica of every homolog is present, bivalents aren't formed. In metaphase of meiosis II, the chromosomes will another time be added to the center of the cell, however this time it's far the sister chromatids to be able to segregate at some stage in anaphase II.
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What will happen if you depress the plunger on a micropipette to the second stop before loading the tip?.
If you proceed to the second stop, too much liquid will be drawn into the tip. The most prevalent pipetting inaccuracy with micropipettes is failing to stop at the first stop, allowing too much liquid to enter the tip.
What is micropipette?A micropipette is a widely accepted yet indispensable laboratory instrument used to precisely and efficiently transfer microliter volumes of liquid. Micropipettes come in single-channel and multi-channel configurations.
Only press the plunger to the first stop when dispensing liquid into a well. Pressing the second stop will add bubbles to the well and may cause your sample to be displaced.
Remove the pipette tip from the buffer after dispensing your sample before releasing the plunger.
Thus, this can be the consequence if you depress the plunger on a micropipette to the second stop before loading the tip.
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