Which of these is a potential reason why tropical communities tend to have greater species diversity than temperate or polar communities? a. Tropical communities are somerally older than temperate and polar communities b. There are fewer parasites to negatively affect the health of tropical communities c. More competitive dominant species have evolved in temperate and polar communities d. They are less likely to be affected by human disturbance. e. Tropical communities are low in altitude, whereas temperate and polar communities are high in altitude

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Answer 1

In tropical rainforest climates have usually high temperatures. The the only average temperature is normally in between 21° and she has to 30° and ships the precipitation here can reach over 100 inches e. The stable tropical rainforest environment.

By allowing plants and animals two interact all year around. It is generally seen that there is more diversity in the tropical region, then the temperature region because of variety of factors in this higher temperature in tropics causes higher rate of metabolic . So the correct answer of this question is option, mm hmm. That is tropical communities have high you average temperature and precipitation.

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Kettlewell's experiment is included in most biology texts as an example of evolution occurring.

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The moths once resided in a clean environment. Dark moths became rare as a result.

All members of the order Lepidoptera that are not butterflies are grouped together as moths, a paraphyletic group of insects, with caterpillars constituting the great bulk of the order. According to one estimate, there are over 160,000 different species of moth, many of which are still unnamed. Although there are some daytime and crepuscular moth species, nocturnal species predominate. There are some moths that can be serious agricultural pests all over the world, especially their caterpillars. Examples include bollworms and crop borers. In the northeastern United States, where it is an invasive species, the larva of the spongy moth (Lymantria dispar) seriously harms forests. in climatic conditions that are moderate.

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which extinction period results in the evolution of the first mammals and dinosaurs appearing and forests of conifers and cycades dominate the land?

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It was a life changing event. Around 66 million years ago, at the end of the Cretaceous period, an asteroid struck Earth, triggering a mass extinction that wiped out the dinosaurs and around 75% of all species.

Dinosaurs roamed the Earth in the Mesozoic Era, which is divided into the Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous periods. They first arose during the Triassic period about 245 million years ago. Dinosaurs first appeared in the Middle Triassic and became the dominant terrestrial vertebrate in the Late Triassic or Early Jurassic, occupying this position for about 150 to 135 million years until their demise at the end of the Cretaceous. This era is popularly known as the "Age of Reptiles" and for good reason: reptiles, and particularly dinosaurs, were the dominant terrestrial vertebrate animals at the time. The PT extinction was the most severe in Earth's history, and was likely driven by intense volcanic eruptions and associated rapid climate change. This extinction decimated many early groups of reptiles and amphibians, and may have created environmental space for dinosaurs and other new groups to evolve.

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primates are distinguished by characteristics that were shaped by the demands of living in trees. what were these 4 characteristics?

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Key ideas. All primates are descended from creatures who lived in trees, and they all possess adaptations that make it possible for them to climb trees, such as a rotating shoulder joint, separated large toes and thumbs for grabbing, and stereoscopic vision.

The opposable thumb and big toe, prehensile hands and feet, nails rather than claws on the digits, the ability to sit for long periods of time in an upright position without using the upper limbs for balance, dependence on vision, and diminished sense of smell are all characteristics that are derived from primates.

A short muzzle, a relatively poor sense of smell, prehensile five-digit hands and feet with flat nails instead of claws, acute vision with depth perception from forward-facing eyes are just a few of the characteristics that set primates apart from other mammals.

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which chamber of the heart contracts to send oxygenated blood through the aortic valve and out to the body's cells?

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The left ventricle pumps the oxygen-rich blood through the aortic valve  into the aorta , the main artery that takes oxygen-rich blood out to the rest of the body

Heart:

Your cardiovascular system, which consists of a network of blood vessels that pumps blood throughout your body, is primarily composed of your heart. It also interacts with other bodily systems to regulate your blood, pressure and heart rate.

Blood circulation throughout your body is the heart's primary duty. Moreover, your heart:

regulates the temperature rhythm of your heartbeat.keeps your blood pressure steady.

The heart has four chambers in total:

Right atrial: Your right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from two big veins. Your upper body's blood is carried via the superior vena cava. Blood from the lower body is brought up by the inferior vena cava. The blood is then pumped to your right ventricle by the right atrium.

Right ventricle: Through the pulmonary artery, the lower right chamber transports oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. The blood is oxygenated again by the lungs.

Left atrium: The pulmonary veins deliver blood to the left atrium after the lungs have infused it with oxygen. Your left ventricle receives blood through its higher chamber.

Left ventricle: Compared to the right, the left ventricle is a little bigger. It transfers blood enriched in oxygen to the rest of your body.

Hence, left ventricle send oxygenated blood through the aortic valve and out of the body cell.

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If you made a big deletion of DNA in the promoter sequence of a gene, which of the following is likely to happen? The gene would not be transcribed The mutation of the DNA would be copied to the RNA sequence None of these answers are correct DNA polymerase would no longer be able to bind and carry out transcription The promoter is not transcribed, therefore RNA would be made as usual The transcription factors will recognize and bind the DNA, initiating transcription

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If you made a big deletion of DNA in the promoter sequence of a gene then, the gene would not be transcribed.

What is DNA?

Humans and nearly all other species carry their genetic information in DNA, also known as deoxyribonucleic acid. The DNA of an individual can be found in almost all of their cells.

The information molecule is DNA. It provides the knowledge required to produce proteins, another type of substantial molecule. Each of your cells contains 46 substantial structures called chromosomes that are distributed throughout these instructions. These chromosomes are made up of numerous smaller segments of DNA, called genes.

Therefore, Option A is correct.

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a client’s antibody test for hiv showed no antibodies. for which reason would the client need to have a nucleic acid test completed before being told that testing for hiv is negative?

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The patient might be at stage 0 of the illness.

What is an HIV infection?

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that weakens your immune system's defenses against common infections and disease .A range of potentially fatal infections and disorders are referred to as AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) when your immune system has been badly harmed by the HIV virus.

The three different forms of HIV diagnostic tests include nucleic acid (RNA), antigen/antibody, and antibody testing. Antigen and RNA testing can directly detect HIV, however antibody tests only find antibodies, not the virus itself. The CDC advises testing for HIV antigens and HIV nucleic acid because research on high-risk groups indicated that antibody testing alone can miss a significant portion of HIV infections that can be detected by virologic tests, particularly during stage 0. The HIV antibody test is sensitive and specific to antibodies, but further tests should be run to get a firm diagnosis. Due to their participation in high risk conduct, the customer does not require a second test. Not every client must undergo two tests.

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What anatomical region would the stoma created by the descending colostomy be in?.

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The descending colostomy is positioned on the lower left side of the abdomen in the descending colon.

Where is the location of a colostomy stoma?

A stoma. The location of the stoma depends depend on the portion of your colon that is redirected, but it is often below your waist on the left side of your abdomen. You will meet with a trained stoma nurse to discuss the location of the stoma if the procedure is planned in advance.

Where on the bowel does a stoma occur?

The small bowel (small intestine) is diverted through a stomach opening during an ileostomy. The gap is referred to as a stoma.

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A relatively small area with numerous endemic species and a large number of endangered or threatened species is called a _________.

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A relatively small area with numerous endemic species and a large number of endangered or threatened species is called a Biodiversity hotspot.

A biogeographic area with high levels of biodiversity that is threatened by habitation is known as a biodiversity hotspot. In biology, the term "endemism" refers to the geographic distribution of a taxon that is only present naturally in a narrow geographic area.

A species that is threatened with extinction in the near future, either globally or within a specific political jurisdiction, is known as an endangered species. Invasive species, habitat loss, poaching, and other issues may put endangered species in danger.

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the external urethral sphincter is a circular muscle band that relaxes to allow urine to pass. this exemplifies what property of skeletal muscle tissue?

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The external urethral sphincter is a circular muscle band that relaxes to allow urine to pass. This exemplifies what property of skeletal muscle regulation of elimination.

In women, the external urethral sphincter, which is made of striated muscle and is near the vaginal orifice, is located distally and inferiorly to the bladder neck.

The muscular structure known as the urethral sphincter controls the flow of urine from the bladder into the urethra. Because it is made of skeletal muscle, the somatic nervous system can control the external sphincter on its own. Both the external urethral sphincter and the internal urethral sphincter control the flow of urine through the muscles.

Therefore, regulation of elimination is the solution.

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how does meiosis generate genetic diversity? answer homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase i, and during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly. during prophase ii, chromosomes exchange material. during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly, and during prophase ii, chromosomes exchange material. homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase i. during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly. i don't know yet

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Homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase I, and during metaphase I, chromosomes align randomly.

Three separate mechanisms, including the crossing over of homologous chromosomes in prophase I, are used by meiosis to produce genetic variation. The second method involves the chromosomes' random arrangement (not alignment) during metaphase I.

Last but not least, meiosis II's random distribution of sister chromatids will further boost genetic variety. Given that genetic variety is not produced by random alignment, the optimal response is  crossing over. Synapsis, or the merging of homologous chromosomes, also has little impact on genetic diversity.

Independent segregation describes how homologous chromosomes are organized. As a result of the homologous chromosomes aligning randomly on the metaphase plate during metaphase I, genetic diversity is increased. As a result, the offspring cells will have unique chromosome arrangements.

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homeostasis is a state in which a. some body functions increase while others decrease. b. vital functions of the body decrease. c. vital functions of the body are maintained at a normal level. d. vital functions of the body increase.

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Homeostasis is a condition in which the body's essential processes are kept operating normally.

Any self-regulating process, such as homeostasis, helps an organism retain stability while also responding to environmental factors that are favorable for its survival. If homeostasis is effective, life continues; if it is not, a catastrophe occurs or the organism perishes.

As currently understood, homeostasis is a self-regulating process that allows biological systems to retain stability while adapting to shifting external environments. Body temperature control, blood pressure control, and blood sugar control are three instances of homeostasis.

Option C is the right response, thus that is why.

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Approximately one out of every 2,500 caucasians in the united states is born with the recessive disease cystic fibrosis. According to the hardy-weinberg equilibrium equation, approximately how many people are carriers?.

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P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 is the Hardy-Weinberg equation used to calculate genotype frequencies .The homozygous dominant genotype (AA) frequency is represented by "p2," the heterozygous genotype (Aa), by "2pq," and the homozygous recessive genotype, by "q2."

What is an example of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

The population is in a condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium because the frequency of the recessive allele () has stayed constant. Instance 2a Finches have a perfect dominance connection between their beak colors, with black beaks dominating yellow beaks.

What are the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium's four requirements?

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium cannot survive in the absence of mutation, gene flow, a sizable population, random mating, and natural selection.

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Everyone is exposed regularly to ionizing radiation found in the soil, water, and air and from cosmic rays. In fact, 80% of the ionizing radiation people are exposed to comes from naturally occurring sources. Ionizing radiation can cause double-strand breaks in the DNA. Often, the DNA breaks have missing nucleotides at the broken ends. What type of repair would likely be used, and what would be the result of repairing this type of damage?
A. Nonhomologous end joining would be used and would lead to properly repaired DNA.
B. Direct repair would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.
C. Nonhomologous end joining would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.
D. Direct repair would be used and would lead to properly repaired DNA.
C

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The result of repairing this type of damage would be d. Non-homologous end joining would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.

Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) without a homologous sequence is used to fix the double-strand breaks.

DNA ligase IV binds the two ends after the double-strand break removes some nucleotides from them. First, Ku proteins bind to the ends and recruit DNA-PKcs, which in turn recruits Artemis, a nuclease, to get rid of any single-stranded DNA in that area.

The DNA would be joined using non-homologous end joining (NHEJ), but there would still be errors because NHEJ only deletes a small number of nucleotides. Therefore, this is a blunder-inclined fix system.

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upon closer inspection of the leaves of flower of stone, one can observe tiny, cone-like structures. each cone-like structure emits spores of two different sizes. consequently, flower of stone should be expected to possess which other characteristics?

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Flower of stone should be expected to posses other characteristics like - It is heterosporous, It is a lycophyte and It has separate male and female gametophytes.

Heterosporous are plants which produce different types of spores that are different in size, structure and function. They produce two kinds of spores, smaller microspores and larger megaspore. Lycophytes are seedless and vascular plants with sporophytes. Sporophytes have microphylls and branch dichotomously. Leaves are called microphylls, this is a type of plantleaf with one single, unbranched leaf vein. Some lycophytes are homosporous while some are heterosporous. Flower of stone has seperate male and female gametophyte.

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Complete question- Upon closer inspection of the leaves of flower of stone, one can observe tiny, cone-like structures. Each cone-like structure emits spores of two different sizes. Further investigation also reveals that the roots of flower of stone branch only at the growing tip of the root, forming a Y-shaped structure. Based on these additional observations which of the following can be properly inferred about "flower of stones?

In relation to their position in a food chain, what do plants and photosynthetic algae have in common?.

Answers

They’re both primary source of foods

Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?.

Answers

The cellular function that would be shared among carbohydrates and lipids is energy storage. The correct answer is a

Since both carbohydrates and lipids are made up of long chains of monomers, vast amounts of energy are stored between the bonds of the monomers that make them up.

Both carbohydrates and fats are used by the body to store energy. When the monomer chains that make up carbohydrates and lipids are cleaved, energy is released in the form of ATP, which the cell uses to carry out its basic functions.

Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:

Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?

a) energy storage

b) protein formation

c) energy consumption

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a certain culture of the bacterium streptococcus a initially has 9 bacteria and is observed to double every 1.4 hours. (a) estimate the number of bacteria after 28 hours. (round your answer to the nearest whole number.) bacteria (b) after how many hours will the bacteria count reach 10,000? (round your answer to one decimal place.) t

Answers

The number of bacteria after 28 hours is 9437184. It will take 14.1 hours to reach 10000 bacteria.

a) estimate the number of bacteria after 28 hours.

N(t) = [tex]9*2[/tex]^[tex]\frac{28}{1.4}[/tex]

using the calculations

N(t) =[tex]9 * 1048576[/tex]

N(t) = 9437184 bacteria in 28 hours.

b) after how many hours will the bacteria count reach 10,000?

[tex]9*2^{(t/1.4)}[/tex] = 10000

find t

[tex]2^{(t/1.4)}[/tex] = 10000/9

[tex]2^{(t/1.4)}[/tex] = 1111.1

Using nat logs,

[tex]\frac{t}{1.4}[/tex]ln(2) = ln(1111.1)

[tex]\frac{t}{1.4}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{ln(1111.1)}{In2}[/tex]

using calculations

[tex]\frac{t}{1.4}[/tex] = 10.1178

t = 10.1178 * 1.4

t = 14.1 hours to reach 10000 bacteria

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The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that.

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The plant generation that carries out the majority of photosynthesis is considered the dominant generation.

Photosynthesis is an important process that occurs in plants and blue-green algae for the production of organic substances or carbohydrates using water and carbon dioxide. This process releases oxygen as a byproduct. Since they prepare their own foods, they are considered autotrophs.

Therefore, the generation of plants that are more obvious, more independent, and more photosynthetic is referred to as the "dominant generation of plants." This dominance helps plants survive and evolve from one generation to the next.

Therefore, the correct option is option c.

The complete question is -

The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that

a) is diploid

b) is haploid

c) carries out the majority of photosynthesis

d) produces the most gametes

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which type of mutation changes the genotype but cannot change the phenotype of a microbial organism?

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DNA changes known as silent mutations do not manifest themselves in the phenotypic of the organism. They represent a particular kind of neutral mutation.

Mutations may have an impact on an organism by altering its phenotype, or they may have an impact on the way DNA codes the genetic information (genotype). When mutations take place, they may be completely fatal or they may result in the termination (death) of an organism. The bulk of base pair modifications (particularly substitutions) after mutagen treatment have no impact on the phenotype. This frequently happens because the DNA sequence of a non-coding section of the DNA, such as a region between genes or an intron region, changes,  they do not alter the amino acids in the proteins they encode, they are neutral. Numerous other mutations are fixed before protein synthesis takes place, therefore they have no impact on the organism. Cells contain a variety of DNA repair methods to correct mutations.

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the algorithms are of your choice. for example, you may use any of the general purpose heuristic optimization algorithms from the course material, including, but not limited to, branch and bound, simulated annealing, greedy local search, tabu search, genetic algorithm etc. or, you can use any other algorithm that you may find by searching the literature, or you may create your own heuristic algorithms.

Answers

An algorithm is a set of rules or instructions which used to solve complex problems. In many STEM fields, algorithms are used by laptop programs to streamline processes.

Example :Typical addition algorithm: Align numbers vertically along corresponding position values. Add numbers along the shared place value columns. Write the sum of each position value under each position value column. If the sum of the place value columns exceeds nine, carry the tens digit to the next column to the left. Once all place-valued columns have been added, the addition is complete and the algorithm terminates.

Here is an example that demonstrates this algorithm:

123+456=579

Notice that the numbers are aligned vertically along the position values. Each column of place value is then added and the result is written below the horizontal line.

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inherited feature that varies from individual to individual.target 1 of 8 2. a blank is one particular variation of a character.target 2 of 8 3. a genetic cross involving parents that differ in a single character is called a blank.target 3 of 8 4. most human genes come in alternate versions called blank.target 4 of 8 5. if an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is expressed in the organism is called the blank allele.target 5 of 8 6. if an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is not expressed in the organism is called the blank allele.

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Character, Trait, Monohybrid cross, Alleles, Dominant allele and Recessive alleles respectively for the each questions

Genes are sections of DNA that help determine specific characteristics or behaviors by encoding for proteins that have an impact on physiology. Alleles are distinct variations of a gene that change depending on the nucleotide base that is present at a specific genomic site. A person's genotype is the result of their particular allele distribution. Genes are pieces of DNA that have a role in the development of specific traits, qualities, or abilities. The immune system, skin pigmentation, hormone production, and eye color are just a few examples of the things that genes affect. Genes code for proteins or portions of proteins.

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Select all of the correct statements. (Choose all that apply) Complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds. Complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by covalent bonds. Nucleotides of a single DNA strand are held together by covalent bonds. Nucleotides of a single DNA strand are held together by hydrogen bonds.

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The complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds is true statement.

The higher strand of DNA is the "mRNA-like" strand. The decrease strand is the strand this is complementary to the mRNA.You can decide the series of a complementary strand in case you are given the series of the template strand.

These strands are complementary, with every base in a single sticking to its companion at the other. The A-T pairs are related with the aid of using hydrogen bonds, at the same time as the G-C pairs are related with the aid of using 3 hydrogen bonds.

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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna?.

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The activator binds directly to RNA polymerase, causing it to commence transcription by skipping over a significant portion of DNA.

What impact do activators have on gene expression?

Since they work to encourage gene transcription and, in certain situations, are necessary for it to happen, activators are thought to have positive control over gene expression. The majority of activators are DNA-binding proteins that attach to promoters or enhancers.

Activators' effects on transcription are what?

Transcription factors are typically categorized as "activators" or "repressors," according to conventional wisdom. Gene activation results from the recruitment of coactivators by activators, whereas transcriptional repression results from the recruitment of corepressors by repressors.

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explain how the biodiversity found on earth is demonstrated through the winogradsky column in terms of the niches they occupy.

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The Winogradsky column is a long glass column that is used to grow different microorganisms. Different Microbes will be formed in different layers in this column, a layer in which a microbe formed resembles the environmental niche of that microbe.

Several layers of microbes are found in the column each has a different microorganism. Hence biodiversity found on earth can be demonstrated in terms of the niche they occupy using winogradsky column.

To grow microbes a long glass column is filled with pond mud, water, egg shells and egg yolk, and paper. After filling the column it should be placed in a natural light source for several months. This process creates an aerobic/anaerobic gradient in the column. The top region of the column will be aerobic bottom of the column will be more anaerobic. Usually, anaerobic bacteria will be found in the lower region of the column where mud is settled and aerobic bacteria will be in the upper layer. Hence different layers with different environmental conditions are developed inside the column. Microbes will only be in the layer which matches their natural niche.

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which is the most likely outcome we would see if the virus that causes avian flu were to somehow combine with the human flu virus?

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Viruses that cause the flu can change are influenza virus . Because of this, persons who contract these viruses may experience worsening health conditions of our immune systems.

If the H5N1 avian flu virus mixed with a human influenza virus, the resulting "combined" virus might produce a novel, quickly contagious human influenza virus. a widespread viral infection that, especially in high-risk populations, can be fatal. Throat, nose, and lungs are all affected by the flu. Individuals with chronic illnesses or weakened immune systems, young children, elderly people, pregnant women, and older adults are at a higher risk. The list of symptoms also includes fatigue, headaches, chills, muscle aches, cough, congestion, and a runny nose. To help the body fight the infection on its own, rest and fluid consumption are the main treatments for flu. Taking paracetamol might help with the symptoms.

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when organism in a ecosphere die they are broken down by bacteria. why is this necessary for the survival of the organism in the ecosphere?

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Shrimp waste is decomposed by bacteria. The breakdown byproducts give algae and bacteria, which are the shrimp's primary food sources, nutrients.

Shrimp are known to live over 12 years and spend an average of two to three years in the EcoSphere, according to the manufacturer. Through the use of sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide, they can produce their own food. Additionally, they require phosphorus and nitrogen (NOx) for growth and survival.

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digeorge's syndrome is a developmental defect that prevents the maturation of the thymus. what cell type would be reduced by this condition?

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Due to decreased maturation numbers and dysfunctional peripheral T cells, infants born with improper thymus development (caused by DiGeorge syndrome or FoxN1 mutations) experience life-threatening infections that cause early mortality during the first year of life 5-7.

Prevention and Mitigation.

DiGeorge syndrome (DGS) is a primary   maturation immunodeficiency disease (PIDD) characterised by impaired thymocyte development and function, which increases vulnerability to infections. T-cells are taught in the thymus how to combat infection and stave off autoimmune disease. Primary immunodeficiency known as DiGeorge Syndrome (DGS) is characterised by cellular (T-cell) deficit, distinctive facial features, congenital cardiac disease, and hypocalcemia.Due to a comparative decrease in naive CD4+ T-cells, patients with DiGeorge syndrome have high memory CD4+ T-cell counts. Low absolute T cell lymphopenia is frequent in our sample of DiGeorge syndrome individuals, and it gets less severe with age.

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in a bacterium, there is a mutation in the gene for the repressor protein of the lac operon. the mutation has changed a codon in the mrna from ucu to ucc. when lactose is present, how would this mutation affect the function of the lac operon?

Answers

The phenotypic effect would be that the lactase structural enzymes would be produced uncontrollably (wouldn't be able to stop the transcription) if the repressor gene underwent a mutation that prevented the repressor protein from binding to the operator.

Constitutive expression results from mutations in the repressor that prevent it from binding to the operator. A non-inducible phenotype results from mutations that block the inducer's ability to bind without affecting the operator's ability to bind.

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grasslands that contain some trees, occur in regions where a relatively cool, dry season is followed by a hot, rainy season are known as

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Grasslands that contain some trees, occur in regions where a relatively cool, dry season is followed by a hot, rainy season are known as Savannas.

A savanna, also known as a savannah, is a mixed woodland-grassland ecosystem distinguished by trees that are sufficiently spaced so that the canopy does not close. The open canopy allows enough light to reach the ground to support an unbroken herbaceous layer dominated by grasses.

Savannas are a transitional biome, not quite a forest or a desert, but somewhere in between. This habitat is home to many different species of plants and animals all over the world, including Africa's largest land mammal, the African elephant.

Savanna is grassland with a few scattered trees. Savannas of one kind or another cover nearly half of Africa (about five million square miles, mostly in central Africa) as well as large areas of Australia, South America, and India.

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in the area below type your ad libitum sampling of the primate. remember to include time markers to indicate the behavior that you were observing.

Answers

The Specific focal animal codes are also provided for specific activities.

What is primate?

Haplorrhines and Strepsirrhines are the two subgroups of primates. The words for haplorrhine and strepsirrhine respectively mean dry and wet nose. The dry-nosed primates known as haplorrhines include tarsiers, apes, monkeys, and humans. Haplorrhines are divided into three groups:

1) the catarrhines, which include humans, apes, and monkeys from the old world;

2) the platyrrhines, which include South American monkeys; and

3) tarsiers. Tarsiers can only be found in South East Asia, while apes can be found in both South East Asia and Africa.

What is behavior?

The coordinated responses (actions or inactions) of entire living organisms (individuals or groups) to internal and/or external stimuli, excluding responses better defined as developmental changes.

For these above mentioned sampling techniques, it is said to collect various data of the primates from a particular video within 2 minutes of time interval.

These data are of context (general activity), position, social behavior's, substrate, food (type of eating) for focal animal sampling and feeding, resting, travelling, social for scan sampling.

For focal animal sampling the total time is one-half hour and for scan sampling it is 20 minute which we have to divide by 2 minutes of intervals. For example if the video is of 6 minutes then it would be as follows:

0:00 - 2:00 = Context, position, etc.

2:00 - 4:00 = Context, position, etc.

4:00 - 6:00 = Context, position, etc.

Therefore, Specific focal animal codes are also provided for specific activities.

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a majorette in a parade is performing some acrobatic twirlings of her baton. assume that the baton is a uniform rod of mass 0.120 kgkg and length 80.0 cmcm . figure1 of 1 part a initially, the baton is spinning about an axis through its center at angular velocity 3.00 rad/srad/s . (figure 1)what is the magnitude of its angular momentum about a point where the axis of rotation intersects the center of the baton? express your answer in kilogram meters squared per second. if a catalyst were added to the reaction of crystal violet with sodium hydroxide, which effects could occur? i. the mechanism of the reaction would change. ii. the activation energy of the reaction would change. iii. the rate of the reaction would change. eating at fast-food restaurants is associated with decreased intake of calories, decreased intake of sodium, decreased intake of saturated fat, and decreased portion sizes. What is the score associated with 1 standard deviation below the mean if a set of scores has a standard deviation of 4 and a mean of 54? a. 62 b. 46 c. 50 d.58 hy is it significant that amaka listens to this type of music rather than the popular music of the time? 320 of 562 randomly selected u.s. adults interviewed said they would not be bothered if the national security agency collected records of personal telephone calls they had made. a button hyperlink to the salt program that reads: use salt. is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a majority of u.s. adults feel this way? test the appropriate hypotheses using a 0.01 significance level Three consecutive integers have a sum of ""21. which equation can be used to find the value of the three numbers? x x x = negative 21 x 2 x 3 x = negative 21 x (x 1) (x 2) = negative 21 x (x 2) (x 4) = negative 21 Which case represented the first time the supreme court reviewed and ruled on acts of the other branches of government?. ________ is the net return from a marketing investment divided by the costs of the marketing investm . how does the energy of photons change as they travel from the core to the surface of the sun? explain the methods of energy transfer that occur and why they change as the photons travel from the core. which of the following generates the most ions per mole of solute when dissolved in dilute aqueous solution? group of answer choices a. nahso4 b. mgcl2 c. nacl d. c2h5oh e. caso4 Two parallel lines are crossed by a transversal. Horizontal and parallel lines y and z are cut by transversal x. At the intersection of lines y and x, the top right angle is (2 k + 11) degrees. At the intersection of lines z and x, the bottom left angle is 131 degrees. What is the value of k?. if sales are $1,000,000 and contribution margin is $250,000, the contribution margin ratio is %. Can somebody help me solve The following coordinate plane shows three of the vertices of a rectangle. On an 8 by 8 coordinate grid, T is plotted 1 unit right and 4 units up from the origin. P is plotted 6 units right and 2 units up from the origin. Z is plotted 3 units right and 5 units up from the origin. What are the coordinates of Point Z? ( Choose... ) What are the coordinates of Point P? ( Choose... ) Which point has coordinates ( 1 , 4 ) ? Choose... In order to create a rectangle using these points as three of the vertices, what coordinates should be used for the fourth vertex? ( Choose... ) The equation g equals three fifths' times m represents the proportional relationship of the number of gallons of water (g) used by a washing machine over a certain period of time, in minutes (m). Create a written description for the equation best answer will get brainiest mrs. ash, a client in her 50s, has told the nurse during her most recent visit to the clinic that she and her circle of friends have discontinued breast self-examination (bse) since hearing and reading that the practice is now considered ineffective. how can the nurse best respond to mrs. ash? Find the equation of this line.[?]y =x + [ ] what is the greatest possible area of a triangular region with one vertex at the center of a circle of radius 1 and the other two vertices on the circle? 10. Solve 0.1(x+8)-0.5x = 0.2(2x - 6) +5.2. Justify each step.