Answer:
Diffusion is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.
Explanation:
Hope it helps.
The statement which is true about diffusion is as follows:
Diffusion does not require energy and is therefore a form of passive transport.Thus, the correct option is D.
What is Diffusion?Diffusion may be defined as the movement of substances from a region of higher concentration gradient to a region of lower concentration gradient through a semipermeable membrane.
Diffusion not only facilitated the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane but also other substances as well. Diffusion only regulates the movement of those molecules which can pass through a plasma membrane.
It is the means of movement of substances that do not require any form of energy. And thus, diffusion is significantly a form of passive transport.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is D.
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What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds
Answer:
90 percent
Explanation:
Based on average estimated juvenile and adult survival rate for each species
You are doing research on nervous system diseases; particularly, one that dissolves lipids. What part of the neuron would you expect to be affected most by this disease? A. Myelin sheath B. Axon C. Synaptic Cleft D. Dendrites
The answer you are looking for is A
The mechanism by which proteins synthesized in the cytosol are imported into the mitochondrial matrix is different from the mechanism by which proteins enter the nucleus, yet the two mechanisms do share some features. Indicate whether each of the following statements applies to nuclear import, mitochondrial import, both, or neither. Sort each statement into the appropriate bin.
1. The polypeptide to be transported into the organelle has a specific short stretch of amino acids that targets the polypeptide to the organelle.
2. The imported protein enters the organelle through some sort of protein pore
3. The pore complex consists of more than two dozen proteins and is large enough to be readily seen with the electron microscope.
4. ATP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
5. The signal sequence is always at the olypeptide's N-terminus and is cut off by a peptidase within the organelle
6. The signal sequence is recognized
GTP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
7. There is strong evidence for the involvement of chaperone proteins polypeptide's N-terminus and isctand bound by a receptor protein inrequired for the translocation during translocation of the protein the organelle's outer membrane process.
Nuclear import Mitochondrial import Both Neither
Answer:
Nuclear import:
1. GTP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
2. The pore complex consists of more than two dozen proteins and is large enough to be readily seen through electron microscopy
Mitochondrial import:
1. ATP hydrolysis is known to be required for the translocation process
2. The signal sequence is always at the polypeptide's N-terminus and is cut off by a peptidase inside the organelle
3. There is strong evidence for the involvement of chaperones during the translocation process
4. The signal sequence is recognized and bound by a receptor protein in the organelles outer membrane
Both:
1. The polypeptide to be transferred into the organelle has a specific short stretch of amino acids that targets the polypeptide to the organelle
2. The imported protein enters the organelle through some sort of protein pore
Explanation:
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
Complete question:
Part C: Using the Punnett square to make predictions
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note: You will find the Punnet square in the attached files.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
1) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random will be yellow?
2) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random from along the yellow seeds will breed true when selfed?
3) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include at least one yellow seed?
4) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include one green seed and two yellow seeds?
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
Y is the dominant allele and expresses yellow color y is the recessive allele and expresses green colorSeeds with YY and Yy genotype are yellowSeeds with yy genotype are greenParental) Yy x Yy
Gametes) Y y Y y
Punnet Square)
(1/2) Y (1/2) y
(1/2) Y (1/4) YY (1/4) Yy
(1/2) y (1/4) yY (1/4) yy
F2) 1/4 YY
2/4 = 1/2 Yy
1/4 yy
1) There will be 3/4 of probabilities of getting a yellow F2 seed
1/4 YY + 2/4 Yy = 3/4 Y-
The symbol "-" means that in its position there might be either a Y or y allele.
2) As there are only three yellow possible genotypes for yellow seeds, the fourth genotype for green seeds is not considered. Our pool now is only yellow seeds. So the probability of getting a pure breeding yellow seed among all yellow seeds is 1/3.
1/3 YY
1/3 Yy
1/3 yY
In the pool of yellow seeds, there are three genotypes, and only one of them corresponds to pure breeding yellow seed.
3) To calculate the probability of getting at least one yellow seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we need to multiply and then perform addition. This is, when we take three seeds from the pool, we have different possibilities of getting seeds with different genotypes. So:
the three chosen seeds could be yellow. In this case, we multiply their probabilities. The probability of getting one yellow seed is 3/4, so, the probabilities of getting three yellow seeds are: 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 27/64There might also be one green sees and two yellow seed, so we multiply their probabilities in the order in which we might get them. This is:
Two yellow seeds and one green seed: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow seed, one green seed, and one yellow seed: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed, and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64And we could also get two green seeds and only one yellow seed:
Two green and one yellow seed: 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64one green, one yellow and one green: 1/4 x 3/4x 1/4 = 3/64one yellow seed and two green seeds: 3/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 3/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
27/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 3/64 + 3/64 + 3/64= 63/64.
Note that we did not include the possibility of getting three green seeds (1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4). This is because we were asked to calculate the probabilities of getting AT LEAST one yellow seed.
4) To calculate the probability of getting two yellow seeds and one green seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we should multiply probabilities and then sum them up.
The orders in which we could get the seeds are:
Two yellows and one green: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow, one green, and one yellow: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
6/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 = 27/64.
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
1) yellow seed could either be GG, Gg or Gg from Punnett square, therefore, there is a 3/4 probability
2) true-breeding = either GG or gg. Therefore, out of the 3 yellow seed options, only 1 is true-breeding, therefore, it's a 1/3 probability
3) "there are 7 possible groupings that have at least 1 yellow seed; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 63/64. Note that you could have also calculated this answer by subtracting the probability of the one category that doesn’t fit the criterion (Green, Green, Green) from the total probability (1 – 1/64 = 63/64)"
4) "there are 3 possible groupings that have 1 green and 2 yellow seeds; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 27/64"
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As the chromosomes of a parent cell are duplicated and distributed to the two daughter cells during cell division, the structure of the chromosomes changes.Answer the three questions for each phase of the cell cycle by dragging the yes and no labels to the appropriate locations in the table.Note: Assume that by the end of the M phase, the parent cell has not yet divided to form two daughter cells.Are sister chromatid present in all or part of this phase?Is the DNA condensed in all or part of this phase?Does the cell contain twice as much DNA in this phase as it did in the G1 phase?
Answer:
Conditions:
Sister chromatids present in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOWDNA condensed in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOWDNA content per cell doubled in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOW**image also provided below for further clarification - all rights reserved to Mastering Genetics**
Explanation:
Conditions:
G1: no, S: yes, G2: yes, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: noG1: no, S: no, G2: no, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: yesG1: no, S: yes, G2: yes, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: yesBecause the replicated DNA is created, and the cell has twice as much genetic material, cells in the G2 phase have twice as much DNA.
What are the important phases of cell cycles?A diploid cell's G1 phase marks the start of the cell cycle (DNA content = 2 N; N is the number of chromosomes).
The cell enters the G2 phase with twice as much DNA (4 N) as the starting cell after DNA replication is finished in the S phase.
DNA replication happens in the S phase, when DNA synthesis happens and the amount of DNA doubles. Once the G1 phase is over, each chromosome contains one chromatid.
Each chromosome will have two chromatids following the S phase, though. The two chromatids here are exact duplicates of one another.
Therefore, When a cell is in the G1 phase, it physically expands and produces more protein and organelles.
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what must happen before meiosis can begin A. the cell splits into four parts B. the chromosomes must replicate C. four haploid cells are produced D.DNA must duplicate four times
Answer:
B. the chromosomes must replicate
Answer: DNA replicates and forms retreads
Explanation:
difference between plant and animal cyanide resistance respiration.
Answer:
The cyanide resistant respiration differs in plants as oxidation of reduced coenzyme continues even in the presence of cyanides.
Explanation:
The mitochondrial is the electrons through which the animals and plants perform the aerobic exercise and is blocked by the release of the cyanides that stops the activity and is known as cyanide sensitive respiration Plant mitochondria is different from the animal as they both have different oxidase system pathways. Cyanide resistant is responsible for the climacteric in fruits and for the generate heat in thermogenic tissues.e. Write a few sentences in which you address the following: Under what circumstances would underground storage organs be adaptive to the plant? A successful answer here almost certainly would define and apply the concept of "perennation" or "perennating organ."
Answer:
Perennation brings adaptive advantages to the plant under unfavorable seasonal conditions
Explanation:
Perennation can be defined as the potential of plants for surviving in unfavorable seasonal periods including, for example, drought or extreme seasonal temperatures. Perennation is a process associated to the evolution of adapted 'perennating organs' capable of storing nutrients, which will be subsequently used during unfavorable conditions. Examples of such perennating organs include bulbs, rhizomes, and tubers, which are usually related to the asexual reproduction processes of plants.
PLEASE HELP. DONT ANSWER IF YOU DONT KNOW. Name any three specifications that reduce carbon dioxide expenditure and promote biodiversity.
Answer:
A carbon footprint is the total greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions caused by an individual, event, organization, service, or product, expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent.[1] Greenhouse gases, including the carbon-containing gases carbon dioxide and methane, can be emitted through the burning of fossil fuels, land clearance and the production and consumption of food, manufactured goods, materials, wood, roads, buildings, transportation and other services.[2]
In most cases, the total carbon footprint cannot be calculated exactly because of inadequate knowledge of and data about the complex interactions between contributing processes, including the influence of natural processes that store or release carbon dioxide. For this reason, Wright, Kemp, and Williams proposed the following definition of a carbon footprint:
Specifications that reduce carbon dioxide expenditure and promote biodiversity are as follows:
1. Provide tree plantation through urban afforestation.
2. It has low concentration of carbon dioxide as plants absorb this gas and release oxygen
3. By promoting fruits and shade for the neighborhood.
What is Carbon Dioxide?Carbon dioxide is defined as the chemical compound which is made up of molecules each containing a carbon atom bonded twice to two oxygen atoms and is found in the gaseous state at room temperature. In air, carbon dioxide is transparent to visible light but absorbs infrared radiation which acts as a greenhouse gas.
This is a minor component of the Earth's atmosphere at about 3 volumes in 10,000 employed by plants in the combustion of carbon-containing material, in fermentation, and in the respiration of animals and in the photosynthesis of carbohydrates.
Thus, specifications that reduce carbon dioxide expenditure and promote biodiversity are as follows:
1. Provide tree plantation through urban afforestation.
2. It has low concentration of carbon dioxide as plants absorb this gas and release oxygen
3. By promoting fruits and shade for the neighborhood.
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Carolus Linnaeus Group of answer choices developed theories of natural selection. was a proponent of evolutionary change. established a binomial system of classification for plants and animals. was a supporter of Charles Darwin. opposed all notions of fixity of species.
Answer:
1- was a proponent of evolutionary change.
2- established a binomial system of classification for plants and animals
Explanation:
Carolus Linnaeus was a Sweden naturalist that is considered to be the creator of the modern taxonomy. He created a dichotomic system to classify species, in which species are fixed entities without phenotypic modifications across time, this concept being contrary to Darwin's ideas. Linnaeus published his nomenclature botanical system in the book "Species Plantarum", which is nowadays a reference book for plant nomenclature.
Why does the pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts
Answer:
A Because all are complex cells with certain functions that cannot be greatly altered without affecting fitness.
B Because VSG switching may not be restricted to trypanosomes.
C Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
D None of these answers are correct.
The answer is C .Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
Explanation:
Pattern recognition strategy employs the use of pattern recognition receptors which are proteins for the recognition of molecules frequently found in pathogens. When they are recognized, the body then marks the cells for destruction.
Pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes and they help in the recognition of pathogens or host for further action on them.
When a scientist is designing an experiment, _____ groups are made.
1
2
3
4
Answer:
Scientist makes 2 groups.
Explanation:
One experimentle group and other is controle group.
(sodium potassum adenosine triphosphatase) is found in the plasma membrane and catalyzes the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane. Classify the statements about the transport system as either true or false.
Answer:
The statements are:
Pumps K+ out of the cell False
Pumps K+ions into the cell True
Exchanges 3 Na+ ions for 2 K ions+ True
Exchanges 3 K+ ions for 2 Na+ ions False
Creates a membrane potential that is negative on the inside True
The transport protein becomes adenylated by ATP during the transport cycle True
Pumps Na+ ions out of the cell True
Pumps Na+ ions into the cell False
Explanation:
Sodium Potassium Adenosine Triphosphatase is in the membrane of cells. Its function is to create a difference of charges between the inside and the outside of the cell. The enzyme pumps 3 Na+ ions outside the cell for every 2 K+ ions that pumps inside the cell producing a resting potential. As this process is against their concentration gradient, the protein needs the energy to do it. This energy comes from the ATP that attaches to the transport protein.
The sex of the person that you are attracted to would
determine your
sexual identification.
o gender-role attractions
sexual orientation.
sexuality
Answer:
Gender role attraction determine your sexual identificaton.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle?
A. Diploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis.
B. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
C. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis.
D. Diploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
Answer:
Option C is the correct choice.
Explanation:
Generation Alternation seems to be a method of development process found in domestic cell walls animals as well as of plants where typically express populations overlap between diploid or haploid species. This could be associated with animal random mutations, where both the mentioned cells are present in each generation.Some other choices provided do not correspond to the circumstance in question. And the correct response will be Option C.
The statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
In plants, the diploid (2n) sporophyte undergoes meiosis to generate haploid (n) spores.
Subsequently, plant spores undergo successive mitosis to produce multicellular haploid (n) gametophytes.
In the gametophyte phase, a plant produces male and female haploid (n) gametes by mitosis in organs known as gametangia.
The diploid (2n) sporophyte is the zygote produced from the fusion of two (one male and one female) plant gametes. This zygote first develops into an embryo which will give rise to the adult sporophyte by successive mitosis.
In conclusion, the statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
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Choose the description of an event that does NOT occur during the cross bridge cycle. Group of answer choices Energized myosin heads bind troponin. ATP hydrolysis allows for cross bridge formation. ADP is released at the end of the power stroke. A new ATP binding causes cross bridges to release.
Answer: A myosin head binds to which molecule to form a cross bridge? ... Excitation-contraction coupling is a series of events that occur after the events of the ... performs a power stroke, then binds to ATP in order to detach and re-energize.
Explanation:
I was wondering if anyone could help with this? The photo is posted below.
Answer:
The answer is option C.
Hope this helps you
Humans breathe in oxygen and release ____ gas.
Answer:
Carbon
Explanation:
Reverse photosynthesis
Answer:
carbon dioxide
Explanation:
our body changes it
Read the label for ground beef, below. Discuss what stands out to you as a difference between the nutrition information of the vegetable you chose in question seven and the ground beef nutrition information provided in this label. Explain why you think beef is or is not necessary for a balanced diet.
Nutrition Facts
Serving Size 1 burger (151g)
Servings Per Container 6
Amount Per Serving
Calories 450 Calories from fat 340
% Daily Value
Total Fat 38g 58%
Saturated Fat 18g 90%
Trans Fat 1.5g
Cholesterol 100mg 33%
Sodium 460mg 19%
Total Carbohydrate 0g 0%
Dietary Fiber 0g 0%
Sugars 1g
Protein 26g
Vitamin C 2% Vitamin A 2%
Iron 8% Calcium 8%
Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet. Your daily values may be higher or lower depending on your calorie needs:
Calories 2,000 2,500
Total Fat Less than 65g 80g
Sat Fat Less than 20g 25g
Cholesterol Less than 300mg 300mg
Sodium Less than 2400mg 2400mg
Total Carbohydrate 300mg 375mg
Dietary Fiber 25g 30g
Calories per gram:
Fat 9 Carbohydrate 4 Protein 4
Answer:
Yes, Beef is necessary for a balanced diet.
Explanation:
Beef is necessary for a balanced diet because it contains high amount of energy which is required for performing different activities but too much intake of beef causes diseases because it contains high amount of cholesterol and fats. these cholesterol deposits in the vessels of the heart and prevent the normal flow of the blood which causes heart diseases like heart attack etc. So Beef is necessary for a balanced diet but in limited amount.
What best describes the behavior of nonconservative elements in seawater?
The given question is incomplete due to missing options, however, the options for the question as follows:
A. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.
B. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
C. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
D. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Non conservative components are components that enter the ocean water and have little concentration in the sea and show spatial variations. These components have short home time that is short replacements time and they are non responsive.
Constituents, for example, phosphate, nitrate, and different supplements, and broke up oxygen, carbon dioxide, and so on are non-conservative on the grounds that their concentrations are later altered by chemical reactions in the ocean.
Thus, The correct answer is option C.
A population is a growth at a rate of 2 , 4, 8 ,16 ,32 which type of growth dose this describe?
Answer:
exponential
Explanation:
The age of 16 of growth does this question describe
Penicillin has ability to provoke immune response by itself. true or false?
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Penicillin is a bacteria so it means it causes the production of antibodies which then boost the immune system.
It is like vaccination; small doses of the inactive form of the infection is injected into the body in order for the body to create antibodies resistant to such infection(thereby boosting the immune system).
Hope it helps.
If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?
Answer:
The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
Explanation:
One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.
An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.
Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel
Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).
Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .
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Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided
At a continental-continental convergent boundary, _____. a, both continental plates are subducted b. one continental plate is subducted below the other c. folded mountains are formed d. fault-block mountains are formed
Answer:
I dont get it???
Explanation:
Answer:
I think both continental plates are subducted
Which capillary would be least likely to allow substances to enter or exit the blood due to tight junctions that join the endothelial cells
Answer:
Those capillaries that have endothelial cells tightly attached have an increase in cell-to-cell junctions, such as desmosomal junctions that are poorly permeable to substances.
These capillaries generally function as conductors or collectors and not as permeabilizers like the pulmonary capillaries that are fenestrated and allow a high passage of substances and gases.
The capillaries are waterproof and prevent the passage of substances or fluids such as in the blood-brain barrier that is very selective
Explanation:
The blood-brain barrier is too selective since it is not favorable for the organism that many fluids, drugs, substances or chemical compounds enter the brain space.
This is the reason why the vessels are waterproof and why pharmacology was challenged to invent drugs that could cross this barrier since it was considered impossible.
An example is dopamine, which in parkynson's disease the levo group is added to dopamine, thus forming levodopamine as a product, this is the only way that the drug crosses the blood-brain barrier and can pass the impermeable barrier generated by capillaries with endothelial cells that are close to each other or closely linked
To which domain does the animal kingdom belong? Bacteria Archaea Eukarya
Answer:
The correct answer is Eukarya.
Explanation:
The kingdom Animalia is one of four Kingdoms in the Domain Eukarya. This domain is further subdivided into the Kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia.
Answer:
Eukarya is it
Explanation:
Which explanation provides support for continental drift theory?
O Dinosaurs lived on many continents.
Coal fields match up across continents.
Tropical plant fossils were found in warm areas.
Similar rock types are found across continents.
Answer and explanation:
Among the main evidences of the theory of continental drift, we can mention the fit of the lines of the coasts of several continents, In addition to the similarity between several relief structures and rocks in different continents (such as mountain ranges found in South America and on the east coast of Africa).
There are also records of fossils of identical extinct plants, found on the African continent and also in countries like Australia, India and Brazil, for example.
Identical reptile fossils have also been found in Africa and South America, in addition to several correlations in the distribution of aquatic dinosaur fossils that lived in common areas of the ancient supercontinent.
Answer:
Similar rock types are found across continents.
Explanation:
i just know,im smart duh
Which statement describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude?
It is measured by the Mercalli scale.
It is based on the size of seismic waves.
O It is not usually affected by the amount of fault movement.
It is used to determine damage caused by earthquakes.
Answer:
b. It is based on the size of seismic waves
Explanation:
just did the test
The statement that describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude is: "It is based on the size of seismic waves."
What is an earthquake's magnitude?An earthquake's magnitude is a measure of the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and it is determined by measuring the amplitude (height) of the seismic waves generated by the earthquake. The size of the seismic waves is directly related to the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and this is used to calculate the earthquake's magnitude.
The most commonly used scale for measuring earthquake magnitude is the Richter scale, which is based on the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram. Other scales, such as the moment magnitude scale, are based on the seismic moment, which takes into account the size of the fault rupture and the amount of slip on the fault.
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What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds
Answer:
27 years
Explanation:
Research has discovered that for some individuals one challenge to maintaining weight loss is that after losing weight lipoprotein lipase activity in their adipose tissue is .
Answer: Low.
Explanation:
Lipoprotein lipase or LPL is an enzyme that hydrolyzes triglycerides of low density lipoproteins found in food, and breaks them down to free fatty acids and glycerol. Then they are released into muscle and fat tissue. Without this enzyme, the fat particles would accumulate in the blood. Particularly, lipoprotein particles called chylomicron transport dietary lipids from the intestines to other locations in the body. So these complex, lipids and chylomicron, accumulate in blood.
Fats are a type of nutrient obtained from food. It is essential to eat some fats, although it is also harmful to eat too much. The fats in food give the body the energy it needs to work properly. And, during exercise, the body uses the calories from the carbohydrates that have recently been eaten, but after 20 minutes, exercise then depends on the calories from fat to continue.
So, if the activity of this enzyme is high, the fat in the food is broken down and the person would not gain weight (always considering that there is a correct diet and exercise) On the other hand, if the activity of the protein is low, large amounts of fat accumulate in the blood.