What were the first 2 animal viruses to be isolated? Upon what basis were the first viruses determined and classified to be "viruses", even before the development of the ability (using electron microscopy) to visualize them? Historically, what are some of the criteria used to determine how viruses are classified or grouped (and named)?

Answers

Answer 1

The first two animal viruses that were isolated are the foot and mouth disease virus and the yellow fever virus.

The first viruses were determined and classified to be "viruses" based on their small size and filterability, even before the development of the ability to visualize them with electron microscopy.

In the 1890s, scientists discovered that something smaller than bacteria was causing diseases like mosaic disease in tobacco plants.

They realized that the infectious agent could pass through filters that trapped bacteria and fungi.

They named these filterable agents "viruses," from the Latin word for "poison."

In the early 20th century, researchers identified other viruses that could cause disease, including yellow fever and foot-and-mouth disease.

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Related Questions

Identify the three blood variables considered when making a
diagnosis of acidosis or alkalosis, what are the sources of
compensation for blood pH problems of a respiratory origin and of a
metabolic/re

Answers

The three blood variables considered for diagnosing acidosis or alkalosis are pH, PCO2, and bicarbonate. Compensation for respiratory pH imbalances involves the kidneys adjusting bicarbonate levels, while compensation for metabolic imbalances is achieved through respiratory changes in CO2 levels.

When evaluating acid-base disturbances, healthcare professionals rely on three key blood variables: pH, PCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide), and bicarbonate (HCO3-). The pH value indicates the acidity or alkalinity of the blood, with values below 7.35 indicating acidosis and values above 7.45 indicating alkalosis. PCO2 reflects the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood, while bicarbonate represents the concentration of HCO3- ions, a crucial buffer for maintaining pH balance.

Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis arises from changes in CO2 levels due to respiratory system dysfunction. Compensation for respiratory pH imbalances occurs in the kidneys, which adjust bicarbonate levels. In respiratory acidosis, the kidneys increase bicarbonate retention, while in respiratory alkalosis, they decrease bicarbonate reabsorption.

Metabolic acidosis or alkalosis, on the other hand, stems from changes in bicarbonate levels caused by metabolic disturbances. Compensation for metabolic pH imbalances occurs through adjustments in respiratory function. In metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system increases ventilation to expel excess CO2, while in metabolic alkalosis, ventilation decreases to retain more CO2.

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Why it is very important to control contamination? Explain what will happen if the source had
been contaminated from the beginning. Find reviews about 2008 - Heparin Linked Death in
United States, which suspected from China’s unhygienic and un-aseptic procedures of
handling pig intestines and also 2012 – Fungal Menigitis Outbreak due to contaminated
steroid which came from India. Write summary about these events and give your opinion on
how biopharmaceutical product sources should be handled to avoid this from happening.

Answers

It is extremely important to control contaminated biopharmaceutical products because contamination can lead to serious consequences including health risks, product recalls, financial losses, and reputational damage for companies.

If the source of a biopharmaceutical product had been contaminated from the beginning, the resulting product could be ineffective, toxic, or harmful to the patients, and can even result in fatalities.

The 2008 - Heparin Linked Death in the United States was caused by contaminated heparin produced in China that led to more than 80 deaths and hundreds of allergic reactions in patients. It was found that the contaminant was a modified form of chondroitin sulfate, a cheaper drug that was used to mimic heparin. This was a result of China's unhygienic and un-aseptic procedures of handling pig intestines. The incident highlighted the importance of strict quality control measures and the need for monitoring the entire supply chain to ensure the safety and effectiveness of biopharmaceutical products.

The 2012 – Fungal Menigitis Outbreak was caused by contaminated steroid injections produced by a compounding pharmacy in the US that were distributed across the country, resulting in more than 750 cases and over 60 deaths. The contaminated steroids were found to contain a fungus that caused meningitis in patients. Investigations found that the contamination was a result of unhygienic and un-aseptic procedures in the compounding pharmacy. This incident underscored the need for stricter regulations and oversight of compounding pharmacies.

To avoid such incidents, biopharmaceutical product sources should be handled with utmost care and strict quality control measures should be implemented throughout the entire supply chain. Biopharmaceutical companies should ensure that their suppliers follow good manufacturing practices, and regular inspections should be conducted to ensure compliance. Moreover, proper training of employees, strict protocols for handling raw materials, and a robust quality control system should be put in place. In addition, regulatory authorities should enforce strict standards and perform rigorous inspections to ensure compliance with good manufacturing practices and quality control measures.

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A 31-month-old girl was admitted to the hospital because of fever, headache. drowsiness, and vomiting. She had been well until 12 hours before admission, when she developed a runny nose, fever, and loss of appetite. The child's birth and development were normal, but her routine immunizations had been neglected. On examination, her temperature was 40∘C(104∘F). her neck was stiff, and she did not respond to verbal commands. There was no history of head trauma. The child's white blood cell count was elevated and showed a marked increase in the percentage of neutrophils. Her blood sugar was in the normal range. A spinal tap revealed eloudy CSF containing 18,000 white blood cells per microliter (normally, there are few or none), a markedly elevated protein level, and a markedly low glucose level. Gram stain of the fluid showed tiny. Gram-negative coccubacilli. What was the diagnesis, and what was the causative agent? a. Listeriosis. caused by Listena monocytogenies: b. Meningitis, caused by Haentephitus meningitidis sefotype b. c. Meningltis: caused by Neisserta mentingitidis palle, caused by believirus: Enceshalitis, d. Eaused by Neissefia meningitidis.

Answers

The diagnosis, in this case, is meningitis, and it is caused by Neisseria meningitidis.

The clinical presentation of fever, headache, drowsiness, vomiting, and a stiff neck, along with the findings of elevated white blood cell count and marked abnormalities in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), indicate a diagnosis of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.

The causative agent, in this case, is identified as Neisseria meningitides, a Gram-negative coccobacillus bacterium. Neisseria meningitidis is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis, particularly in infants and young children. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and can lead to severe illness characterized by rapid onset and potentially fatal complications if not promptly treated.

The cloudy appearance of the CSF, along with the elevated white blood cell count and abnormal protein and glucose levels, further support the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the CSF revealed the presence of tiny, Gram-negative coccobacilli, which is consistent with Neisseria meningitidis.

Prompt medical intervention, including antibiotic treatment and supportive care, is crucial in cases of bacterial meningitis to prevent complications and reduce the risk of long-term neurological damage or mortality.

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please write down the differences between the five DNA sequences in each of these images. Explain, compare and contrast. Explain polymorphism, insertion, deletion, addition between these sequences and also explain the yellow parts in the images. Write about each image in a separate paragraph

Answers

The five DNA sequences provided show variations in terms of polymorphism, insertions, deletions, and additions. The yellow parts in the images represent the regions where these variations occur.

In the given DNA sequences, each represented by an image, there are differences observed in terms of polymorphism, insertions, deletions, and additions. These variations can be identified by comparing the sequences.

Polymorphism refers to the occurrence of multiple forms or variations of a particular DNA sequence in a population. In the provided sequences, there may be differences in nucleotide bases at specific positions, resulting in polymorphic sites. By comparing the sequences, one can identify the positions where nucleotide differences occur.

Insertions, deletions, and additions are types of genetic mutations that involve changes in the DNA sequence length. Insertions occur when one or more nucleotides are added to the sequence, while deletions involve the removal of one or more nucleotides. Additions, on the other hand, may refer to the presence of additional sequences or segments in the DNA.

The yellow parts in the images represent the regions where these variations occur. They highlight the specific locations where polymorphisms, insertions, deletions, or additions are present in each DNA sequence.

By carefully comparing and contrasting the DNA sequences, one can analyze the differences and similarities between them, identifying the specific variations that contribute to the observed distinctions in the sequences.

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3 Under what conditions does a typical plant undergo photosynthesis and when does cellular respiration take place? Can these processes occur simultaneously? Explain. 4. Predict what will happen to oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations in light and dark conditions in a closed container with a plant. Explain why: Light: Dark: 5. Draw a model in this space to explain your predictions for the previous question. Focus your model on what is happening at the cellular level.

Answers

Photosynthesis is a process that occurs in a typical plant when it has access to sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide. The primary conditions for photosynthesis are water, sunlight, and carbon dioxide. It produces glucose and oxygen as end products.

In contrast, cellular respiration occurs in the absence of sunlight, meaning in the dark. Glucose is used to break down oxygen to produce energy. These two processes cannot occur simultaneously in a typical plant. The leaves of a plant undergo photosynthesis during the day and switch to cellular respiration at night. This is because photosynthesis requires sunlight, and there is no sunlight at night. Cellular respiration requires the plant to use the products created from photosynthesis, namely oxygen and glucose, to produce energy.

The oxygen concentrations in light conditions in a closed container with a plant will increase because it is released by the plant during photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide, on the other hand, will decrease due to the plant's uptake for photosynthesis. In dark conditions, the oxygen concentration in a closed container with a plant will decrease because the plant will consume oxygen to produce energy through cellular respiration. Carbon dioxide will increase because cellular respiration releases carbon dioxide as a byproduct.

Thus, these concentrations will vary depending on the light conditions. The model of a plant cell: 150px In light conditions, the plant undergoes photosynthesis, which converts carbon dioxide, water, and light energy into glucose and oxygen. Oxygen is then released back into the environment. In dark conditions, the plant undergoes cellular respiration. The mitochondria of the plant cells use oxygen and glucose to produce energy in the form of ATP. Carbon dioxide is released back into the environment as a byproduct.

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Which of the following is a fluorescent agent used to stain DNA for visualization following agarose gel electrophoresis? a. GelRed O b. GFP Oc Fluorescein O d. Methylene blue

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The answer is a. GelRed. GelRed is a commonly used fluorescent dye that binds to DNA and allows for its visualization after agarose gel electrophoresis.

It is commonly used as an alternative to ethidium bromide, another DNA stain, due to its safer and more environmentally friendly properties. GelRed emits red fluorescence when bound to DNA, making it easier to detect and analyze DNA fragments in the gel.

GelRed is a fluorescent nucleic acid stain commonly used in molecular biology research for visualizing DNA during agarose gel electrophoresis. Here are some additional details about GelRed:

Staining Mechanism: GelRed is a high-affinity nucleic acid stain that binds to DNA by intercalating between the base pairs. It has a high specificity for DNA and shows minimal binding to RNA or proteins.

Fluorescence Excitation and Emission: GelRed has a wide excitation range, typically spanning from UV to blue light wavelengths. It can be excited using a UV transilluminator or blue LED light source. The emitted fluorescence is in the visible range, with a peak around 590 nm.

Safety and Environmental Considerations: GelRed is considered safer to use compared to traditional DNA stains like ethidium bromide. It is non-toxic and non-mutagenic, making it more user-friendly and environmentally friendly.

Sensitivity and Detection: GelRed provides excellent sensitivity for detecting DNA bands in agarose gels. It can detect low concentrations of DNA and is suitable for both small and large DNA fragments.

Compatibility with Downstream Applications: GelRed-stained DNA is compatible with various downstream applications such as DNA sequencing, restriction enzyme digestion, PCR, and cloning. The stain does not interfere with these processes and can be easily removed from the DNA if required.

It is important to note that GelRed is just one of several DNA stains available for agarose gel electrophoresis. Researchers can choose the appropriate stain based on their specific requirements and available equipment.

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please l need help asap thank you god bless u
A patient at a memory care unit has difficulty with short-term memory. When the PTA attempts to do therapy with the patient, he often states that he does not want to.
1. What strategies can the PTA use to encourage the patient to participate in therapy?
2. What types of nonverbal communication skills will work best with a patient with dementia?
The outpatient clinic’s policy is to charge $20 to patients who do not show up for their appointments. The patient is upset by this policy and is refusing to pay. She is insisting on continuing with her PT treatments.
1. What verbal and nonverbal skills should be employed with this patient?
2. What elements of the therapeutic relationship will help to diffuse this situation?
3. What are the possible outcomes of this scenario?

Answers

1. Strategies to encourage participation: Provide clear instructions, use positive reinforcement, break tasks into manageable steps, incorporate familiar activities, and create a supportive environment.

2. Effective nonverbal communication skills: Maintain eye contact, use gentle touch, display facial expressions that convey empathy and understanding, and use a calm and reassuring tone of voice.

When a patient with memory difficulties refuses therapy, the PTA can employ various strategies to encourage participation.

Firstly, it's important to provide clear instructions and explain the purpose and benefits of therapy in simple terms. Using positive reinforcement, such as praising the patient's efforts and progress, can motivate them to engage. Breaking tasks into smaller, achievable steps helps prevent overwhelming the patient and increases their likelihood of participation.

Incorporating familiar activities that the patient enjoys or has experience with can also enhance their willingness to participate. Additionally, creating a supportive and comfortable environment, free from distractions, can foster a sense of trust and cooperation. Nonverbal communication plays a crucial role in effectively interacting with a patient with dementia.

Maintaining eye contact when speaking to the patient helps establish a connection and shows attentiveness. Gentle touch, such as holding their hand or providing a comforting pat on the back, can convey warmth and reassurance. Displaying facial expressions that reflect empathy, understanding, and patience can help the patient feel supported and understood.

Using a calm and soothing tone of voice, speaking slowly and clearly, and using simple language can aid comprehension and make the patient feel more at ease. When dealing with a patient who refuses to pay for missed appointments, it is important to employ both verbal and nonverbal skills. Verbal skills should include active listening, empathetic responses, and clear communication about the clinic's policies and the patient's financial responsibilities.

It is crucial to listen attentively to the patient's concerns and validate their emotions to establish rapport and build trust. While explaining the clinic's policy, using a calm and respectful tone can help defuse tension and prevent further escalation. The therapeutic relationship can play a key role in diffusing the situation. Building a strong therapeutic alliance based on trust, empathy, and mutual respect can help address the patient's concerns and find a resolution.

Being patient-centered and acknowledging the patient's autonomy and preferences can promote a sense of collaboration and shared decision-making. Taking the time to understand the patient's perspective and finding common ground can facilitate a positive resolution to the conflict.

Possible outcomes of this scenario can vary. If effective communication strategies are employed and a mutual understanding is reached, the patient may choose to comply with the clinic's policy and continue with their PT treatments. Alternatively, if the patient remains adamant about not paying, further discussions or negotiations may be needed, involving clinic administrators or supervisors.

In some cases, compromises or alternative solutions, such as a payment plan or financial assistance options, could be explored. It's important to approach the situation with patience, respect, and a willingness to find a solution that meets the needs of both the patient and the clinic.

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1) Which is not a part of a stereotypical prokaryote operon ? a) Operator b) Promotor c) Structural Genes d) Repressor 2) If expression of a gene continuous regardless of the environment a cell is experiencing, we would describe this as : a) Inducible expression. b) Constitutive expression. c) Repressible expression. d) Positive repressible expression.

Answers

1) Repressor is not a part of a stereotypical prokaryote operon. So, option D is accurate.

2) If expression of a gene continuous regardless of the environment a cell is experiencing, we would describe this as Constitutive expression. So, option B is accurate.

1) In a stereotypical prokaryote operon, the operator, promotor, and structural genes are essential components. The operator is a DNA sequence that acts as a binding site for a repressor protein. The promotor is a DNA sequence that initiates transcription of the structural genes. The structural genes contain the coding sequences for proteins or functional RNA molecules. However, a repressor is not a part of the operon itself. It is a regulatory protein that can bind to the operator and inhibit gene expression by blocking RNA polymerase's access to the promotor.

2) Constitutive expression refers to the continuous expression of a gene regardless of the environmental conditions a cell is experiencing. In such cases, the gene is transcribed and translated at a constant, baseline level without regulation or control. The gene is constitutively active and produces its corresponding protein or RNA molecule constantly. This type of expression is in contrast to inducible expression, which is upregulated in response to specific environmental cues, and repressible expression, which can be downregulated under certain conditions. Positive repressible expression is not a commonly used term and does not describe a specific gene expression pattern.

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What is NOT a complication of burns? Loss of bodily fluids Infection Decrease funftion of immune system Circulatory shock
Blood vessels in the epidermis will dilate increasing blood flow through the

Answers

Among the given options, option c- "Decrease function of the immune system" is NOT a complication of burns.

Burns are injuries that occur when the skin is damaged due to heat, chemicals, electricity, or radiation. The severity of burns is determined by the depth of the burn and the amount of skin surface area that has been burned.

Complications of burns are:

Loss of bodily fluidsInfectionCirculatory shock

The blood vessels in the epidermis will dilate increasing blood flow through the skin, which results in redness and warmth. The dermis is the layer of skin that contains most of the sweat glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve endings. The subcutaneous tissue, which is beneath the dermis, is made up of fat and connective tissue. Therefore, "Decrease function of the immune system" is NOT a complication of burns.

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What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the
Ehlrich test for proteins
Suggest how the weak points of this test can be strengthened by
comparing it to other protein tests

Answers

The Ehrlich test for proteins has advantages such as sensitivity and simplicity, but it lacks specificity and quantitative analysis. Comparing it to other protein tests can help overcome these limitations.

The Ehrlich test, also known as the biuret test, is a common method used to detect the presence of proteins. It involves the reaction between proteins and copper sulfate in an alkaline solution, resulting in a purple color change. Here are the advantages and disadvantages of using the Ehrlich test for proteins:

Advantages:

1. Sensitivity: The Ehrlich test is highly sensitive and can detect even small amounts of proteins.

2. Simplicity: The test procedure is relatively simple and can be performed with basic laboratory equipment.

3. Cost-effective: The reagents used in the Ehrlich test are readily available and affordable, making it a cost-effective option for protein detection.

Disadvantages:

1. Lack of specificity: The Ehrlich test is not specific to proteins and can react with other substances, such as peptides and certain amino acids, leading to false-positive results.

2. Limited quantitative analysis: While the Ehrlich test can indicate the presence of proteins, it does not provide quantitative information about their concentration.

3. Interference: Some substances, such as reducing agents and certain metal ions, can interfere with the Ehrlich test, affecting its accuracy.

To strengthen the weak points of the Ehrlich test, one can compare it to other protein tests and use complementary methods. For example:

1. Bradford assay: The Bradford assay is more specific for proteins and less prone to interference. It utilizes a color change based on the binding of Coomassie Brilliant Blue dye to proteins, allowing for quantitative analysis.

2. ELISA: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a highly specific and sensitive method for protein detection. It relies on the specific binding of antibodies to target proteins, providing both qualitative and quantitative results.

3. Western blotting: Western blotting combines electrophoresis and protein-specific antibodies to detect and analyze proteins. It offers high specificity and can provide information about protein size and quantity.

By comparing the Ehrlich test to these alternative methods, one can choose the most appropriate technique based on the specific requirements of the experiment, aiming for improved specificity, quantitative analysis, and reduced interference.

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After tissue damage tissue repair itself by mysterious mechanisms nothing happens, damage tissue evaporates, disappears out of the picture M2-type macrophage play a very important role in repairing th

Answers

Tissue repair is a complex process that involves various mechanisms aimed at restoring damaged tissues. One important player in tissue repair is the M2-type macrophage. These macrophages play a crucial role in the repair process, contributing to the resolution of inflammation and promoting tissue regeneration.

When tissues are damaged, a series of events is initiated to initiate the repair process. One of the key components involved in tissue repair is the activation of macrophages, which are immune cells capable of engulfing and eliminating debris and pathogens. Macrophages can be divided into different types based on their functional properties, and the M2-type macrophages are particularly involved in tissue repair.

M2-type macrophages have anti-inflammatory properties and are responsible for promoting tissue regeneration. They secrete various growth factors and cytokines that stimulate the proliferation and migration of cells involved in tissue repair. Additionally, M2-type macrophages help to remodel the extracellular matrix, which is necessary for proper tissue healing.

By their involvement in the resolution of inflammation and promotion of tissue regeneration, M2-type macrophages contribute to the overall repair process. Their presence and activity are essential for successful tissue repair and restoration of tissue function.

It is important to note that tissue repair is a complex and dynamic process involving various cell types and signaling pathways. While M2-type macrophages play a critical role, they work in conjunction with other immune cells, fibroblasts, and factors involved in tissue healing to achieve effective repair.

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match the following for the
descriptions provided
Inducer III Catabolite activator protein interacts with CAMP to upregulate gene expression by binding to DNA and stretching it open. III Repressor An assortment of three linked genes controlled by a s

Answers

The correct matches for the provided descriptions are as follows: Inducer III: An assortment of three linked genes controlled by a single operator. Catabolite activator protein interacts with CAMP to upregulate gene expression by binding to DNA and stretching it open.

The correct matches for the provided descriptions are as follows: Inducer III: An assortment of three linked genes controlled by a single operator. Catabolite activator protein interacts with CAMP to upregulate gene expression by binding to DNA and stretching it open. III Repressor: Binds to the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the genes that follow it. Here, it's essential to understand the different protein interactions, genes, and the effects they have on the gene expression.

In genetics, gene expression is the process in which genes provide a genetic code for the synthesis of functional gene products such as proteins, which is a key building block of life. Proteins are the basic unit of cell function, and genes are the sections of DNA that provide instructions to build proteins, among other things. Catabolite activator protein (CAP) is a protein that interacts with the cyclic AMP (CAMP) in gene regulation and DNA stretching to allow RNA polymerase to initiate transcription. In contrast, the repressor protein prevents transcription. Hence, understanding gene expression mechanisms is crucial to understanding how the proteins interact with the genes to influence the phenotype.

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Which of the following statements about natural selection is not true? O Individuals evolve, not populations. O Natural selection does not give organisms what they need. O Traits that are favorable in one environment are not necessarily favorable in another. O Only traits that vary can be acted on by natural selection

Answers

Natural selection is the mechanism that determines how living organisms evolve over time. The statement that "individuals evolve, not populations" is not entirely accurate.

While it is true that individual organisms exhibit changes that can be seen as evolutionary, populations evolve as well. Population genetics is the study of how genetic variations arise and spread within a population over time. This field of study focuses on the changes in allele frequencies in a population over generations.

Natural selection does not give organisms what they need, but rather it favors traits that are beneficial for survival and reproduction in a given environment. Organisms that possess advantageous traits are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on their traits to the next generation. However, traits that are favorable in one environment may not be in another, which is why natural selection does not act on all traits uniformly.

Traits that vary can be acted on by natural selection. This is because variations in traits are caused by differences in the genes that control them. Traits that are favorable in a given environment increase an individual's chances of survival and reproduction, while traits that are unfavorable decrease an individual's chances of survival and reproduction. Over time, this leads to changes in the frequency of traits within a population, which is the basis of evolution.

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Describe the concepts of innate and acquired resistance for bacteria AND give examples of each type of resistance. What are some of the beta-lactam antibiotics that CAN work despite beta-lactamases being present?

Answers

Bacteria has two major types of resistance: innate and acquired. Innate resistance is due to the bacterial species’ natural properties, while acquired resistance is obtained by acquiring genes from other bacteria.

Let's take a closer look at both: Innate Resistance: Innate resistance is a natural property of bacterial species. It depends on the bacterial cell structure, which may include an impenetrable lipid membrane or the capacity to prevent drug accumulation inside the cell.

Penicillin, for example, is only effective against gram-positive bacteria because it is unable to penetrate the thick layer of peptidoglycan in gram-negative bacteria.

Acquired Resistance: Acquired resistance happens when a bacterium obtains genes that can counteract antibiotics. Horizontal gene transfer can pass these resistance genes between bacterial species, allowing bacteria to become resistant to antibiotics they have never encountered before.

Beta-lactam antibiotics that can work despite beta-lactamases being present are Ampicillin, Oxacillin, and Methicillin. An example of each type of resistance is given below:

Innate resistance- Klebsiella pneumoniae is naturally resistant to many antibiotics because of its impermeable cell wall and efflux pumps.

Acquired resistance- Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is an example of acquired resistance because it has acquired a gene that alters the target site of methicillin, making it ineffective.

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Explain, using at least one example, how microclimates affect your ecology (i.e., the ecology of an individual human!). (3 marks)

Answers

Microclimates can affect the ecology of an individual human by influencing local temperature, precipitation, and vegetation patterns, leading to variations in available resources and potential health impacts.

Microclimates refer to small-scale variations in climate within a larger region. These variations can arise due to factors such as topography, elevation, proximity to bodies of water, and the presence of urban areas. Microclimates can have a significant impact on the ecology of an individual human, affecting their daily experiences and overall well-being.

One example of how microclimates can influence human ecology is the phenomenon of urban heat islands. In densely populated urban areas, the abundance of concrete and asphalt absorbs and retains heat, resulting in higher temperatures compared to surrounding rural areas. This creates a microclimate characterized by elevated temperatures and reduced vegetation cover. Individuals residing in such areas may experience higher heat stress, increased energy consumption for cooling, and reduced air quality due to the trapping of pollutants. These factors can have implications for human health, including heat-related illnesses, respiratory issues, and compromised overall comfort.

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What functional assays did Kazutoshi Takahasi and Shinya Yamanaka use to show that induced pluripotent stem (IPS) cells function similarly to embryonic stem (ES) cells? Name 2. Question 6. Cancer is a genetic disease in that it can be traced to alterations within specific genes, but, in most cases, it is not an inherited disease. Why is that the case? Question 7. Under the same cell culture conditions that lead cultured normal cells to reduce their growth rates, what happens to malignant cells? Question 8. What current method for cancer treatment attempts to involve the body's immune system to fight cancer?

Answers

5. The functional assays used by Kazutoshi Takahashi and Shinya Yamanaka to demonstrate that induced pluripotent stem (IPS) cells function similarly to embryonic stem (ES) cells are:

Alkaline phosphatase activity: alkaline phosphatase activity was tested to determine the capability of the pluripotent cells. ES cells are known to show significant alkaline phosphatase activity.

Teratoma formation: Teratomas are tumors that arise from pluripotent cells and contain derivatives of all three embryonic germ layers.

6. Most cases of cancer are not inherited because most cancers are caused by acquired mutations in genes rather than mutations that are inherited. Gene mutations can be caused by a variety of factors, including environmental factors such as exposure to radiation or harmful chemicals.

7. Unlike normal cells, malignant cells continue to grow and divide even under the same cell culture conditions that cause cultured normal cells to reduce their growth rates. Malignant cells, on the other hand, continue to proliferate.

8. The current method for treating cancer that tries to engage the body's immune system to fight cancer is immunotherapy. It involves the use of drugs that help the immune system recognize and destroy cancer cells.

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QUESTION 1
Which type of radiation uses shorter wavelengths?
ionizing
nonionizing
1 points QUESTION 2
Ionizing Radiation Damages DNA by
forming tyhmine dimers
prod

Answers

QUESTION 1: Ionizing radiation uses shorter wavelengths compared to nonionizing radiation.

Ionizing radiation includes types such as gamma rays, X-rays, and high-energy ultraviolet (UV) radiation. QUESTION 2: Ionizing radiation damages DNA by causing various types of DNA damage, including the formation of thymine dimers. Thymine dimers occur when two adjacent thymine bases in the DNA strand become covalently linked due to exposure to ionizing radiation. This damages the DNA structure and can lead to genetic mutations or cell death. Radiation refers to the emission and propagation of energy in the form of electromagnetic waves or particles. It can be categorized into two main types: ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation. Ionizing Radiation: Ionizing radiation has higher energy and shorter wavelengths than non-ionizing radiation. It carries enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, leading to the formation of charged particles (ions) and causing chemical changes in matter.

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Lichen or Fungi? (20 points) Take a habit photograph of 1 suspected lichen and 1 suspected fungi. Using a magnifying lens or zoom feature of your phone, identify as many parts as you can which will help in concluding if samples are lichen or fungi. Summarize data in a table and submit via LMS. Fungi or Lichen Habit STRING Images of Distinct Parts NO 2000 Lichen or Fungi Lichen Reason/Defense Fungi

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Lichens are composite organisms that are formed by a symbiotic relationship between a photosynthetic partner and a fungal partner, while fungi are a group of organisms that include yeasts, molds, and mushrooms.

Lichens are often found in environments that are unfavorable to other organisms, such as deserts, rocky areas, and Arctic tundra. Fungi are found in a wide variety of habitats, including soil, water, and decaying matter.

A magnifying lens or zoom feature of a phone can help in identifying the distinctive parts of a lichen or fungi sample. For example, lichens can have a crust-like, leafy, or shrubby appearance, while fungi can have fruiting bodies such as mushrooms or puffballs.

The table below summarizes some distinctive characteristics of lichens and fungi: Lichen Fungi

Photosynthetic partner (algae or cyanobacteria) and fungal partner

Hyphae (thread-like structures)Cell walls composed of chitin No cell walls

Cell walls composed of cellulose or chitin Reproduce by spores Reproduce by spores or budding

Can grow in harsh environments

Found in a variety of habitats, including soil and decaying matter

In conclusion, a careful examination of the distinctive parts of a sample using a magnifying lens or zoom feature of a phone can help in identifying whether it is a lichen or a fungi.

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Match the best term for the following descriptions: Two versions of the same gene [A] One chromosome contributed by each parent in a diploid organism [B] A human gamete is [C] An inactivated X chromosome appears as a [D] The degree to which a phenotype is manifested [E] Blood types are an example of [F] Correct! [A] Alleles You Answered [B] Sister chromatids v Correct Answer Homolog

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The correct term to match the given descriptions are:

A) Alleles

B) Homolog

C) Haploid

D) Barr body

E) Penetrance

F) Multiple alleles

Alleles are the term used for two versions of the same gene. One chromosome contributed by each parent in a diploid organism is called Homolog. Haploid is the term used for human gamete.

An inactivated X chromosome appears as a Barr body. The degree to which a phenotype is manifested is called Penetrance.Blood types are an example of Multiple alleles.

Hence, the correct terms are:

A) Alleles

B) Homolog

C) Haploid

D) Barr body

E) Penetrance

F) Multiple alleles

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• Sort the cells below into the categories based on the order in which they become involved in the immune response • Some cells may not be involved in the immune response & will not be sorted into

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In the immune response, there are different cells that are involved, and they function in specific orders. Here are the cells that become involved in the immune response sorted according to the order in which they become involved:

T-cells: These cells are involved in the early stages of the immune response. They detect antigens, which are protein molecules on the surface of foreign substances such as viruses or bacteria, and present them to other immune cells. This helps to activate other immune cells and initiate the immune response.

B-cells: These cells are activated by T-cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens. Antibodies are proteins that bind to antigens and mark them for destruction by other immune cells, such as phagocytes and natural killer cells. B-cells also produce memory cells, which provide long-term immunity to specific pathogens.

Phagocytes: These cells are involved in the later stages of the immune response. They engulf and destroy foreign substances and dead or damaged cells. There are two main types of phagocytes: macrophages, which are large cells that reside in tissues, and neutrophils, which are small cells that circulate in the bloodstream.

They detect and destroy infected cells and tumor cells by releasing chemicals that cause them to undergo programmed cell death (apoptosis). These cells are part of the innate immune system, which provides immediate defense against a wide range of pathogens.

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Which immune cell is responsible for clearing HBV infections
T hyper lymphocyte
Neutrophil
Cytotoxic lymphocyte
Macrophage
B lymphocyte
HIV primarily infects:
All B and T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
T cytotoxic lymphocytes
Liver cells
T helper lymphocytes
Which cells are the usual site of replication of HIV?
T hyper lymphocytes
Hepatocytes
Vascular endothelium
Respiratory epithelium
The effective treatment of tuberculosis requires:
A short course of multiple anti-mycobacterial antibiotics
A long course of single antibiotic selected after sensitivity testing
A lifelong course of multiple anti-mycobacterial antibiotics
A short course of a single antibiotic selected after sensitivity testing
A long course of multiple anti-mycobacterial antibiotics
What proportion of the total global human population are estimated to be infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
<1%
11-20%
1-10%
>20%
When caring for a client with hepatitis B, the nurse should monitor closely for the development of which finding associated with a worsening decrease in hepatic function?
Fatigue during ambulation
Jaundice
Pruritus of the arms and legs
Irritability and drowsiness
What is the approximate risk of transmission of HIV infection from a man with untreated from a man with untreated HIV infection, to a women, during vaginal intercourse without a condom?
6-10%
1-5%
<1%
>10%

Answers

HBV is cleared from the blood by Cytotoxic lymphocyte. This is an important feature for the body's immune system, and this immune cell is responsible for clearing HBV infections. Most of the B lymphocytes in HIV are affected, and HIV primarily infects T helper lymphocytes which plays an important role in the immune system by stimulating the activity of other immune cells.

The primary sites of replication of HIV are the T lymphocytes. HIV is primarily transmitted through unprotected sexual contact or intravenous drug use, in which HIV-infected blood or bodily fluids are shared. In the effective treatment of tuberculosis, a long course of multiple anti-mycobacterial antibiotics is required, which means that a patient with tuberculosis needs to take antibiotics for a period of time that can range from six months to one year and even more depending on the severity of the illness.

Globally, about one-third of the total human population is estimated to be infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Jaundice is the finding associated with a worsening decrease in hepatic function that the nurse should monitor closely for in clients with hepatitis B. The approximate risk of transmission of HIV infection from a man with untreated HIV infection to a woman during vaginal intercourse without a condom is 6-10%.

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1. Here is how to start. You have to show the derived characteristic for each phylum (red) on top of the branch. Next trait is cephalization and the next animal phylum is Platyhelmintes. Next complete

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Derived characteristic for each phylum is listed below:- Porifera: It has a cellular level of organization with specialized cells. They have a pore-bearing body with no true tissue organization.

The animal's body is asymmetrical.- Cnidaria: The phylum Cnidaria is characterized by the presence of tentacles. They have a sac-like body shape with radial symmetry. They have two cell layers, the outer epidermis, and the inner gastrodermis. The gastrovascular cavity serves both as a digestive and a circulatory cavity.- Platyhelminthes: The body is flattened and the organs are located in the mesoderm. They have a bilateral symmetry body with no body cavity. Platyhelminthes have cephalization; they have a head region where the sensory organs are concentrated. They have a primitive nervous system consisting of a simple brain, two longitudinal nerve cords, and transverse nerves.

Porifera, Cnidaria, and Platyhelminthes are animal phyla that have different derived characteristics. Porifera is characterized by a cellular level of organization. Cnidaria is characterized by the presence of tentacles and a sac-like body shape with radial symmetry.

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Prompts Submitted Answers Choose a match A encodes a mutant RNA that is able to respond to a termination codon and insert an amino acid at that site Gr Choose a match А encodes a tRNA that has been mutated to recognize a different codon. By inserting a different amino acid at a mutant codon the tRNA suppresses the effect of the original mutation Choose a match ERNA synthetases use to correct insertion of an incorrect amino acid after the addition reaction has been completed Chemical proofreading A mechanism that depends on incorrect events proceeding more slowly than correct events so that incorrect events are reversed before a subunit is added to a polymeric chain The reduced specificity at the wobble position of a codon A decreases the effects of a mutation at this position. B increases the effects of a mutation at this position. has no impact on a mutation's effect at this position.

Answers

A decreases the effects of a mutation at the position.

The correct matches are: Encodes a mutant RNA that is able to respond to a termination codon and insert an amino acid at that site: A mechanism that depends on incorrect events proceeding slowly than correct events so that incorrect events are reversed before a subunit is added to a polymeric chain. Encodes a tRNA that has been mutated to recognize a different codon.

By inserting a different amino acid at a mutant codon the tRNA suppresses the effect of the original mutation: Chemical proofreading. ERNA synthetases use to correct insertion of an incorrect amino acid after the addition reaction has been allready completed:  decreases the effects of a mutation at this position. Reduced specificity at the wobble position of a codon decreases the effects of a mutation at this position.

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When you have determined your protein sequence, previously characterized sequences can be a source of tremendous insight into its evolutionary relatives, structure, and function. How would you perform an extensive sequence comparison?
Select one alternative:
1- Perform a database search for homologous sequences after introducing several modifications to my sequence to make a better fit
2- I would combine a strategy based on all the three other statements
3- Perform a database search for homologous sequences by using resourses like Blosum-62
4- Perform a database search for homologous sequences by using resourses like Basic Local Alignment Search Tool (BLAST)

Answers

When you have determined your protein sequence, a good way d. to perform an extensive sequence comparison is to perform a database search for homologous sequences by using resources like Basic Local Alignment Search Tool (BLAST).

The Basic Local Alignment Search Tool (BLAST) is a program used to identify related sequences in databases by comparing the nucleotide or protein sequences to sequences in a database. BLAST software was developed to determine the sequence similarity between two or more different sequences, allowing for functional and evolutionary relationships to be established.

In brief, the main aim of the database search for homologous sequences is to identify similar proteins or sequences from databases like NCBI or PDB and compare them with the target protein, then to analyze the output data and find out the evolutionary relatives, structure, and function of the target protein. And BLAST is one of the widely used tools for performing a database search for homologous sequences.

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Question 45 Isotopes have the same number of [a], but a different number of [b]. % Specified Answer for a proton Specified Answer for: b electron Question 46 In what two ways are components of the endomembrane system linked? (One word answer each.) (way) [way2] X Specified Answer for way1 [None Given) Specified Answer for:way2 [None Given)

Answers

Isotopes have the same number of a) protons but a different number of b) neutrons. Two ways in which components of the endomembrane system are linked are: Directly or via transport vesicles.

Isotopes are atoms of an element that have the same number of protons, but a different number of neutrons. Neutrons are important because they are what give the atomic nucleus its mass. Because isotopes have different numbers of neutrons, they have different atomic masses.

2. Two ways in which components of the endomembrane system are linked are: Directly or via transport vesicles. The endomembrane system consists of organelles like the nuclear envelope, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and plasma membrane. These organelles are structurally and functionally linked, and they help in the movement of materials within the cell.

The components of the endomembrane system are linked in two ways:

directly: Components are linked through continuous physical connection

via transport vesicles: A transport vesicle is a small sac that moves molecules between the organelles of the endomembrane system.

Molecules are moved in vesicles, which are small, spherical sacs with a lipid bilayer. Vesicles move materials between the organelles of the endomembrane system, and they also help in the movement of materials between the cell and the extracellular environment.

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Which of the following lack jaws? O Sarcopterygii O Chondrichthyes O Acanthodia Actinopterygii Petromyzontida Question 78 1.5 pts Which of the following lack jaws? O Actinopterygii O Amphibia Petromyzontida Chondrichthyes Sarcopterygii

Answers

Among the given options, Petromyzontida do not contain jaws. The correct option is option e.

Petromyzontida are basically referred to as the lampreys, which are a group which consists of jawless fish. Lampreys lack any true jaws and are basically characterized by a circular, jawless mouth with teeth like structures which are used for attaching to as well as feeding on other kinds of fish.

The other options that are listed, basically include Sarcopterygii, Chondrichthyes, Acanthodia, and Actinopterygii which are basically categorised as the jawed fishes, having mouths consisting of a true jaw.

Hence, the correct option is option e.

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Asexual reproduction passes on 100% of the parent's genes but it is relatively rare What are the advantages of sexual vs asexual reproduction? In some cases,species are hermaphrodites to reduce the difficulty in finding mates. What is the difference between simultaneous and sequential hermaphrodites?Why is"selfing"relatively rare?

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Advantages of sexual and asexual reproduction:

Sexual reproduction is an essential process for organisms as it has many advantages over asexual reproduction. Some of them include producing a diverse offspring population, increasing resistance to disease, and adaptation to changing environments.

Asexual reproduction, on the other hand, passes on 100% of the parent's genes, which can be an advantage in some cases. Organisms that reproduce asexually can reproduce much faster, and there is no need to find a mate. Furthermore, asexual reproduction is less complex than sexual reproduction. However, asexual reproduction has a significant disadvantage that it produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parent. Therefore, these offspring have the same weaknesses and strengths as the parent organism, which means they are vulnerable to the same diseases and environmental factors.

Hermaphrodites: Hermaphrodites are organisms that possess both male and female reproductive organs. Hermaphroditism is a reproductive strategy that can increase an organism's chances of finding a mate and reproducing.

Simultaneous hermaphrodites: Simultaneous hermaphrodites are organisms that possess both male and female reproductive organs at the same time.

Sequential hermaphrodites: Sequential hermaphrodites, on the other hand, are organisms that change sex over time.

Selfing: Selfing is a process where hermaphrodites can fertilize their own eggs using their own sperm. Selfing is relatively rare because it can lead to a lack of genetic diversity in the offspring population. Lack of genetic diversity makes the offspring vulnerable to environmental factors and diseases, which can limit their ability to adapt and survive in changing environments.

Therefore, the majority of hermaphrodites avoid selfing to ensure genetic diversity and produce healthy offspring.

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What are some ethical, medical, economic, and societal issues
with in vitro transcription/ translation (NOT IVF (in vitro
fertilization))? Include your references please!

Answers

In vitro transcription/ translation refers to the technology that makes it possible to synthesize proteins using cell-free methods, which can be used for a range of medical purposes. Although this technique has opened up new possibilities for medical treatments, it has raised ethical, medical, economic, and societal issues that need to be addressed.

The following are some of the issues associated with in vitro transcription/ translation:

Ethical issues: Some ethical concerns are related to the application of in vitro transcription/ translation technology to create novel proteins or engineer cells for the treatment of human diseases. Such interventions may be considered ethically questionable if they involve the creation of genetically modified organisms that may have unintended consequences.

Medical issues: In vitro transcription/ translation technology also raises medical issues. These issues include the possibility of producing toxic or allergenic proteins, which could cause harm to humans. Also, there is a risk of immunological rejection of the synthetic proteins. Additionally, the use of this technology to produce proteins for medical purposes may be expensive, which could limit access to the therapy by patients.

Economic issues: The economic impact of in vitro transcription/ translation technology is another issue to consider. The technology has the potential to generate significant economic benefits, such as creating new jobs, but it may also lead to job losses in traditional industries. Furthermore, there is a risk that the technology could lead to monopolies in the biotechnology sector.

Societal issues: In vitro transcription/ translation technology also has societal implications. These implications relate to the way the technology is developed, used, and regulated. For example, there is a need to ensure that the technology is developed in a socially responsible manner, taking into account the interests of all stakeholders. Moreover, the regulation of the technology must be carefully balanced to ensure that it does not stifle innovation or create unnecessary barriers to entry.

In conclusion, in vitro transcription/ translation technology has significant potential to revolutionize medicine and industry. However, it also raises ethical, medical, economic, and societal issues that need to be addressed. To ensure that the technology is developed and used responsibly, there is a need for careful consideration of these issues, as well as transparent and effective regulation.

References:1. Mauro, V., Shekhawat, S. S., & Kumar, P. (2018). In vitro transcription/translation system: a rapid and efficient method for protein production. In: Advances in genome science (pp. 155-171). Springer, Cham.2. Matsumoto, M., & Sakabe, N. (2019). In vitro transcription/translation systems for protein production: a current review. Bioscience, biotechnology, and biochemistry, 83(7), 1213-1222.3. Walsh, D. J., & Chang, Y. H. (2018). In vitro protein synthesis systems for functional and structural studies. Current opinion in structural biology, 51, 116-122.

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Activity: Indicate whether each statement about long-time physical effort is: true of false. T. F Regular exercise is much more profitable for the body than occasional exercise. Cardiac output is lower in peopie who exerose reguarly than in people who exercise occasionally Cells of trained people are able to consumn fes: oxygen than celle of untrained ndividuats. Museces of bpoitrmen can use aeroble rajations aluia tonger that in the rasel of untrained paple. The.condition achieved by requar plyzirs activity

Answers

Regular exercise is much more profitable for the body than occasional exercise. (True)

Cardiac output is lower in people who exercise regularly than in people who exercise occasionally. (False)

Cells of trained people are able to consume less oxygen than cells of untrained individuals. (False)

Muscles of trained people can use aerobic respiration longer than those of untrained people. (True)

Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart per unit of time, usually measured in liters per minute. During exercise, cardiac output typically increases as the demand for oxygen and nutrients in the body's tissues increases. Regular exercise can lead to improvements in cardiovascular fitness and efficiency, resulting in a more effective cardiac output at rest and during physical activity.

Aerobic respiration is a highly efficient process that produces a total of 36-38 molecules of ATP per molecule of glucose. It is the main energy source for many organisms, including humans, and allows for sustained physical activity by efficiently utilizing oxygen to generate ATP.

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pleas define three fundamental rules of replication. 31. what is the defference between Fischer mechanism and kosland mechanism ?

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Three fundamental rules of replication are mentioned below: 1. Replication should be semi-conservative: This rule states that the DNA strand should replicate such that the newly formed DNA strands contain one original strand and one new strand. It was proven by Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl in 1958.2. Replication should be bidirectional: It means that the replication of DNA should happen in both directions from the origin.

This is possible due to the opening of a replication bubble that allows DNA polymerases to synthesize in both directions simultaneously. 3. Replication should be accurate: It implies that the replication should happen with a minimum number of errors. DNA polymerases have a proofreading function to ensure the accurate replication of the genome.Now let's look at the differences between the Fischer and Kosland mechanisms:Fischer Mechanism: It is a process of glycoside hydrolysis.

The carbohydrate is broken down into simple sugar by the hydrolysis of the glycoside bond present in the molecule. Kosland Mechanism: It is a process of epimerization. In this mechanism, the stereochemistry of an asymmetric carbon atom is reversed resulting in the production of an isomer.In summary, the Fischer mechanism is involved in the hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds, while the Kosland mechanism is responsible for epimerization.

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Other Questions
Is this conclusion confirmed by the simulation when do = di = 21? * Use the rulers to record the object and image distances and calculate the magnification. Measured values: Object distance d. -62 cm A 5 cm thick iron slab is initially kept at a uniform temperature of 500 K. Both surfaces are suddenly exposed to the ambient temperature of 300 K with a heat transfer coefficient of 600 W/(mK). Here, the thermal conductivity is k=42.8 W/(mK), the specific heat cp = 503 J/(kgK), the density rho = 7320 kg/m and the thermal diffusivity = 1.16 10 m/s. Calculate the temperature at the center 2 min after the start of the cooling(20) A simple gas turbine plant operates with a single stage of compression. The air is drawn from atmosphere at a temperature of 17C, compressed isentropically with a pressure ratio of 9:1. before entering the combustion chamber. If the maximum cycle temperature of the combustion gases is 800C calculate the thermal energy added in the combustion space for a mass flow rate of 5.4 kg/s Take Cp for the combustion gas to be 1110J/Kg.K Enter your answer in whole numbers in kW "Stock 68" is selling for $45. The cost of equity is 14% and "Stock 68" just paid a $5 dividend to shareholders. Use the Constant-Growth Dividend Discount Model to solve for g and estimate the market-implied growth rate of "Stock 68"?Group of answer choicesA. 2.6%B. 1.3%C. 1.8%D. 2.1% When a Zener diode is reverse biased it a. None of the Above b. Has a constant voltage across it c. has constant current passing through d. Maintains constant resistance A vertical excavation is to be supported by an anchored sheet piling with anchor ties placed 1.5 m below the horizontal ground surface and with spacing 3.5 m center to center. The depth of excavation is 8 m and the total height of the sheet pile is 14 m. The cohesionless soil has a density of 1.90 Mg/m and an angle of friction of 30. Anchor bolt 14 m a. Compute the value of the active lateral thrust on the wall per linear meter. b. Compute the fraction of the theoretical maximum passive resistance of the total embedded length which must be mobilized for equilibrium. c. Compute the tension in the anchor bolt. 2. Show that the WKB approximation gives the energy levels of the linear harmonic oscillator correctly. Compute and plot the WKB approximation to the eigenfunctions for the ground and first excited st Solve the equation7x+1/x-2 + 2/x = -4/x-2x 1a. All of the following factors influencing on newborn/child can potentially proectagainst DM1 development EXCEPTa. Early vitamin D administrationb. Low "body mass/height" ratioc. Hygiene maintenanced. Breast feedinge. Coexistence of atopic disorders1b. Increased secretion of which of the following factors produced by fat tissue DOESNOT contribute to DM2 development:a. Angiotensinogenb. Resistinc. Adiponectind. Leptine. c + d 5. The Hall coefficient and conductivity of Cu at 400 K have been measured to be 0.45x10-10 m/As and 6.5 /ohm-meter respectively. Calculate the drift mobility of the electrons in Cu. Given that log3= 0.477, and log 5 = 0.699, find log a 15 OA. 1.176 OB. 0.228 O C. Cannot be found from the given information. OD. 0.333 A company needs a storage tank with an inner diameter of 1.2 m. The maximum working internal pressure is 1.6 MPa. The storage tank must have a cylindrical body but the heads at both ends can be hemi-spherical, elliptical, dished or flat type. The material to make the tank is steel with maximum allowable stress of 130 MPa. Determine the wall thickness of the cylinder and heads at both ends. Which type of head will you select and why? 4. Draw the following oligopeptides in their predominant ionic forms at pH 7: a. Phe-Met-Arg b. Gln-Ile-His-Thr 5. Consider the following tripeptide: Gly-Ala-Val a. What is the approximate isoelectric point? b. If Isoelectric Focusing were performed on this sample, in which direction (toward "negative" cathode or "positive" anode) will the tripeptide move at the following pH values? 1,4,10,12 6. Residues such as valine, leucine, isoleucine, methionine and phenylalanine are often found in the interior of proteins, while arginine, lysine, aspartic acid and glutamic acid are often found on the surface. Suggest a reason for this observation. Where would you expect to find glutamine, glycine and alanine? Calculate how fast (specifically, velocity and remember it is a vector) the leash is coming out of the reel. Assume: the leash is taut the entire time, your dog's collar is 1 m down and 3 m to the right of the leash reel in your hand, and your dog is running at 5 m/s in a horizontal direction. Please answer the following questions.Which are elements part of the basal promoter?What does 'polyadenylation' refer to? 1. [8 Points) Answer the following questions (a) [1 Point] Explain why a mortality model that uses the constant force assumption is not a realistic model for human mortality. (b) [2 Points] Put the fo 6- 4-stroke-four cylinders SIE has a cylinder diameter of 89 mm and piston stroke of 91mm. An experiment is done on the engine at speed of 3500 rpm, and the following reading are taken:a. Brake load when all cylinders are firing is 26 kgb. Brake load when only three cylinders are firing is 18.2 kgc. Brake constant is 2000d. Pressure drop across the air box orifice of diameter 5 cm is 10 cm HO, with discharge coefficient of 0.61e. Chemical formula of the used fuel is CHIf. Fuel density is 0.74 gm/cmg. Fuel consumption is 0.82 L during 3 minh. Rate of cooling water is 81 L in 60 seci. Temperature rise of cooling water across the engine is 8 C j. Temperature of the exhaust gases is 670 Ck. Temperature and pressure of the ambient air 300 K and 1 barCalculate:1- Heat balance of the engine (kW),2- Thermal efficiency of the engine.3- Mechanical efficiency of the engine,4- Volumetric efficiency of the engine, and5- The excess air factor. ASAP CLEARHANDWRITINGa) A section of DNA has the following sequence of bases along it ATG COC CGT ATC. What will be the complimentary mRNA base sequence? mark ATAC GCG OCA UAG B. UAC GCO GCA UAG C. TAC GCG GCA UGA D. TAC Which of the following is NOT known to be a post-translational modification required for the function of some proteins? a. Disulfide bond formation. Ob. Dehydration. W c. Phosphorylation. d. Glycosylation. Oe. N-terminal acetylation. Q7. A particle, of mass 9 kg, is attached to two identical springs. The other ends of the springs are attached to fixed points, A and B, which are 1.2 metres apart on a smooth horizontal surface. The