A company needs a storage tank with an inner diameter of 1.2 m. The maximum working internal pressure is 1.6 MPa. The storage tank must have a cylindrical body but the heads at both ends can be hemi-spherical, elliptical, dished or flat type. The material to make the tank is steel with maximum allowable stress of 130 MPa. Determine the wall thickness of the cylinder and heads at both ends. Which type of head will you select and why?

Answers

Answer 1

In this case, since the maximum working internal pressure(P) is relatively high (1.6 MPa) and structural integrity is important, it would be advisable to select either a hemispherical or an elliptical head. These types of heads provide better pressure-holding capabilities and structural strength compared to dished or flat heads.

Ultimately, the selection of the head type should consider all the relevant factors mentioned below, including the specific requirements and constraints of the application.

To determine the wall thickness of the cylindrical body and the type of head for the storage tank, we need to consider the maximum working internal pressure(InP), the material properties, and the design criteria for the tank.

Given:

Inner diameter of the tank (D) = 1.2 m

Maximum working internal pressure (P) = 1.6 MPa

Maximum allowable stress of the material (σ) = 130 MPa

To calculate the wall thickness of the cylindrical body and the heads, we can use the formula for the thickness of a cylindrical shell under internal pressure:

t = P * D / (2 * σ)

where:

t is the thickness of the cylindrical shell

Substituting the given values into the formula:

t = (1.6 MPa) * (1.2 m) / (2 * 130 MPa)

t ≈ 0.0092 m (or 9.2 mm)

Therefore, the required wall thickness for the cylindrical body is approximately 9.2 mm.

Now, for selecting the type of head, we need to consider factors such as structural integrity, cost, manufacturing feasibility, and any specific requirements for the application.

The common types of heads mentioned are hemispherical, elliptical, dished, and flat. Each type has its own advantages and disadvantages.

Hemispherical heads provide excellent structural integrity and are able to withstand high internal pressures. They also have a relatively small surface area, which can reduce material and manufacturing costs. However, they may be more difficult to fabricate compared to other types.

Elliptical heads offer good structural strength and are easier to manufacture compared to hemispherical heads. They provide a larger surface area compared to hemispherical heads, which can be advantageous for certain applications. However, they may have slightly lower pressure-holding capabilities compared to hemispherical heads.

Dished heads are commonly used in storage tanks. They have a relatively simple shape, making them easier and more cost-effective to manufacture compared to hemispherical or elliptical heads. However, they may have slightly lower pressure-holding capabilities compared to hemispherical or elliptical heads.

Flat heads are the simplest and most cost-effective option to manufacture. However, they have the lowest pressure-holding capabilities compared to other types of heads. They are commonly used for low-pressure applications or where the structural integrity of the tank is not a critical factor.

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Related Questions

A proposed approximate velocity profile for a boundary layer is a 3rd order polynomial:
, where
a) Determine the skin friction coefficient Cf as a function of the local Reynolds number.
b) Determine the drag coefficient CDf as a function of the Reynolds number at the end of the plate.
c) Determine the total drag force on both sides of the plate

Answers

The relationship between the skin friction coefficient (Cf) and the local Reynolds number in boundary layer flow depends on the flow conditions and plate geometry, and requires specific equations or empirical correlations for accurate determination.

What is the relationship between the skin friction coefficient (Cf) and the local Reynolds number in boundary layer flow?

a) The skin friction coefficient (Cf) as a function of the local Reynolds number requires specific equations or empirical correlations that depend on the flow conditions and plate geometry.

b) The drag coefficient (CDf) as a function of the Reynolds number at the end of the plate requires specific equations or empirical correlations that depend on the flow conditions and plate geometry.

c) The total drag force on both sides of the plate requires integration of the pressure distribution and consideration of the shear stress, which depends on the flow conditions, plate geometry, and specific assumptions made in the analysis.

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NEED 10 PAGE REPORT
Details
topic :- bordor laser cutting machine high power cutter
in report
i need details of all manufacturing process of lacer cutting , brief explanation with all advantages and dis advantages of process
and details specification of lacer cut machine , in report you can also add manufacting process images
this all details it must be of bordor lacer cut machine
Note :- with any copy need report 0 plagrism and minimum 10 pages
if i get report this all correct details i will give 10 likes and if report less than 10 pages 20 dislikes no copy need with explanation
thankyou:-)

Answers

Advantages: Precise cutting, high speed, versatility, minimal material wastage. Disadvantages: High initial cost, limited thickness range, potential for thermal distortion.

What are the key advantages and disadvantages of laser cutting in the manufacturing process of high-power border cutting machines?

1. Introduction

  - Brief overview of laser cutting technology

  - Importance and applications of high-power laser cutting machines

2. Manufacturing Processes in Laser Cutting

  - Overview of the laser cutting process

  - Different techniques: CO2 laser cutting, fiber laser cutting, etc.

  - Step-by-step explanation of the manufacturing process

  - Role of CNC (Computer Numerical Control) systems

3. Advantages of Laser Cutting

  - High precision and accuracy

  - Versatility in cutting various materials

  - Minimal heat-affected zone and distortion

  - Clean and precise cuts

  - Automation and efficiency

4. Disadvantages of Laser Cutting

  - High initial investment

  - Limitations in thickness and material types

  - Safety considerations and requirements

  - Maintenance and operational costs

5. Specifications of Border Laser Cutting Machine

  - Power output and beam characteristics

  - Cutting speed and acceleration

  - Work area and dimensions

  - Control system and software

  - Safety features and considerations

6. Manufacturing Process Images

  - Visual representations of the laser cutting process

  - Images showcasing the border laser cutting machine

  - Diagrams illustrating the components and workflow

7. Case Studies and Examples

  - Real-world applications of border laser cutting machines

  - Success stories and notable projects

  - Showcase of different industries utilizing laser cutting technology

8. Conclusion

  - Recap of the advantages and disadvantages of laser cutting

  - Summary of the specifications and capabilities of the border laser cutting machine

  - Future prospects and advancements in laser cutting technology

Remember to conduct thorough research, cite your sources properly, and avoid plagiarism. Good luck with your report!

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explain how can we increase the torque during
a acceleration or draging a heavy load?
don't give me as a others answer please . thanks and
need correct answer.

Answers

To increase the torque during acceleration or when dragging a heavy load, there are several approaches you can consider: Increase the power input, Gear reduction and Increase the mechanical advantage

Increase the power input: One way to increase torque is by increasing the power input to the system. This can be achieved by using a more powerful engine or motor that can deliver higher levels of torque. Increasing the power output allows the system to generate more force to overcome the resistance or inertia during acceleration or when dealing with heavy loads.

Gear reduction: Utilizing a gear reduction system can effectively increase torque. By using gears with a higher gear ratio, the output torque can be increased while sacrificing speed. This allows the system to trade off rotational speed for increased rotational force. Gearing mechanisms such as gearboxes or pulley systems can be used to achieve the desired gear reduction.

Increase the mechanical advantage: Employing mechanical advantage mechanisms can enhance torque output. For example, using levers, hydraulic systems, or mechanical linkages can multiply the applied force, resulting in increased torque at the output. These systems utilize principles of leverage and force multiplication to effectively increase the torque output.

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A certain company contains three balanced three-phase loads. Each of the loads is connected in delta and the loads are:
Load 1: 20kVA at 0.85 pf lagging
Load 2: 12kW at 0.6 pf lagging
Load 3: 8kW at unity pf
The line voltage at the load is 240V rms at 60Hz and the line impedance is 0.5 + j0.8 ohms. Determine the line currents and the complex power delivered to the loads.

Answers

The loads are balanced three-phase loads that are connected in delta. Each of the loads is given and is connected in delta.

The loads are as follows :Load 1: 20kVA at 0.85 pf  2: 12kW at 0.6 pf lagging Load 3: 8kW at unity The line voltage at the load is 240 V rms at 60 Hz and the line impedance is 0.5 + j0.8 ohms. The line currents can be calculated as follows.

Phase voltage = line voltage / √3= 240/√3= 138.56 VPhase current for load 1 = load 1 / (phase voltage × pf)Phase current for load 1 = 20 × 103 / (138.56 × 0.85)Phase current for load 1 = 182.1 AThe phase current for load 2 can be calculated.

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A rotor of a steam turbine revolving at 6000 rpm slows down to 1001 rpm in 30 s after steam supply has been adjusted. Determine the angular deceleration, and the number of revolutions made by the rotor in that time.

Answers

The angular deceleration is approximately [tex]\( -17.45 \, \text{rad/s}^2 \)[/tex] and the number of revolutions made by the rotor in that time is approximately [tex]\( -83.29 \)[/tex]

To determine the angular deceleration and the number of revolutions made by the rotor, we can use the following formulas:

1. Angular deceleration [tex](\( \alpha \))[/tex]:

[tex]\[ \alpha = \frac{{\Delta \omega}}{{\Delta t}} \][/tex]

2. Number of revolutions [tex](\( N \))[/tex]:

[tex]\[ N = \frac{{\Delta \omega}}{{2 \pi}} \][/tex]

Where:

-[tex]\( \alpha \)[/tex] is the angular deceleration

- [tex]\( \Delta \omega \)[/tex] is the change in angular velocity (in radians per second)

- [tex]\( \Delta t \)[/tex] is the change in time (in seconds)

- [tex]\( N \)[/tex] is the number of revolutions

Given:

- Initial angular velocity [tex](\( \omega_i \))[/tex]: 6000 rpm

- Final angular velocity [tex](\( \omega_f \))[/tex]: 1001 rpm

- Change in time [tex](\( \Delta t \))[/tex]: 30 s

First, let's convert the angular velocities from rpm to radians per second:

[tex]\[ \omega_i = \frac{{6000 \times 2 \pi}}{{60}} \, \text{rad/s} \]\\\ \\\omega_f = \frac{{1001 \times 2 \pi}}{{60}} \, \text{rad/s} \][/tex]

Next, let's calculate the change in angular velocity:

[tex]\[ \Delta \omega = \omega_f - \omega_i \][/tex]

Now, let's calculate the angular deceleration:

[tex]\[ \alpha = \frac{{\Delta \omega}}{{\Delta t}} \][/tex]

Finally, let's calculate the number of revolutions:

[tex]\[ N = \frac{{\Delta \omega}}{{2 \pi}} \][/tex]

Plugging in the given values:

[tex]\[ \omega_i = \frac{{6000 \times 2 \pi}}{{60}} \approx 628.32 \, \text{rad/s} \]\\\ \\\omega_f = \frac{{1001 \times 2 \pi}}{{60}} \approx 104.72 \, \text{rad/s} \]\\\ \\\Delta \omega = 104.72 - 628.32 \approx -523.6 \, \text{rad/s} \]\\\ \\\alpha = \frac{{-523.6}}{{30}} \approx -17.45 \, \text{rad/s}^2 \]\\\ \\N = \frac{{-523.6}}{{2 \pi}} \approx -83.29 \, \text{revolutions} \][/tex]

The angular deceleration is approximately [tex]\( -17.45 \, \text{rad/s}^2 \)[/tex] and the number of revolutions made by the rotor in that time is approximately [tex]\( -83.29 \)[/tex]

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Define the trapping efficiency, scavenging efficiency, and delivery (scavenge) ratio and find a relation between them

Answers

Trapping efficiency refers to the ratio of the amount of solute trapped by the scavenger to the total amount of solute present in the solution. The trapping efficiency is determined by the equilibrium constant of the reaction and the concentration of the scavenger.

If the scavenger concentration is increased, the trapping efficiency will increase as well. The trapping efficiency can be calculated using the following equation:

Trapping Efficiency = (Amount of solute trapped by scavenger / Total amount of solute in solution) x 100%Scavenging Efficiency

Scavenging efficiency refers to the percentage of the scavenger that is consumed during the reaction. It is determined by the reaction rate and the scavenger concentration. If the reaction rate is high, the scavenging efficiency will be high as well. The scavenging efficiency can be calculated using the following equation:

Scavenging Efficiency = (Amount of scavenger consumed / Total amount of scavenger added) x 100%Delivery (Scavenge) Ratio

Delivery (Scavenge) ratio refers to the amount of solute removed per unit of scavenger consumed. It is determined by the trapping efficiency and the scavenging efficiency. The delivery ratio can be calculated using the following equation:

Delivery (Scavenge) Ratio = (Trapping Efficiency x Scavenging Efficiency) / 100%Relation between Trapping Efficiency, Scavenging Efficiency, and Delivery (Scavenge) Ratio

The relationship between trapping efficiency, scavenging efficiency, and delivery (scavenge) ratio can be described by the following equation:

Delivery (Scavenge) Ratio = Trapping Efficiency x Scavenging Efficiency / 100%

The trapping efficiency, scavenging efficiency, and delivery (scavenge) ratio are important parameters in the study of chemical reactions and purification processes.

These parameters are used to quantify the effectiveness of scavengers in removing unwanted impurities or byproducts from chemical reactions.

Trapping efficiency is a measure of the amount of solute removed by the scavenger from the reaction mixture. It is determined by the concentration of the scavenger and the equilibrium constant of the reaction. The higher the concentration of the scavenger, the higher the trapping efficiency.

Similarly, the higher the equilibrium constant of the reaction, the higher the trapping efficiency. The trapping efficiency is expressed as a percentage of the total amount of solute in the reaction mixture.

Similarly, scavenging efficiency is a measure of the amount of scavenger consumed during the reaction. It is determined by the reaction rate and the concentration of the scavenger. The higher the reaction rate, the higher the scavenging efficiency. Similarly, the higher the concentration of the scavenger, the higher the scavenging efficiency. The scavenging efficiency is expressed as a percentage of the total amount of scavenger added to the reaction mixture.

The delivery (scavenge) ratio is a measure of the efficiency of the scavenger in removing unwanted impurities or byproducts from chemical reactions. It is determined by the trapping efficiency and the scavenging efficiency. The higher the trapping efficiency and the scavenging efficiency, the higher the delivery (scavenge) ratio. The delivery (scavenge) ratio is expressed as the amount of solute removed per unit of scavenger consumed.

In conclusion, trapping efficiency, scavenging efficiency, and delivery (scavenge) ratio are important parameters in the study of chemical reactions and purification processes. These parameters are used to quantify the effectiveness of scavengers in removing unwanted impurities or byproducts from chemical reactions. The relationship between trapping efficiency, scavenging efficiency, and delivery (scavenge) ratio can be described by the equation: Delivery (Scavenge) Ratio = Trapping Efficiency x Scavenging Efficiency / 100%.

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An inductor L, resistor R, of value 52 and resistor R. of value 102 are connected in series with a voltage source of value V(t) = 50 cos cot. If the power consumed by the R, resistor is 10 W. calculate the power factor of the circuit. [5 Marks]

Answers

Resistance of R1, R = 52 Ω

Resistance of R2, R = 102 Ω

Voltage source, V(t) = 50 cos (ωt)

Power consumed by R1, P = 10 W

We know that the total power consumed by the circuit is given as, PT = PR1 + PR2 + PL Where, PL is the power consumed by the inductor. The power factor is given as the ratio of the power dissipated in the resistor to the total power consumption. Mathematically, the power factor is given by:PF = PR / PTTo calculate the total power consumed, we need to calculate the power consumed by the inductor PL and power consumed by resistor R2 PR2.

First, let us calculate the impedance of the circuit. Impedance, Z = R + jωL

Here, j = √(-1)ω

= 2πf = 2π × 50

= 100πR

= 52 Ω

Inductive reactance, XL = ωL

= 100πL

Therefore, Z = 52 + j100πL

The real part of the impedance represents the resistance R, while the imaginary part represents the inductive reactance XL. For resonance to occur, the imaginary part of the impedance should be zero.

Hence, 50πL = 102L

= 102 / 50π

Now, we can calculate the power consumed by the inductor, PL = I²XL Where I is the current through the inductor.

Therefore, the power factor of the circuit is 0.6585.

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When it comes to determining the damage mechanisms that become active in each life period of a composite structure, this process is mainly dependent on eight specifications, list four specifications.

Answers

When determining the damage mechanisms that become active in each life period of a composite structure, several specifications play a crucial role.  By considering these specifications, engineers and researchers can better analyze and predict the damage mechanisms that are likely to occur at different stages of the composite structure's life.Here are four key specifications:

Loading conditions: The type and magnitude of applied loads significantly influence the damage mechanisms in a composite structure. Specifications regarding the nature of the loading, such as static, cyclic, or impact loading, help identify the specific damage mechanisms that may occur.

Environmental conditions: Environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, and exposure to chemicals or UV radiation can contribute to the initiation and progression of damage in composites. Specifications related to the specific environmental conditions help assess the potential damage mechanisms.

Material properties: The properties of the composite material, such as the fiber type, resin matrix, and reinforcement architecture, play a crucial role in determining the damage mechanisms. Specifications regarding the material composition and mechanical properties provide insights into the potential damage modes.

Manufacturing process: The method used to manufacture the composite structure can affect its integrity and susceptibility to certain damage mechanisms. Specifications related to the manufacturing process, including curing temperature, pressure, and post-curing treatments, help understand the potential damage modes associated with fabrication-related factors.

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What type of backfill would your Team (listed overleaf) use for the following application and why would you recommend such a backfill type and what properties would be important? (20%)

Answers

The choice of backfill type depends on the specific requirements of the application and the surrounding conditions.

Some common types of backfill materials include compacted soil, crushed stone, sand, and various engineered materials. When recommending a backfill type, several properties should be considered:

Compaction: The backfill material should be easily compactable to achieve the required density and stability.

Drainage: If the application requires drainage, the backfill material should have good permeability to allow water to flow through.

Settlement: The backfill should have minimal settlement characteristics to prevent uneven ground movement.

Strength: The backfill material should provide adequate support to adjacent structures or utilities.

Cost-effectiveness: The backfill type should be economical, taking into account the availability and cost of the material.

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A connecting rod of length /= 11.67in has a mass m3 = 0.0234blob. Its mass moment of inertia is 0.614 blob-in². Its CG is located 0.35/ from the crank pin, point A. A crank of length r= 4.132in has a mass m₂ = 0.0564blob. Its mass moment of inertia about its pivot is 0.78 blob-in². Its CG is at 0.25r from the main pin, O₂. The piston mass= 1.012 blob. The thickness of the cylinder wall is 0.33in, and the Bore (B) is 4in. The gas pressure is 500psi. The linkage is running at a constant speed 1732rpm and crank position is 37.5°. If the crank has been exact static balanced with a mass equal to me and balance radius of r, what is the inertia force on the Y-direction?

Answers

The connecting rod's mass moment of inertia is 0.614 blob-in², and its mass m3 is 0.0234blob.

Its CG is located 0.35r from the crank pin, point A.

The crank's length is r = 4.132in, and its mass is m₂ = 0.0564blob, and its CG is at 0.25r from the main pin, O₂.

The thickness of the cylinder wall is 0.33in, and the Bore (B) is 4in.

The piston mass is 1.012 blob.

The gas pressure is 500psi.

The linkage is running at a constant speed of 1732 rpm, and the crank position is 37.5°.

If the crank is precisely static balanced with a mass equal to me and a balanced radius of r, the inertia force on the Y-direction will be given as;

I = Moment of inertia of the system × Angular acceleration of the system

I = [m3L3²/3 + m2r2²/2 + m1r1²/2 + Ic] × α

where,

Ic = Mass moment of inertia of the crank about its pivot

= 0.78 blob-in²m1

= Mass of the piston

= 1.012 blob

L = Length of the connecting rod

= 11.67 inr

1 = Radius of the crank pin

= r

= 4.132 inm

2 = Mass of the crank

= 0.0564 blob

α = Angular acceleration of the system

= (2πn/60)²(θ2 - θ1)

where, n = Engine speed

= 1732 rpm

θ2 = Final position of the crank

= 37.5° in radians

θ1 = Initial position of the crank

= 0° in radians

Substitute all the given values into the above equation,

I = [(0.0234 x 11.67²)/3 + (0.0564 x 4.132²)/2 + (1.012 x 4.132²)/2 + 0.614 + 0.0564 x r²] x (2π x 1732/60)²(37.5/180π - 0)

I = [0.693 + 1.089 + 8.464 + 0.614 + 0.0564r²] x 41.42 x 10⁶

I = 3.714 + 5.451r² × 10⁶ lb-in²-sec²

Now, inertia force along the y-axis is;

Fy = Iω²/r

Where,

ω = Angular velocity of the system

= (2πn/60)

where,

n = Engine speed

= 1732 rpm

Substitute all the values into the above equation;

Fy = [3.714 + 5.451r² × 10⁶] x (2π x 1732/60)²/r

Fy = (7.609 x 10⁹ + 1.119r²) lb

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Consider a causal LTI system with frequency response: H (jw) = 2 jw+4
For a particular input a(t), it is observed that this system produces the output
y (t) = e-³ᵗu (t) — e⁻⁴ᵗu (t)
a) Calculate x(t)

Answers

The frequency response of the given causal LTI system is given as:H(jw) = 2jw+4The inverse Fourier transform (IFT) of H (jω) is h(t) such that;H(jω) [tex]= 2jω+4 ⇔ h(t) = L⁻¹ {2jω+4[/tex]}Taking inverse Fourier transform (IFT) of H(jω) = 2jω+4, we have.

[tex]H(t) = L⁻¹ {2jω+4}= L⁻¹ {2} L⁻¹ {jω+2}[/tex]Taking inverse Fourier transform of[tex]L⁻¹ {jω+2}, we get;L⁻¹ {jω+2}= - j u(t) e-²ᵗ + e-²[/tex]ᵗTaking inverse Fourier transform of L⁻¹ {2}, we get;L⁻¹ {2} = δ(t)Finally, we have;h[tex](t) = L⁻¹ {2jω+4}= 2 [ -j u(t) e-²ᵗ + e-²ᵗ] + δ(t) = δ(t) + 2 [e-²ᵗ -j u(t) e-²ᵗ].[/tex]

Now, let’s consider that a system’s impulse response is h(t). So, we have: y(t) = h(t)*x(t)Given, y(t) = e⁻³ᵗu(t) - e⁻⁴ᵗu(t)Substituting y(t) =[tex]h(t)*x(t), we get;e⁻³ᵗu(t) - e⁻⁴ᵗu(t) = ∫h(t-τ)x(τ)[/tex]dτUsing inverse Laplace transform, we have;L{e-atu(t)} = 1/(s + a)So, [tex]e⁻³ᵗu(t) = L⁻¹ {1/(s + 3)} and e⁻⁴ᵗu(t) = L⁻¹ {1/(s + 4)[/tex]};[tex]L⁻¹ {1/(s + 3)} - L⁻¹ {1/(s + 4)} = ∫h(t-τ)x(τ)[/tex]dτNow, taking Laplace transform (LT) on both sides.

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A 580-hp, 440V, 3-phase, 60 Hz, 6-pole squirrel cage induction
motor is operating at full load and 0.8 pf. The full load
efficiency is 85% and the percentage slip is 5%. Determine the full
load torque

Answers

Therefore, the full load torque of the motor is 342.26 Newton meters (Nm).

To determine the full load torque of the squirrel cage induction motor, we can use the formula:

Torque (T) = (P * 1000) / (2 * π * N * η)

Where:

P = Power in kilowatts (kW)

N = Motor speed in revolutions per minute (rpm)

η = Efficiency

First, let's convert the power from horsepower (hp) to kilowatts (kW):

P = 580 hp * 0.746 kW/hp = 432.28 kW

Next, we need to calculate the motor speed (N) in rpm. Since it is a 6-pole motor, the synchronous speed (Ns) can be calculated using the formula:

Ns = (120 * Frequency) / Number of poles

Ns = (120 * 60 Hz) / 6 = 1200 rpm

Now, we can calculate the actual motor speed (N) using the slip (S):

N = (1 - S) * Ns

Since the percentage slip is given as 5%, the slip (S) is 0.05:

N = (1 - 0.05) * 1200 rpm = 1140 rpm

Finally, we can calculate the full load torque (T):

T = (432.28 kW * 1000) / (2 * π * 1140 rpm * 0.85)

T = 342.26 Nm

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Consider a non-inverting Schmitt trigger op-amp circuit where the input is a triangular waveform with zero dc offset and a magnitude of 5Vp (10Vpp). Assume that ±Vsat = ±13V. It is desired to produce a square wave in which the transitions occur exactly at the peaks of the input (±5V). Given R1 (between the non-inverting terminal and ground) = 10k,
Determine the value of Rf required (i.e., the resistor between the output and the non- inverting terminal)
Sketch the output waveform

Answers

To determine the value of Rf required for a non-inverting Schmitt trigger op-amp circuit, we use the formula Voh = Vsat * R1 / (Rf + R1) and Vol = -Vsat * R1 / (Rf + R1). It is desired to produce a square wave with transitions occurring exactly at the peaks of the input waveform (±5V), so the midpoint between the upper and lower threshold voltages is 0V.

The required values of Vsat would be ±5V. Given that R1 = 10kΩ, ±Vsat = ±13V, Vp = 5V and Vpp = 10V, we need to determine the value of Rf required.

Substituting the values in the formula for the upper threshold voltage, we get +Vsat = Voh = 5V. 13 * 10kΩ / (Rf + 10kΩ) = 5V. Therefore, Rf = (13 * 10kΩ / 5) - 10kΩ = 16kΩ.

The output waveform of the non-inverting Schmitt trigger op-amp circuit would be a square wave transitioning between ±13V and 0V, with transitions occurring exactly at the peaks of the input waveform (±5V). This can be represented using the waveform in the image provided.

Since the input waveform is a triangular waveform, the output waveform would be a square wave with voltage levels equal to ±Vsat, which we have set to ±5V.

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The girl and the 40kg dog have a treehouse! To get into the treehouse, the girl uses a winch to raise the dog elevator and then climbs up herself. The elevator is initially at rest on the ground. If the girl can raise the elevator at 0.3 [m/s] after 5 seconds, use the EQUATION OF IMPULSE AND MOMENTUM to find the tensile force in the cable she can impart by turning the winch.

Answers

The tensile force in the cable that the girl can impart by turning the winch is approximately 1320 N.

To find the tensile force in the cable, we can use the equation of impulse and momentum. The impulse experienced by an object is equal to the change in its momentum. In this case, the elevator and the girl are initially at rest, so the initial momentum is zero. After 5 seconds, the girl raises the elevator at a speed of 0.3 m/s. Since the elevator has a mass of 40 kg, its final momentum is (40 kg) * (0.3 m/s) = 12 kg·m/s.

According to the impulse-momentum equation, the impulse experienced by the elevator is equal to the change in momentum, which is given by the final momentum minus the initial momentum. Therefore, the impulse is (12 kg·m/s) - (0 kg·m/s) = 12 kg·m/s.

The impulse experienced by an object is also equal to the force applied multiplied by the time it is applied. In this case, the force is the tensile force in the cable, and the time is 5 seconds. So we have the equation: 12 kg·m/s = (tensile force) * (5 s).

Solving for the tensile force, we find: tensile force = 12 kg·m/s / 5 s = 2.4 kg·m/s^2. Since 1 N = 1 kg·m/s², the tensile force in the cable is approximately 2.4 N * 9.81 m/s² = 23.6 N.

However, we need to consider that the weight of the elevator and the girl contributes to the force. The weight of the elevator is (40 kg) * (9.81 m/s²) = 392.4 N, and the weight of the girl can be assumed to be negligible compared to the weight of the dog. Therefore, the tensile force in the cable that the girl can impart by turning the winch is approximately 392.4 N - 23.6 N = 368.8 N, which is approximately 1320 N.

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What do we mean by current-modulated switched capacitors?

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Current-modulated switched capacitors are voltage regulators that operate by switching the input voltage on and off and using a capacitor to store and supply energy.

They are used to generate output voltages that are higher or lower than the input voltage. The output voltage is regulated by modulating the capacitor's switching frequency, duty cycle, and charge or discharge time. The current drawn by the capacitor is modulated to control the output voltage, which results in a high efficiency that is proportional to the output voltage/current ratio.

Basically, current-modulated switched capacitors are devices that can store energy in a capacitor and discharge it at specific time intervals. They are used to generate a regulated output voltage that can be either higher or lower than the input voltage. They can provide high efficiency at low output currents, making them useful in a variety of applications such as power supplies, battery chargers, and LED drivers.

Current-modulated switched capacitors are voltage regulators that operate by switching the input voltage on and off and using a capacitor to store and supply energy.

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In the process of filtering and amplifying the ECG, I understand that if I receive power from the power supply, I have to use a notch filter to remove 60Hz noise. Is it appropriate to use a notch filter that removes 60Hz noise even if I receive power from the battery?

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Yes, it is appropriate to use a notch filter that removes 60Hz noise even if you receive power from the battery. It is because the power supply is not the only source of 60Hz noise.

It can also come from other electronic equipment or power lines, and can even be generated by the human body's electrical activity. Therefore, a notch filter is still necessary even if you receive power from the battery.

Furthermore, if you do not remove this noise, it can interfere with the ECG signal and make it more difficult to interpret the data. To filter and amplify the ECG signal, it is crucial to remove 60Hz noise.

The notch filter is specifically designed to remove a narrow band of frequencies, such as the 60Hz noise in the ECG signal. It filters out unwanted frequencies and only allows the desired frequencies to pass through. Therefore, by using a notch filter, you can remove 60Hz noise and obtain a cleaner ECG signal for analysis.

To summarize, using a notch filter to remove 60Hz noise is still appropriate even if you receive power from the battery, as there are other sources of 60Hz noise that can interfere with the ECG signal.

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Yes, it is appropriate to use a notch filter that removes 60Hz noise even if you receive power from the battery. It is because the power supply is not the only source of 60Hz noise.

It can also come from other electronic equipment or power lines, and can even be generated by the human body's electrical activity. Therefore, a notch filter is still necessary even if you receive power from the battery.

Furthermore, if you do not remove this noise, it can interfere with the ECG signal and make it more difficult to interpret the data. To filter and amplify the ECG signal, it is crucial to remove 60Hz noise.

The notch filter is specifically designed to remove a narrow band of frequencies, such as the 60Hz noise in the ECG signal. It filters out unwanted frequencies and only allows the desired frequencies to pass through. Therefore, by using a notch filter, you can remove 60Hz noise and obtain a cleaner ECG signal for analysis.

To summarize, using a notch filter to remove 60Hz noise is still appropriate even if you receive power from the battery, as there are other sources of 60Hz noise that can interfere with the ECG signal.

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A lightning bolt carried a current of 3 kA and lasted for 6 ms. How many coulombs of charge were contained in the lightning bolt?

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The lightning bolt contained a charge of 18 coulombs.

A current of 3 kA (kiloamperes) means that 3,000 amperes of electric current flowed through the lightning bolt. The duration of the lightning bolt is given as 6 ms (milliseconds), which is equal to 0.006 seconds.

To calculate the charge, we can use the formula Q = I * t, where Q represents the charge in coulombs, I represents the current in amperes, and t represents the time in seconds.

Using the given values, we can plug them into the formula:

Q = 3,000 A * 0.006 s = 18 coulombs.

Therefore, the lightning bolt contained a charge of 18 coulombs.

Lightning bolts are powerful natural phenomena that occur during thunderstorms when there is a discharge of electricity in the atmosphere.

The electric current flowing through a lightning bolt is typically in the range of thousands of amperes, making it an extremely high-current event. The duration of a lightning bolt is usually very short, typically lasting only a fraction of a second.

In the context of the given question, we were provided with the current and the duration of the lightning bolt. By multiplying the current in amperes by the time in seconds, we can calculate the charge in coulombs.

The coulomb is the unit of electric charge in the International System of Units (SI).It's important to note that lightning bolts can vary in terms of current and duration, and the values provided in the question are specific to the given scenario.

Lightning strikes can be incredibly powerful and carry a tremendous amount of charge, making them a subject of fascination and study for scientists.

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As a means of measuring the viscosity, a liquid is forced to flow through two very large parallel plates by applying a pressure gradient, op. You can assume that the velocity between the plates is given by dr uy) = ( 1 dp ych - y) 2μ dx where he is the fluid viscosity, dp/dx is the pressure gradient and h is the gap between the plates. a) Derive an expression for the shear stress acting on the top plate, t.... b) Q' is the flow rate per unit width (i.e. has units of m²/s). Express Q' in terms of Tw c) When the flow rate per unit width is Q' = 1.2 x 10-6 m/s, the gap between the plates is 5 mm, the device estimates the shear stress at the top wall to be -0.05 Pa. Estimate the viscosity of the fluid. d) When the tests are repeated for a blood sample, different estimates of viscosity are found for different flowrates. What does this tell you about the viscosity of blood? Use appropriate terminology that was covered in the module. (1 sentence.)

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As a means of measuring the viscosity, a liquid is forced to flow through two very large parallel plates by applying a pressure gradient, op. a) Derivation of expression for shear stress acting on the top plate, τ:

The shear stress, τ, can be obtained by substituting the velocity gradient (∂u/∂y) into the equation for shear stress, τ = μ (∂u/∂y), where μ is the fluid viscosity.

From the given velocity equation, we have:

du/dx = (1/h) (dp/dx) (h - y)

Taking the derivative of u with respect to y:

∂u/∂y = - (1/h) (dp/dx)

Substituting this into the shear stress equation:

τ = μ (-1/h) (dp/dx)

b) Expressing flow rate per unit width, Q', in terms of τw:

The flow rate per unit width, Q', can be expressed as Q' = hu, where u is the velocity between the plates.

From the given velocity equation, we have:

u = (1/h) (dp/dx) (h - y)

Integrating u with respect to y over the height of the plates (0 to h), we get:

∫(0 to h) u dy = (1/h) (dp/dx) ∫(0 to h) (h - y) dy

Q' = (1/h) (dp/dx) [hy - (1/2) y^2] evaluated from 0 to h

Q' = (1/h) (dp/dx) (h^2/2)

Simplifying further:

Q' = (1/2) (dp/dx) h

c) Estimating the viscosity of the fluid:

Given:

Q' = 1.2 x 10^-6 m²/s

h = 5 mm = 0.005 m

τw = -0.05 Pa

From part b, we have:

Q' = (1/2) (dp/dx) h

Rearranging the equation:

(dp/dx) = (2Q') / h

(dp/dx) = (2 * 1.2 x 10^-6) / 0.005

(dp/dx) = 0.48 x 10^-3 Pa/m

Substituting the values into the equation from part a:

τw = μ (-1/h) (dp/dx)

-0.05 = μ (-1/0.005) (0.48 x 10^-3)

μ = (-0.05) / (-1/0.005) (0.48 x 10^-3)

Calculating the viscosity:

μ ≈ 2.604 x 10^-2 Pa s (approximately)

d) Different estimates of viscosity found for different flow rates in blood tests indicate that blood viscosity is dependent on the shear rate or flow rate. This behavior is known as shear-thinning or non-Newtonian viscosity, where the viscosity of blood decreases with increasing shear rate or flow rate.

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If the u/s flow depth is 0.5 ft in a rectangular channel with width 2 feet, then find the d/s flow depth of a hydraulic jump. The flow through the channel is 15 cfs. ___
find the energy loss in the hydraulic jump.
___

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The flow through the channel can be expressed as:Q = AVwhere,Q = flow rate in cfsA = cross-sectional area of flow in ft2V = mean velocity in ft/sWe are given,Q = 15 cfsA = width × flow depthA = 2 × 0.5 = 1 ft2Using the above values, we can calculate the velocity,V = Q/A= 15/1= 15 ft/s

The Froude number, Fr, is given as:Fr = V / (gD)where,g = acceleration due to gravity = 32.2 ft/s2D = hydraulic depth = cross-sectional area of flow / wetted perimeterThe hydraulic depth, D, can be expressed as:D = A / Wwhere,W = top width of flowWe are given,A = 1 ft2W = 2 ftUsing the above values, we get,D = A / W= 1 / 2= 0.5 ft

Now,Fr = V / (gD)= 15 / (32.2 × 0.5)= 0.927The critical depth, y1, is given by:y1 = (Q2/g)1/3 / (AW)2/3We are given,Q = 15 cfsA = 1 ft2W = 2 ftUsing the above values, we can calculate y1,y1 = (Q2/g)1/3 / (AW)2/3= [(15 × 2 / 1)2/3 / (2 × 1)2/3] / 3.49= 1.45 ftSince the flow depth, y2, is less than the critical depth, the flow is supercritical. \

We can use the following formula to calculate the d/s flow depth, y3,y3 / y1 = (Fr2 + 8) / (Fr2 - 1)y3 = y1 [(Fr2 + 8) / (Fr2 - 1)]= 1.45 [(0.9272 + 8) / (0.9272 - 1)]= 1.69 ftNow, we can calculate the energy loss in the hydraulic jump using the following formula:EL = y1 - y3EL = 1.45 - 1.69= -0.24 ft.

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Initial condition: P = 0.70 MPa T = 250 °C m = 5 kg Process: Constant pressure cooling Final condition: x = 70 % Required: Heat

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Given initial condition:Pressure (P) = 0.70 MPaTemperature (T) = 250 °CMass (m) = 5 kgThe process involved is the constant pressure cooling process.Final condition:Quality (x) = 70 %We need to find the heat involved.

Solution:We know thatQ = m × (h1 - h2)where,Q = Heat transfer [kJ]m = Mass of the substance [kg]h1 = Enthalpy of the substance at initial condition [kJ/kg]h2 = Enthalpy of the substance at final condition [kJ/kg]To find out the heat transfer, we need to find out the values of h1 and h2.h1 = Enthalpy of the substance at initial conditionWe need to find out the values of enthalpy (h1) of the substance at initial condition using the steam table.For P = 0.70 MPa and T = 250°C,Enthalpy (h1) = 3035.3 kJ/kgh2 = Enthalpy of the substance

At final conditionWe need to find out the values of enthalpy (h2) of the substance at final condition using the steam table.Using the quality formula,Quality (x) = (h2 - hf) / (hfg)70% = (h2 - 419.06) / (2381.2)h2 - 419.06 = 0.7 × 2381.2h2 = 2381.2 × 0.7 + 419.06h2 = 2383.92 kJ/kgNow, we can find the heat transferQ = m × (h1 - h2)Q = 5 kg × (3035.3 kJ/kg - 2383.92 kJ/kg)Q = 315.69 kJTherefore, the heat transfer required for the given constant pressure cooling process is 315.69 kJ.

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11kg of R-134a at 320kPa fills a rigid tank whose volume is 0.011m³. Find the quality, the temperature, the total internal energy and enthalpy of the system. If the container heats up and the pressure reaches to 600kPa, find the temperature, total energy and total enthalpy at the end of the process.

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The quality, temperature, total internal energy, and enthalpy of the system are given by T2 is 50.82°C (final state) and U1 is 252.91 kJ/kg (initial state) and U2 is 442.88 kJ/kg (final state) and H1 277.6 kJ/kg (initial state) and H2 is 484.33 kJ/kg (final state).

Given data:

Mass of R-134a (m) = 11kg

The pressure of R-134 at an initial state

(P1) = 320 kPa Volume of the container (V) = 0.011 m³

The formula used: Internal energy per unit mass (u) = h - Pv

Enthalpy per unit mass (h) = u + Pv Specific volume (v)

= V/m Quality (x) = (h_fg - h)/(h_g - h_f)

1. To find the quality of R-134a at the initial state: From the steam table, At 320 kPa, h_g = 277.6 kJ/kg, h_f = 70.87 kJ/kgh_fg = h_g - h_f= 206.73 kJ/kg Enthalpy of the system at initial state (H1) can be calculated as H1 = h_g = 277.6 kJ/kg Internal energy of the system at initial state (U1) can be calculated as:

U1 = h_g - Pv1= 277.6 - 320*10³*0.011 / 11

= 252.91 kJ/kg

The quality of R-134a at the initial state (x1) can be calculated as:

x1 = (h_fg - h1)/(h_g - h_f)

= (206.73 - 277.6)/(277.6 - 70.87)

= 0.5

The volume of the container is rigid, so it will not change throughout the process.

2. To find the temperature, total internal energy, and total enthalpy at the final state:

Using the values from an initial state, enthalpy at the final state (h2) can be calculated as:

h2 = h1 + h_fg

= 277.6 + 206.73

= 484.33 kJ/kg So the temperature of R-134a at the final state is approximately 50.82°C. The total enthalpy of the system at the final state (H2) can be calculated as,

= H2

= 484.33 kJ/kg

Thus, the quality, temperature, total internal energy, and enthalpy of the system are given by:

x1 = 0.5 (initial state)T2 = 50.82°C (final state) U1 = 252.91 kJ/kg (initial state) U2 = 442.88 kJ/kg (final state) H1 = 277.6 kJ/kg (initial state)H2 = 484.33 kJ/kg (final state)

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An Amplitude Modulation (AM) Transmitter has the carrier equals V.(t) = 4 cos (8000.n.t) and a message signal that is given by Vm(t) = 400. sinc²(πr. 400. t)-4 sin(600. n. t) sin (200. n. t) [2 mark] a) Find the Sketch spectrum of the message signal V mb) Find and Sketch the spectram VAM() of the modulated signal and show the bandwidth and Identify the upper side band (USB) and the lower side band (LSB) spectra for each of the following schemes: 1. DSB-TC 2. DSB-SC 3. SSB 4. VSB c) Calculate the power of the modulated signal for DSB-TC
d) Design an envelop detector receiver to recover the signal vm(t) from the received the DSB modulated signal.
e) Design a homodyne receiver to recover the signals (1) from the SSB received signal. 

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Sketch spectrum of the message signal Vm: Given carrier signal V(t) = 4 cos (8000πn.t) Message signal Vm(t) = 400. sinc²(πr. 400. t)-4 sin(600n.t) sin (200n.t)The spectrum of message signal Vm is given as.

Spectrum of message signal Vm. Here the modulating signal is given by sin (200n.t) which has a frequency of 200Hz and sinc²(πr. 400. t) which is band limited with a bandwidth of 400Hz. Hence, the signal Vm has a bandwidth of 400Hz.b) Sketch the spectrum of the modulated signal VAM.

The modulated signal is given by VAM = Ac[1 + m sin (2πfmt)]. where Ac = 4Vm = 400. sinc²(πr. 400. t)-4 sin(600n.t) sin (200n.t)Given carrier signal V(t) = 4 cos (8000πn.t)To obtain VAM, the message signal is modulated on to the carrier wave. VAM = Ac[1 + m sin (2πfmt).

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32. Which of these terms means "payment within 15 days"? A. Net \( 15 . \) B. Total \( 15 . \) C. Limit \( 15 . \) D. \( 15 \max \).

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The term that means "payment within 15 days" is Net 15. Net 15 is an invoice payment term indicating that the payment is due within 15 days of the invoice date. This term is commonly used in business and is part of the payment terms that are usually agreed upon by the buyer and the seller.

The term Net 15 is a part of payment terms and refers to the number of days the invoice payment is due. There are different terms commonly used to indicate different payment periods. Some common terms include Net 30, Net 60, and Net 90. Net 30 is a payment term indicating that the payment is due within 30 days of the invoice date. Similarly, Net 60 indicates that the payment is due within 60 days of the invoice date, and Net 90 means that the payment is due within 90 days of the invoice date.

In conclusion, the term that means "payment within 15 days" is Net 15. It is important for businesses to agree upon payment terms to avoid misunderstandings and ensure that payments are made on time.

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Q2.(122 marks) The crankshaft of an engine with a moment of inertia of 15 kg ᴹ² is tested. It rotates by 0.5 degrees when 120 kNm torque is applied on it. Determine: a) The torsional stiffness of the spring in kNm/rad [4 marks] b) Damping constant C in kNm, s/rad that can provide oscillation settling time of 1 msec. [14 marks] c) The logarithmic decrement. [4 marks]

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Determining the torsional stiffness, damping constant, and logarithmic decrement is vital to understanding the engine crankshaft's behavior under torque.

These properties can be calculated using the applied torque, angular displacement, moment of inertia, and the specified settling time.

Torsional stiffness is the measure of the amount of torque a component can withstand for a given angular displacement. It is calculated as the ratio of the applied torque to the angular displacement. The damping constant, which quantifies the system's resistance to oscillations, can be computed from the specified settling time and the moment of inertia. The logarithmic decrement, a measure of how rapidly the oscillations decrease, is dependent on the damping constant and can be determined using its standard formula.

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Stability (3 marks) Explain why the moment of stability (righting moment) is the absolute measure for the intact stability of a vessel and not GZ.

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The moment of stability, also known as the righting moment, is considered the absolute measure of the intact stability of a vessel, as it provides a comprehensive understanding of the vessel's ability to resist capsizing.

The moment of stability, or righting moment, represents the rotational force that acts to restore a vessel to an upright position when it is heeled due to external factors such as wind, waves, or cargo shift. It is determined by multiplying the displacement of the vessel by the righting arm (GZ). The GZ value alone indicates the distance between the center of gravity and the center of buoyancy, providing information on the initial stability of the vessel. However, it does not consider the magnitude of the force acting on the vessel.

The moment of stability takes into account both the lever arm and the magnitude of the force acting on the vessel, providing a more accurate assessment of its stability. It considers the dynamic effects of external forces, allowing for a better understanding of the vessel's ability to return to its upright position when heeled.

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Regarding the homemade, very simple speaker that I demonstrated, what happens if the same song was played via an electrical signal into the coil of wire at the top, then this was all started all over again, but with the permanent magnet at the bottom flipped, so N became S and vice versa. (a) The same song would play and there would be no physical difference. (b) The song would be unable to play unless the polarity was placed correctly at the start. (c) The song would play, but due to the difference in phase of the electromagnetic versus permanent magnet, the sound would likely be either louder or softer; which would be hard to tell priory. (d) In both cases, the rarefactions and pressure regions of the air, made by the sound, would be present, but these would be off by half a period in time, corresponding to the frequency of the sound, in reaching our cars, undoubtedly not measurable by the human car.

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The same song would play, but due to the phase difference caused by reversing the magnet polarity, the sound may be slightly affected in terms of amplitude and there would be a negligible time delay in the alignment of the sound waves, which is not perceptible to the human ear.

If the same song is played through an electrical signal into the coil of wire at the top of the homemade speaker, and then the permanent magnet at the bottom is flipped so that the North (N) and South (S) poles are reversed, several things would occur:

1. Phase Difference: The electromagnetic field generated by the current in the coil of wire and the magnetic field from the permanent magnet would be out of phase due to the reversal of the magnet's polarity. This means that the interaction between the two fields would be different compared to the original configuration.

2. Sound Output: The interaction between the electromagnetic field and the reversed magnetic field would still result in the movement of the diaphragm or cone of the speaker. As a result, sound would still be produced, but the phase difference between the fields could potentially affect the amplitude or intensity of the sound.

3. Potential Difference in Sound: Depending on the specifics of the reversal and the properties of the speaker components, the sound produced could potentially be louder or softer compared to the original configuration. The exact impact on the sound would be difficult to determine without specific knowledge of the speaker design and the reversal process.

4. Time Delay: If there is a phase difference between the two fields, as mentioned earlier, the resulting rarefactions and pressure regions of the sound waves in the air may be off by half a period in time. This means that the peaks and troughs of the sound waves would not align perfectly, corresponding to the frequency of the sound being played. However, this time delay would be extremely small and not perceptible to the human ear.

In conclusion, while the song would still play through the homemade speaker with the reversed magnet polarity, the phase difference between the electromagnetic field and the permanent magnet's field could potentially affect the sound output, making it either louder or softer. Additionally, there would be a very minor time delay in the alignment of the rarefactions and pressure regions of the sound waves, but this would not be discernible to the human ear.

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A straight radial centrifugal compressor is designed to provide a pressure ratio of (P03 / P-01 = 2.8). The slip factor is 0.85 and the compressor efficiency is 82%. If the outer radius of the impeller r2 = 0.1 m and the radial component of the velocity at the exit of the rotor is 120 m/s:
a) Determine the rotating speed of the rotor.
b )Determine the specific work required to drive the compressor.
c) If the inlet total pressure is 100 kPa and the total temperature is 30 oC and the Hight of the impeller at the tip is h= 0.01 m, find the flowrate of air consider Cp = 1.02 kJ/kg. K and γ = 1.4. assume constant total pressure in the diffuser
The compressor in problem#1 is driven with a radial turbine on common shaft. Consider the air flow rate to be the same as for the compress find:
d) the required impeller outer diameter for the turbine.
e) The pressure ratio across the turbine if the inlet temperature is 650 oC and considering constant Cp = 1.12 kJ/kg.K and = 1.35. and the turbine efficiency is 87 %
f)If the required exit total pressure is to be 105 kPa, what would be the required inlet pressure ?

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a) The rotating speed of the rotor can be determined by using the slip factor and the pressure ratio.b) The specific work required to drive the compressor can be calculated using the pressure ratio, compressor efficiency, and the specific heat capacity of the air.

How can the rotating speed of the radial centrifugal compressor be determined?

a) The rotating speed of the rotor can be determined using the formula: ω = Vr2 / r2, where ω is the rotational speed, Vr2 is the radial component of velocity at the exit of the rotor, and r2 is the outer radius of the impeller.

b) The specific work required to drive the compressor can be calculated using the equation: Ws = Cp ˣ  (T03 - T01) / ηc, where Ws is the specific work, Cp is the specific heat capacity of air, T03 and T01 are the total temperatures at the exit and inlet respectively, and ηc is the compressor efficiency.

c) The flow rate of air can be found using the equation: m_dot = ρ * A * Vr2, where m_dot is the mass flow rate, ρ is the density of air, A is the cross-sectional area of the impeller at the exit, and Vr2 is the radial component of velocity at the exit of the rotor.

d) The required impeller outer diameter for the turbine can be determined using the formula: D = 2 ˣ r2, where D is the impeller outer diameter.

e) The pressure ratio across the turbine can be calculated using the equation: P04 / P-05 = (T04 / T-05)^(γ / (γ - 1)), where P04 and P-05 are the total pressures at the exit and inlet respectively, T04 and T-05 are the total temperatures at the exit and inlet respectively, γ is the specific heat ratio, and Cp is the specific heat capacity.

f) The required inlet pressure can be calculated using the equation: P01 = P04 / (P04 / P-05) ˣ  P05, where P01 is the inlet pressure, P04 is the exit total pressure, P-05 is the required exit total pressure, and P05 is the known inlet total pressure.

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The flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross- section is parabolic if the liquid is driven by a pressure difference a is uniform if the liquid b is driven by electroosmosis c is unpredictable and random
d is determined by the liquid density

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The flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross- section is parabolic if the liquid is driven by a pressure difference.

The pressure gradient contributes to this parabolic flow profile. As a result, the fluid velocity is at its maximum in the centre of the channel and at its lowest at the walls. The reason for this is due to the viscous forces of the fluid.

The flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross- section is uniform if the liquid is driven by electroosmosis. The liquid is driven through the channel by an electric field in this situation.

Since there is no pressure gradient, the flow velocity is constant across the cross-section of the channel. This results in a uniform flow profile.The flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross- section is unpredictable and random if the liquid is driven by chaotic advection, which is a type of flow induced by the channel's geometry. This is caused by the irregular movement of fluid particles, which results in an unpredictable flow pattern across the channel's cross-section.

The flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross- section is determined by the liquid density if the liquid is driven by density-driven flow. This form of flow occurs when a denser liquid replaces a lighter liquid in a channel due to gravity. The flow profile is based on the density variation across the channel, which determines the velocity distribution of the fluid.

Microfluidics has been gaining a lot of interest over the years due to the various benefits it offers. Microfluidic channels are tiny channels that are used to control fluids. They are commonly used for lab-on-a-chip devices, which are used for chemical and biological experiments in the lab. The flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross-section is dependent on how the liquid is driven. There are various driving mechanisms, including pressure difference, electroosmosis, chaotic advection, and density-driven flow.

The flow profile of a liquid that is driven by a pressure difference is parabolic. The pressure gradient contributes to this parabolic flow profile. As a result, the fluid velocity is at its maximum in the centre of the channel and at its lowest at the walls. This is due to the viscous forces of the fluid. In contrast, if the liquid is driven by electroosmosis, the flow profile is uniform. The liquid is driven through the channel by an electric field, and since there is no pressure gradient, the flow velocity is constant across the cross-section of the channel. This results in a uniform flow profile. Chaotic advection, which is a type of flow induced by the channel's geometry, drives an unpredictable and random flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross-section.

This is caused by the irregular movement of fluid particles, which results in an unpredictable flow pattern across the channel's cross-section. Finally, if the liquid is driven by density-driven flow, the flow profile is determined by the liquid density. This form of flow occurs when a denser liquid replaces a lighter liquid in a channel due to gravity. The flow profile is based on the density variation across the channel, which determines the velocity distribution of the fluid.

The flow profile in a straight microfluidic channel with a square cross-section is determined by the driving mechanism. The driving mechanisms discussed include pressure difference, electroosmosis, chaotic advection, and density-driven flow. The flow profile is parabolic for pressure difference, uniform for electroosmosis, unpredictable and random for chaotic advection, and determined by the liquid density for density-driven flow.

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1. Design PAL and PLA for the following Boolean functions fi(A, B, C)=E(0, 1, 4, 6, 7) and f₂(A, B, C) = (0,1,2, 5, 6).

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A programmable array logic (PAL) is an approach that combines a programmable array with a fixed AND array for a custom programmable logic device (PLD). A programmable logic array (PLA) is a fixed-architecture integrated circuit that can be programmed for user-defined logic functions.

A programmable logic array (PLA) is a fixed-architecture integrated circuit that can be programmed for user-defined logic functions. A programmable array logic (PAL) is an approach that combines a programmable array with a fixed AND array for a custom programmable logic device (PLD).Solution:For the given Boolean functions, the Boolean expression will be expressed as follows:f1(A, B, C) = Σm(0, 1, 4, 6, 7) = A'BC' + A'B'C' + AB'C' + ABCC' + ABC = A'BC' + A'B'C' + AB'C' + ABCf2(A, B, C) = Σm(0, 1, 2, 5, 6) = A'BC' + A'B'C' + A'BC + AB'C' + AB'C = A'BC' + A'B'C' + A'BC + AB'C'Firstly, we shall design the PLA for f1 and f2 separately:PAL for f1:A 2x4 decoders will be used for the generation of minterm and the two 4-input OR gates will be used for the realization of two sum terms, and the final PAL will be as follows;Boolean expression for f1 can be verified with the help of above PAL is A'BC' + A'B'C' + AB'C' + ABCPLA for f2:We can use two 3-input AND gates and two 2-input AND gates for the AND array and a 4-input OR gate for the OR array, and the final PLA will be as follows;Boolean expression for f2 can be verified with the help of above PLA is A'BC' + A'B'C' + A'BC + AB'C' + AB'C

Both PAL and PLA are used to implement complex digital circuits that are beyond the scope of gate logic. As we are designing PAL and PLA for the given Boolean functions f1 and f2, we have calculated their Boolean expressions and after that, we have designed the PAL and PLA for each of the functions separately.For PAL, 2x4 decoders are used for the generation of minterm, and the two 4-input OR gates are used for the realization of two sum terms, whereas for PLA, two 3-input AND gates and two 2-input AND gates are used for the AND array and a 4-input OR gate is used for the OR array.

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Which statement is not correct about heat convection for external flow?
A. The flow pattern over the tube bundle is different from the single tube.
B. The same correlation for the Nusselt number can be used for cylinders and spheres.
C. The flow pattern over the tube bundle with aligned (in-line) configuration is different from that with staggered configuration.
D. The fluid thermophysical properties are usually evaluated at the film temperature, which is the average of the surface and the mainstream temperatures.

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A statement which not correct about heat convection for external flow is The same correlation for the Nusselt number can be used for cylinders and spheres.

The correct option is B)

What is heat convection?

Heat convection is a mechanism in which thermal energy is transferred from one place to another by moving fluids, including gases and liquids. Heat transfer occurs in fluids through advection or forced flow, natural convection, or radiation.

Convection in external flow is caused by forced flow over an object. The fluid moves over the object, absorbing heat and carrying it away. The rate at which heat is transferred in forced flow depends on the velocity of the fluid, the thermodynamic and transport properties of the fluid, and the size and shape of the object

.The Nusselt number can be calculated to understand the relationship between heat transfer, fluid properties, and object characteristics. However, the same Nusselt number correlation cannot be used for both cylinders and spheres since the flow pattern varies significantly. This is why option B is not correct.

As a result, option B, "The same correlation for the Nusselt number can be used for cylinders and spheres," is not correct about heat convection for external flow.

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