Trevor Ang holds a $400,000 portfolio consisting of the following stocks:

Stock Investment Beta
A $100,000 1.40
B $70,000 1.60
C $30,000 1.10
D $200,000 1.00
Total $400,000

What is the portfolio's beta?

Answer:

what

Explanation:

please write the question properly I can't understand it

Answer:

Lock the Formulas Cells

Explanation:

Now, go to lock the selected cells with formulas. To do this, press Ctrl - 1 to open the Format Cells dialog again, switch to the Protection tab, and check the Locked checkbox. The locked option prevents the user from overwriting, deleting or changing the content of the cells.

Answer:

Pre-tax income= $50,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price per unit=$15 each

Unitary variable cost= $10

Fixed costs= $200,000

Sales in units= 50,000

First, we will determine the unitary contribution margin:

Unitary contribution margin= 15 - 10= $5

Now, the pre-tax income:

Pre-tax income= 50,000*5 - 200,000

Pre-tax income= $50,000

Answer:

P0 = $33.9085 rounded off to $33.91

Explanation:

Using the constant growth model of dividend discount model, we can calculate the price of the stock today. The DDM values a stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under this model is,

P0 = D0 * (1+g) / (r - g)

Where,  

D0 is the dividend paid  recently

D0 * (1+g) is dividend expected for the next period /year

g is the growth rate

r is the required rate of return or cost of equity

First we need to calculate the required rate of return or r using the CAPM.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required/expected rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.  

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * rpM

Where,  

rRF is the risk free rate

rpM is the market risk premium

r = 0.03 + 1.2 * 0.06

r = 0.102 or 10.2%

Now using the formula for P0 under the constant dividend growth model,

P0 = 2.3 * (1+0.032)  /  (0.102 - 0.032)

P0 = $33.9085 rounded off to $33.91

Answer: b) need for power.

Explanation:

Organizational politics are activities that people engage in to be able to further their personal interests even if these interests are not always in the best interest of the company itself.

To be able to further their interests, they need power and influence which means that the personal characteristic that fosters organizational politics is the need to have power.

Answer:

1: Increased output: The first and most important advantage of group work is, that it increases total productivity

2: More resources :The more member you have in a group, the resources you have at the end of the day...

3: Reliability: Project are safer with team than with individual.

4: proper decision making

5:Exposure to diversity.

Answer:

andvatage whem itsits when couple enoustryied withcouple walangjowa ble

Explanation:

!)

Answer:

make a 40% down payment upfront

Explanation:

The best arrangement that would help him accomplish this would be to make a 40% down payment upfront. The best way to build equity as fast as possible is to put down the biggest down payment that you can. The bigger the down payment, the higher the boost in equity that you will receive. That is why it is the best option. Anything above 20% down payment is the ideal scenario, while 40% would be perfection.

Answer:

b. $.66

Explanation:

The computation of the per share value for the one year is

Given that

Current Price = $43

Possible Prices = $42 and $46

Now

u = [($46 - $43) ÷ $43] + 1

= 1.06977

And

d = 1 - [($42 - $43) ÷ $43]

= 0.9767

And,

Risk-Free Rate = T-Bill Rate = Rf = 4.1 %

Now the up move price probability is

= [(1 + Rf) - d] ÷ [u - d]

= [(1.041) - 0.9767] ÷ [1.06977 - 0.9767]

= 0.69088

And,  

Exercise Price = $ 45

Now

If the Price is $42, so Payoff = $0

And

if the Price is $46, so Payoff =is

= ($46 - $45)

= $1

Finally the call price is

= [0.69088 × 1 + (1 - 0.69088) × 0] ÷ 1.041

= $0.66367

= $0.66

Answer:

the number of units purchased in September is 33,000 units

Explanation:

The computation of the number of units purchased in September is shown below:

= September sales + desired ending inventory - beginning inventory

= 31,000 + 41,000 × 20% - 31,000 × 20%

= 31,000 + 8,200 - 6,200

= 33,000 units

This is the answer but the same is not provided in the given options

hence, the number of units purchased in September is 33,000 units

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

About placement:

The process of making a product or service accessible for use or consumption by a consumer or business user, using direct means, or using indirect means with intermediaries.

Main Question:

How do you make a placement in marketing?

Answer:

Use your social media channels to reach out to industry influencers. Create awareness and interest for your products by sharing with those who may be able to do some product placement on their own channels. Prepare Press Kits.

▬▬▬▬▬▬▬▬▬▬▬▬

Answer:

ejrjfjfn

Explanation:

sudjfjejrjfngnv vjvkvkvk

Explanation:

Goodwill in accounting is an intangible asset that arises when a buyer acquires an existing business. Goodwill represents assets that are not separately identifiable. Goodwill does not include identifiable assets that are capable of being separated or divided from the entity and sold, transferred, licensed, rented, or exchanged, either individually or together with a related contract, identifiable asset, or liability regardless of whether the entity intends to do so. Goodwill also does not include contractual or other legal rights regardless of whether those are transferable or separable from the entity or other rights and obligations. Goodwill is also only acquired through an acquisition; it cannot be self-created. Examples of identifiable assets that are goodwill include a company’s brand name, customer relationships, artistic intangible assets, and any patents or proprietary technology. The goodwill amounts to the excess of the "purchase consideration" (the money paid to purchase the asset or business) over the net value of the assets minus liabilities. It is classified as an intangible asset on the balance sheet, since it can neither be seen nor touched. Under US GAAP and IFRS, goodwill is never amortized, because it is considered to have an indefinite useful life. Instead, management is responsible for valuing goodwill every year and to determine if an impairment is required. If the fair market value goes below historical cost (what goodwill was purchased for), an impairment must be recorded to bring it down to its fair market value. However, an increase in the fair market value would not be accounted for in the financial statements. Private companies in the United States, however, may elect to amortize goodwill over a period of ten years or less under an accounting alternative from the Private Company Council of the FASB.

Answer:

d.

Explanation:

This scenario will result in an increase in the equilibrium price and an uncertain impact on the equilibrium quantity. This is because when customers in a market want a product but there is very little supply exists it makes the product more valuable and thus increases the price since consumers are willing to pay more for that product to get their hands on it. Scarcity increases price always, but while the supply and demand of a product are not the same this causes an uncertain impact on the equilibrium quantity.

Answer:

It starts effecting price level - inflationary pressure in economy.

Explanation:

Expansionary policies are aimed at increasing Aggregate Demand, by Fiscal or monetary approach.

Fiscal expansion policy include increasing government public expenditure, reducing government tax revenue. Monetary Expansion policy aim include credit expansion - from decreased LRR, decreased bank rate, decreased marginal requirement etc

Significant expansion policy left for more than half an year, start exerting inflationary pressure on the economy price level.

Answer:

high inflation or reduced government spending

Explanation:

According to the information provided by the graph, it can be inferred that the occupation with the highest percentage of growth is wind turbine service technicians with 108.0%. While the one with the greatest increase in jobs is Home Health aides with 348.4.

In the table there are different columns and rows that organize the information. To know a specific data we must identify what each row and column corresponds to.

The columns (horizontal) correspond to the different jobs that are projected to increase in the period of time 2014 - 2024.

On the other hand, the (vertical) rows have different data such as:

According to this information, it can be inferred that the employment with the highest percentage of increase is that of wind turbine service technicians with 108.0%.

However, the air turbine technician job is not the one with the largest variation in job titles. The one with the greatest variation in jobs employment is Home Health aides with 348.4.

Learn more about employment in: https://brainly.com/question/239270

1. The occupation that is expected to grow at the highest percentage increase between 2014 and 2024 is Wind Turbine Services (technicians) with some college education.  It has a percentage change of 108%.

2. However, this occupation is not also expected to have the largest increase in the number of jobs.

Instead, the occupation with the largest increase in the number of jobs between 2014 and 2024 is Home Health Aides (with no formal educational credential).

Occupation refers to the type of work a person does to earn a living.

For example, working as a Wind Turbine Service technician is an occupation.

Other occupations include school teaching, commercial driving, nursing practice, and working as a home health aide.

Thus, the occupation that is expected to grow at the highest percentage increase is Wind Turbine Services (technicians) while the occupation with the largest increase in the number of jobs is Home Health Aides.

Learn more about occupations at https://brainly.com/question/21414122

Answer:

We should not take the contract

Explanation:

Net present value = Initial investment + Present value of cash inflows

Net present value = -95000 + 100000/1.08

Net present value = -2407.41

Thus, the contract should not be taken because the NPV is negative

Answer: $‭1,343‬

Explanation:

Net Present Value = Present value of Cash inflows - Present value of Cash outflows

Cash inflows are constant and so are an annuity.

Present value of Cash inflows = Annuity * Present value interest factor of annuity, 4 years, 10%

= 7,900 * 3.170

= $‭25,043‬

Net Present Value = ‭25,043‬ - 23,700

= $‭1,343‬

Answer:

ending finished inventory= $17,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

purchases, $114,000

beginning inventory, $27,000

cost of goods sold $124,000.

To calculate the ending inventory, we need to use the following formula:

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

124,000 = 27,000 + 114,000 - ending finished inventory

ending finished inventory= 141,000 - 124,000

ending finished inventory= $17,000

The number of unemployed peoples is 17.67 Millions, when the rate of unemployed peoples are 31%.

Unemployment happens when individuals who desire to do work are incapable to encounter jobs, which displaces economic output.

High pressure rates of unemployment are a sign of economic pain, while highly low-level rates of unemployment may sign a hotted economy.

Computation of unemployed peoples:

According to the given information,

The labor force rate =  123.4%, and

Absolute Value =  47 million

Then, the labor force population is:

[tex]\text{labor Force Population} = \text{The Labor Force Rate} \times \text{Absolute Value}\\\\\text{labor Force Population} =123.4\% \times 47 \text{Million}\\\\\text{labor Force Population} =57 \text{Approx.}[/tex]

Now, the number of unemployed peoples are:

According to the given information,

unemployment rate = 31.0

Then,

[tex]\text{Number of Unemployed Peoples} = \text{Unemployment Rate} \times \text{Labor force Population}\\\\\text{Number of Unemployed Peoples} = 31\% \times 57 \text{Million(Approx)}\\\\\text{Number of Unemployed Peoples} =17.67\text{Million}[/tex]

Therefore, the number of unemployed peoples are 17.67 Millions.

Learn more about unemployment, refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/14227610

Answer:

c. $7,500

Explanation:

Profit Maximization is a process in which an entity determines the selling price and cost of the product that results in the highest profit.

Use following formula to calculate the maximum profit

Maximum profit = Mean demand x ( Price per unit - Cost per unit )

Where

Mean demand = 500

Price per unit = $25

Cost per unit = $10

Placing values in the formula

Maximum Profit = 500 x ( $25 - $10 )

Maximum Profit = $7,500

Answer:

The amount of shares need to sold is

Answer:

12.95%

Explanation:

Given:

Risk-free rate (rRF) = 2.5%

Expected return on the market (rm) = 12%

Stock beta (bs) = 1.1

(rRF) + (rm - rRF)(bs)

0.025 + (0.12 - 0.025) (1.1)

0.025 + 0.095 (1.1)

0.025 + 0.1045

0.1295

12.95%

Answer:

Marigold Corp. gathered the following reconciling information in preparing its April bank reconciliation: Cash balance per books, 4/30 $13700 Deposits in transit 1900 Notes receivable and interest collected by bank 4620 Bank charge for check printing 160 Outstanding checks 9400 NSF check 870.

The adjusted cash balance per books on April 30 is:__$17,290.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Cash balance per books, 4/30 = $13,700

Deposits in transit 1,900

Notes receivable and interest collected by bank 4,620

Bank charge for check printing 160

Outstanding checks 9,400

NSF check 870

b) Cash balance per books, 4/30                           $13,700

Notes receivable and interest collected by bank     4,620

Bank charge for check printing                                    -160

NSF check                                                                     -870

Adjusted cash balance as per books on April 30 $17,290

c) The adjusted cash balance of $17,290 will be equal to the balance on the bank statement on the same date, unless there is another accounting error that is not listed above.

Answer:

A. the portion of the investment opportunity set that lies above the global minimum variance portfolio.

Explanation:

The Efficient frontier refers to the portfolios set that involves that expected return whose return is high at the level of minimum risk so the asset that contains the high risk profile that investment opportunity set portion should be above the variance portfolio i.e. minimum globally

Therefore the correct option is a.

Answer:

the diluted earning per share is $17.71

Explanation:

The computation of the diluted earning per share is shown below:

Diluted earning per share is

= (Net income - preference dividend) ÷ ( oustanding common stock shares + convertible shares)

= ($4,500,000 - $250,000) ÷ (200,000 + 40,000)

=  $4,250,000 ÷ 240,000 shares

= $17.71

hence, the diluted earning per share is $17.71

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

Answer:

Goal is a set target that a person wants to achieve, while Aim is the determined course a person sets to achieve a target.

Answer:

b. increase

Explanation:

These changes have caused competition to greatly increase. This is mainly because with these changes anyone from around the world can provide the same services/products that a local retail business can provide while reaching customers from all over the world. Therefore, also competing with any retail brick-and-mortar business from any part of the world. Customers can easily communicate with these online businesses and purchase their products/services from the comfort of their homes and usually at a much better price.

Answer:

26762.74

Explanation:

Prior service cost amortization for 2020 can be calculated by first calculating the average time until the employee's retirement. After calculating the average time until retirement we will divide the service cost at that time

Workings

average time until retirment  = 1880/330

average time until retirment = 5.69 years

prior service cost amortization for 2020 = $152,280/5.69

prior service cost amortization for 2020 = $26762.74

Answer:

a. Journal Entry

Date     Account Titles            Debit            Credit

Dec 31  Bad Debts Expense  $16,000

            Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $16,000

To record bad debts expense.

b. Journal Entries:

Date     Account Titles            Debit            Credit

Mar 1   Allowance for

           Doubtful Accounts    $1,900

            Accounts Receivable                     $1,900

To record the write-off of uncollectible account.

Date     Account Titles              Debit            Credit

May 1    Accounts Receivable $1,900

             Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  $1,900

To record the reversal of the March 1, 2020 entries.

Date     Account Titles            Debit            Credit

May 1   Cash                           $1,900

             Accounts Receivable                    $1,900

To record the receipt of check from the customer.

c. Journal Entries:

Date      Account Titles              Debit            Credit

Dec. 31  Bad Debts Expense $40,300

             Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $40,300

To record bad debts expense and bring the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts to a credit balance of $38,300.

Explanation:

a) Adjusting journal entries are necessary to ensure that the accounts are reported in accordance with the accrual concept.