The Punnett square shows the results when two parent cows are crossed.
R represents the allele for red hair, and r represents the allele for white hair.
Which best describes this inheritance pattern?
A) Incomplete dominance because the intermediate form of the trait is chosen
B) Co-dominance because the intermediate form of the trait is chosen C) Incomplete dominance because the offspring display alleles for both hair colors
D) Co-dominance because the offspring display alleles for both hair colors
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation
the red haired trait is dominant over the white haired trait. and the results are all red haired offspring. therefore its incomplete dominance
The correct option is D) Co-dominance because the offspring display alleles for both hair colors.
What is Co-dominance?Co-dominance refers to a phenomena, in which both alleles are simultaneously expressed in the heterozygote.
Incomplete dominance is closely related to Co-dominance in which phenotype of the progeny is intermediate of the parent phenotype.
Here, the red haired trait is dominant over the white haired trait and still both alleles are simultaneously expressed in the heterozygote of the offspring with red and white hair traits, thus, the Co-dominance best describes this inheritance pattern.
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Related Questions
About 16% of the world's total oil output:
A) comes from offshore drilling
B) is made by the United States
C) is mined deep beyond the continental shelf
D) comes from oil rigs in the Atlantic Ocean
Answers
Have a nice day
Answer:
The answer is A, It comes from offshore drilling.
Explanation:
Cause i got it right.
Which word identifies the hanging icicle-shaped formations in caves that are created by deposition?
Answers
Answer:
Stalactites
Explanation:
A stalactite is a type of formation that hangs from the ceiling of caves, hot springs, or manmade structures such as bridges and mines. Any material that is soluble, can be deposited as a colloid, or is in suspension, or is capable of being melted, may form a stalactite.
Answer:the answer is,
Stalactites
Explanation:
I just took the test
Question 21 (5 points)
Which of the following terms describes a collection of hollow cells that implants on
the uterus wall after fertilization, but is not yet differentiated (in other words, all cells
are the same type of cell still)?
Fetus
Haploid
Mitosis
Blastocyst
Answers
Answer:
The answer is option D.
Blastocyst
Hope this helps
Answer:
Blastocyst
Explanation:
Once an egg is fertilized by a sperm, it begins to divide by mitosis into a 2, 4, and then 8 celled structure. Eventually, this large collection of cells keeps dividing and becomes a hallow collection of undifferentiated cells called a blastocyst. The blastocyst will implant on the wall of the uterus where it will begin to grow and develop during pregnancy into a fetus.
Which statement best describes monsoons?
They force cool, moist air from oceans to rise.
They are winds that blow in the opposite direction of a normal wind.
They bring heavy rain in the winter and in the summer.
They influence precipitation as wind moves near a mountain.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question will be Option B and C.
Explanation:
Monsoon seems to be a change throughout the course including its predominant hot air flowing from either the south-western oceans of India towards India.The summer monsoon gives a luxurious atmosphere as well as heavy rains to something like the coastline of Asia (south-east), where many monsoon showers of rain undergo their rainy season throughout the winter.The other choices are not related to the given circumstances. So that Option B & C would be the appropriate choice.
Answer:
Pretty sure its B not sure tho. If its correct, mark as brainliest
Explanation:
what is cellular affinity in biology?
Answers
Answer:
affinity. Attraction between particles. Biology: A measure of the attraction of one biological molecule toward another molecule, either to modify it, destroy it, or form a compound with it. Examples are enzymes and their substrates, or antibodies and their antigens.
How did the death of chestnut tree result in the growth of the ecosystem
Answers
Answer:
add nutrients to the soil.
Explanation:
The death of chestnut tree result in the growth of the ecosystem because when the chestnut tree dies, the decomposers such as fungi and bacteria start feeding on the dead tree and as a result nitrogenous waste is produced mixed with soil which is the essential nutrient for the plants. These nitrogenous waste is used by the plants to make amino acids and as a result the growth of an ecosystem occurs.
Estimate how many arteries branch off the aorta given that arteries have a diameter of 0.4 cm and a flow speed of 45 cm/s.
Answers
Answer:
Approximately 25 arteries would branch off
Explanation:
Aorta has a diameter of 2 cm, so area is pi x 1^2 = 3.142
In case of the artery, pi x 0.2^2 = 0.126
So dividing total area of aorta by total area of one artery, we get 3.142/0.126 = 25.021
Hence, about 25 arteries will be needed to carry the amount of blood that flows in the aorta vessel.
Which statement summarizes a change that occurs during photosynthesis?
Answers
Answer:
It converts light energy to chemical energy.
Explanation:
Its absorbing sunlight and changing in to chemical energy for the plants nutrients.
During photosynthesis, light energy will be changed into chemical energy.
What is photosynthesis?Photosynthesis was a process used mostly by plants as well as other creatures to transform sunlight into chemical energy which, via cellular respiration, might subsequently be produced to fuel the organism's functions.
What is chemical energy?Chemical energy was the energy that would be generated while chemical substances engage in a chemical reaction but also change into some other substances.
Therefore, during photosynthesis, light energy will be changed into chemical energy.
To know more about photosynthesis and chemical energy.
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1. You are given a 1 gram soil sample of unknown bacterial load. After doing 10-fold serial dilutions of the soil in sterile water, 100 uL volumes are taken from each dilution for preparation of pour plates. Following incubation, each half of the 10-8 plate has 46 colonies.
a) What was the dilution factor?
b) How many bacteria were present in the soil?
2. Staphylococcus aureus divides every 20 minutes. A culture begins with 10 bacterial cells.
a) After 5 hours, how many generations have occurred
b) After 5 hours, how many bacteria are present?
3. How many milliliters would you need to prepare a 10-2 dilution from a 10ml starting culture?
Answers
Answer:
1a. 1:10
1b. 4.6×10¹³
2a. 15generations
2b. 327,680
Explanation:
10 fold serial dilution means 1ml of stock is mixed in 9ml distilled water. This is called as 10⁻¹ solution.
In this way, take 1ml each of every dilution and mix in 9ml distilled water to make 10⁻², 10⁻²-------10⁻⁸ dilutions.
Now, CFU/ml = no. of colonies × dilution factor/ volume of sample plated.
Protein is needed for growth and repair.
The digestion of protein begins in the stomach and is completed in the small intestine,
What are the products of the digestion of protein.
Tick the correct box
amino acids
energy
sugars
vitamins
1 mark
Amino acids
O Energy
O Sugars
Vitamins
Answers
Answer:
Amino acids
Explanation:
Hope it helps.
Electrons spin in shells around the nucleus. The closest shell (n = 1) can contain a maximum of____
electrons?
4
2
8
6
Answers
Answer: 2 electrons
Explanation:
The inner shell (1st shell) can hold 2 electrons, the next shell can hold 8 electrons and the third shell can hold 18 electrons.
Answer:
2 electrons
Explanation:
Electrons have various shells. The first one is called the K shell and it holds a maximum of two electrons.The next is the L shell (8 electrons), then the M shell and so on.
Caffeine prolongs and intensifies the effects of epinephrine. Which of the following potential mechanisms of action of caffeine is consistent with this effect?
a. inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase, the enzyme that converts cAMP to AMP.
b. a competitive antagonist of cAMP binding to PKA.
c. stimulates phospholipase Cb.
d. inhibits sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum Ca 2 + - ATPase.
e. activates PKC.
Answers
Answer:
a. inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase, the enzyme that converts cAMP to AMP.
Explanation:
The phosphodiesterases are a group of enzymes that are capable of breaking phosphodiester bonds such as those between nucleotides in nucleic acids. The Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a second messenger involved in intracellular signaling pathways. This molecule (cAMP) is hydrolyzed by the cAMP-dependent phosphodiesterase, which catalyzes the enzymatic breakdown of phosphodiester bonds (i.e., hydrolyzing cAMP to 5-AMP). The cAMP levels are modulated by the balance between its generation and the degradation via cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase.
state and explain five uses of insects
Answers
Answer:
They aerate the soil-
They pollinate blossoms
Some are are scavengers, and feed on dead animals and fallen trees, thereby recycling nutrients back into the soil.
They produce silk (worms)
they clean up waste
The psychologist most closely associated with the school of functionalism is
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Edward B. Titchener. Functionalists, including psychologists William James and James Rowland Angell, and philosophers George H, they stressed the importance of empirical, rational thought over an experimental, trial-and-error philosophy.
hope it helps
What are gyres?
1.Large plants that move in circles in the ocean.
2.Large circulating parts of the ocean
3.Large animals in the ocean that move in circles in the ocean.
Answers
Answer:
A gyre is a circular ocean current formed by the Earth's wind patterns and the forces created by the rotation of the planet..
Explanation:
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Mendel first crossed true-breeding plants to produce a second generation, which were then allowed to self-pollinate to generate the offspring. How do we name these three generations?
Answers
Answer:
P, F1 and F2
Explanation:
The first generation crossed which included the true breeding parents are the P generation plant. This produces the two subsequent generations which are the first filial generation (F1) and the second filial generation (F2).
Antimicrobial peptides can do all of the following except:_________A) regulate body temperature.B) target intracellular components.C) insert themselves into target cell membranes.D) disrupt plasma membrane and/or cell wall.E) stimulate leukocytes.
Answers
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
Antimicrobial peptides cannot regulate body temperature. They can do all of the rest.
=> target intra cellular components.
=> insert themselves into target cell membranes.
=> disrupt plasma membrane and/or cell wall.
=> stimulate leukocytes.
What is the defining characteristic of eusocial population a. If complex communication allows for the efficient transmission of information b. If the distance between social groups is greater than the mean subpopulation census c. if the effective population size is much less than the haploid deficiency value d. if there is complete division of roles within the society particularly with regards to reproduction
Answers
Answer:
d. if there is complete division of roles within the society particularly with regards to reproduction.
Explanation:
Eusocial insects are those insects that live in a colony with only some individuals capable of reproducing. usually there is division of labour with different individuals undertaking different roles such as defence or foraging. Examples of eusocial insects are bees, ants and wasps.
Hope it helps.
Statement that explains defining characteristic of eusocial population is D: if there is complete division of roles within the society particularly with regards to reproduction.
Eusocial population usually have extreme task specialization, and this usually help colonies to achieve gathering of resources.At times, due to constraints on independent breeding, they sometimes forgo reproduction.Therefore, option D is correct.
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Fill in the blanks with appropriate wods.
1. A process called__________ helps to propel first the bolus and then chyme forward through the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine.
2. Nutrients are absorbed through the lining of the small intestine via a variety of mechanisms. Most nutrients require______________ , where a specific carrier protein is utilized, but no energy is required.
3. Some smaller molecules can cross via_____________ , Like with facilitated diffusion, no energy is required because the concentration of a nutrient is higher inside the GI tract than in the enterocyte. Unlike with facilitated diffusion, however, no ____________ is needed.
4. Nutrients like glucose and amino acids are absorbed through ______________ , which requires both a carrier protein and energy in the form of ATP.
5. A fourth method is called _____________ , which involves a vesicle that forms from the enterocyte's cell membrane, engulfing the nutrient and then drawing the nutrient into the cell.
6. Once absorbed, water-soluble nutrients like carbohydrates and amino acids enter capillaries and travel to the liver via the ___________ .
7. Fat-soluble nutrients initially travel via the _____________ before entering the bloodstream.
8. Most water is absorbed in the _____________ , and solid waste is then eliminated.
a. Large intestine
b. Peristalsis
c. Passive diffusion
d. Carrier protein
e. Active transport
f. Facilitated diffusion
g. Endocytosis
h. Lymphatic system
i. Hepatic portal vein
Answers
Answer:
1. b. Peristalsis
2. c. Passive diffusion
3. Facilitated diffusion, d. Carrier protein
4. e. Active transport
5. g. Endocytosis
6. i. Hepatic portal vein
7. h. Lymphatic system
8. a. Large intestine
Explanation:
1. peristalsis helps to propel first the bolus and then chyme forward through the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine.
2. Nutrients are absorbed through the lining of the small intestine via a variety of mechanisms. Most nutrients require passive diffusion, where a specific carrier protein is utilized, but no energy is required.
3. Some smaller molecules can cross via facilitated diffusion Like with facilitated diffusion, no energy is required because the concentration of a nutrient is higher inside the GI tract than in the enterocyte. Unlike with facilitated diffusion, however, no carrier protein is needed.
4. Nutrients like glucose and amino acids are absorbed through active transport which requires both a carrier protein and energy in the form of ATP.
5. A fourth method is called endocytosis which involves a vesicle that forms from the enterocyte's cell membrane, engulfing the nutrient and then drawing the nutrient into the cell.
6. Once absorbed, water-soluble nutrients like carbohydrates and amino acids enter capillaries and travel to the liver via the hepatic system
7. The lymphatic system helps in traveling of the Fat-soluble nutrients initially, before entering the bloodstream.
8. Most water is absorbed and solid waste is then eliminated. in the large intestine
A farmer plants Bt cotton that is genetically modified to produce its own insecticide. Of the cotton bollworms feeding on these Bt plants, only 5% survive unless they have at least one copy of the dominant resistance allele R that confers resistance to the Bt insecticide. When the farmer first plants Bt cotton, the frequency of the R allele in the cotton bollworm population is 0.01. What will the frequency of the resistance allele be after one generation of cotton bollworms fed on Bt cotton [answer]
Answers
Answer:
the frequency of the resistant allele after one generation is 0.989
Explanation:
Given that :
A farmer plants Bt cotton that is genetically modified to produce its own insecticide.
Of the cotton bollworms feeding on these Bt plants, only 5% survive
i.e the survival rate s = 5% =0.05
unless they have at least one copy of the dominant resistance allele R that confers resistance to the Bt insecticide
Frequency of R allele = 0.01
In order to determine what will the frequency of the resistance allele be after one generation of cotton bollworms fed on Bt cotton; we need to first determine the frequency of the recessive allele r.
According to Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium ;
p+q = 1
Let p = R and q = r
R + r = 1
0.01 + r = 1
r = 1 - 0.01
r = 0.99
Now; the frequency of the resistance allele after one generation can be calculated as :
[tex]q' = \dfrac{q(1-sq)}{1-(sq^2)}[/tex]
where ;
q' = R
q = r
[tex]q' = \dfrac{0.99(1-(0.05 \times 0.99))}{1-(0.05 \times 0.99^2)}[/tex]
[tex]q' = \dfrac{0.99(0.9505)}{1-(0.049005)}[/tex]
[tex]q' = \dfrac{0.940995}{0.950995}[/tex]
q' = 0.989
Thus; the frequency of the resistant allele after one generation is 0.989
A science student makes the following statement: I think that plants grow faster in acidic soil than they do in normal soil. Which of these is the student doing?
Answers
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
A science student makes the following statement:
I think plants grow faster in acidic soil than they do in normal soil.
Which part of the scientific process is this?
A. Analyzing data
B. Testing a hypothesis
C. Forming a hypothesis
D. Stating a theory
Answer:
C. Forming a hypothesis
Explanation:
The given statement is a "hypothesis" formed by a science student.
A hypothesis form a relationship between independent variable and dependent variable. Independent variable is the variable that a researcher or scientist controls while dependent variable is the variable that a scientist observes and measures.
So, in the given statement, independent variable is the concentration of acidic and normal soil and dependent variable is the growth of the plant, that the student will observe.
Hence, Student is making a hypothesis and the correct option is "C".
In the intrinsic pathway, the reaction begins with clotting factors from the _.
Answers
Answer:
Clotting factors are circulating in the blood.
Explanation:
In the intrinsic pathway, the body is responding intravascular damage through binding of platelets, exposure of chemicals or even collagen from endothelial membranes. The most of the clotting factors are synthesized by the liver and circulate around the blood stream until they are needed or until they are degraded based off their half lives.
When the platelets start to aggregate they release chemicals and have proteins that can attract the clotting factors. In the intrinsic pathway, clotting Factor XII starts off the cascade. Hope that helped :)
Jose Salazar has been hospitalized following a motor vehicle accident. He has several broken bones, including his left jaw, two ribs on the left side, and a compound fracture of his left leg. According to his medical record, he is 47 years old, his height is 5'9", and his weight is 171 pounds. During the course of his hospital stay, he was diagnosed with a heart arrhythmia. His current medications include lovastatin to lower his cholesterol, an MAO inhibitor to treat depression, and an analgesic to treat his pain. Mr. Salazar's wife also reports that he takes several herbal products including yohimbe, kava, valerian, and St. John's wort. Which herbal product taken by Mr. Salazar may be causing his heart arrhythmia?a. yohimbeb. kava kava onlyc. St. John's wortd. valerian onlye. both valerian and kava kava
Answers
Answer:
a. yohimbeb
Explanation:
Heart arrhythmia is a heart disease in which the heart does not work properly. The main cause of heart arrhythmia is yohimbeb which is used as a medicine for increasing sexual desires but this herbal product also has side effects such as causing heart problems such as heart arrhythmia and kidney diseases. So the Jose Salazar should avoid the consumption of yohimbeb in order to control the heart disease.
Which combination forms a covalent bond?
A. Two carbon atoms
B. Two oxygen molecules
C. Two water molecules
D. Two sodium atoms
SUSMIT
!!!
Answers
Answer:
A. Two carbon atoms
Explanation:
We know that covalent bond occurs when there are two non - metallic atoms and carbon atoms are non-metallic so it is the answer.
Hope it helps and pls mark as brainliest :)
DNA damage checkpoints are crucial for preventing cell proliferation when DNA damage has occurred. The role of DNA checkpoint proteins in the cell cycle is closely tied to the roles of DNA repair enzymes, although these proteins perform different functions.1. Which of the following statements is true for DNA checkpoint proteins and not for DNA repair enzymes? a. These proteins remove a single nucleotide of damaged DNA. b. These proteins nick the phosphodiester backbone of the damaged DNA. c. These proteins prevent the cell cycle from progressing if damaged DNA is detected. d. These proteins remove the region of damaged DNA. 2. Which cell cycle phases contain critical DNA damage checkpoints?a. Gob. G1c. G2d. M
Answers
Answer:
1. C. These proteins prevent the cell cycle from progressing if damaged DNA is detected.
2. C. G2
Explanation:
1. All other choices apply uniquely to DNA repair enzymes (i.e. not to DNA checkpoint proteins).
2. Go doesn't contain any critical DNA damage checkpts. because it's not even an official part of the cell cycle; it's simply a phase in which cells are arrested. G1 doesn't contain any critical DNA damage checkpts. because it's before DNA is replicated. G2 is right after S phase when the DNA is replicated; thus, it contains critical DNA damage checkpts.
A biologist is studying how green sea turtles choose where to lay their eggs. She makes a hypothesis that because this species is related to other sea turtles through common ancestry, they probably all use the same process. This biologist formed her hypothesis using:________
a. A hunch
b. The unifying theory of evolution
c. Experimentation
d. The scientific method
e. Observations of green sea turtles' behavior
Answers
Answer:
Option b
Explanation:
Hypotheses are carried out as proposed explanation made on the basis of limited evidence which serves as a beginning point for further study.
The biologist in this case has a limited evidence with regards to this species which is just only about its ancestry, so her hypothesis was based on the unifying theory of evolution which is the framework within which biologists ask questions about the living world providing predictions with regards to directions about living things.
The correct answer, unequivocally, is (B).
- This is because she used her knowledge that, from an standpoint of evolution, these turtles were related to each other.
Question 11 (5 points)
Which of the follow best decribes the function of a ligament?
Connect muscles to other muscles
Connect muscles to the nervous system
Connect bones to other bones
Connect muscles to bones
Answers
Answer:
Connects Bones to other Bones.
Explanation:
A ligament is a tissue that connects two bones together to form a joint.
Answer:
connect bones to other bones
Explanation:
Ligaments connect bones to other bones. Tendons connect bones to muscles.
The NADH and FADH2 molecules that are used during the reactions of the electron transport chain are derived from glycolysis, the preparatory reactions, and the citric acid cycle.
a) true
b) false
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is option a) "true".
Explanation:
The electron transport chain that takes place in mitochondria during cellular respiration is interconnected with several other biological pathways in the cell. These pathways include glycolysis, the preparatory reactions, and the citric acid cycle, where NADH and FADH2 molecules are synthesized. In glycolysis and citric acid cycle, 2 NADH and 3 NADH molecules are synthesized, respectively. Regarding FADH2, one molecule of this compound is synthesized per each cycle of the citric acid cycle.
The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________. adipose tissue and nerve fibers cartilage and interstitial lamellae blood vessels yellow marrow and spicules
Answers
Answer:
Blood vessels and nerve fibers
Explanation:
The Haversian canal serves as the bone tissues and it runs through the core of each osteon. The osteon surrounds the Haversian canal and contain structures called lamellae.
These lamella are made largely of collagen fibers and also various network of rich blood vessels and cells which produces blood cells in the body. Nerve cells which helps in the relay of impulses are also present. The rich contents of the bone gives it its strength and durability.
Answer:
The correct answer is: blood vessels and nerve fibers.
Explanation:
Haversian Canals are a group of tubes that are located in the more peripheral region of the bone, known as the cortical bone. The cortical bone is hard and compact and is composed of several concentric layers of bone cells (osteocytes and osteoblasts) that circle around a haversian canal, which contains capillaries and nerve fibers. This structure is called an osteon.
Haversian Canals are very important for the correct functioning of the bone, as they give the cells their needed blood supply and innervation.
Which structure is represented by the X?
Answers
Answer:
May be trachea
Explanation: