pls help me need help fast

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

C

Answer:

Number 1: 1, 3, 5, 7 (or 4)

Number 2: 2, 4, 6, 8 (or 4)

Number 3: 1

Number 4: 2

Number 5:  1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 (or 88%)

Number 6: 2, 3, 4 , 5, 6, 7, 8 (or 88%)

Step-by-step explanation:

All numbers belong to the set of numbers known as the real number system. The real number system consists of

every number you have ever dealt with since you were old enough to count. The numbers in the real number system

are divided into two main groups. One group is called the rational numbers and the other is called the irrational

numbers. The set of irrational numbers consists of all numbers that are not rational. This set of irrational numbers

includes those numbers that cannot be written as the ratio of two integers, non-remediate numbers.

and decimals that do not have a repeating pattern of digits. For example, pi(π),

√

2,−2.345876921... are irrational

numbers.

The set of rational numbers includes natural numbers, whole numbers, integers, numbers that can be expressed as

the ratio of two integers, a decimal number that terminates, and decimal numbers that have a repeating pattern of digits.

The natural numbers are the set of positive integers. For example, 1, 2, 3. . . are all natural numbers. The whole

numbers are the natural numbers and zero. For example, 0, 1, 2, 3. . . are all whole numbers. The integers are

the whole numbers and their opposites. For example, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2. . . are all integers. A rational number is any

number that can be expressed in the form of a

b where b 6= 0. When a rational number is expressed as a decimal, it

decimal will terminate (end) or For example, 1

2

,

√

81,−7.456 545 654 are

all rational numbers.

When you classify numbers remember that they can often belong to more than one set of numbers. If you think of

the number 3, you can call it a natural number, a whole number, an integer and a rational number.

The following table may help you to better understand the real number system.

Answer:

21>x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

- During round 1, Tyler’s group picked 4 purple blocks and 12 blocks of other colors.

Answer:

3,6,6,9  (6 is not a function and has been repeated twice)

-1,-2,-5,-7  

sorry if their wrong id.rk

Answer:

6 is wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B)

Step-by-step explanation:

A, C, and D multiple choice answers have no chance of becoming a triangle because the lengths don't add up to either 180 or 90. Also, Triangle B follows the rule that 2 sides and be greater than the other side.

Answer: Choice B)

3 sides measuring 14 m, 11 m, and 18 m

=================================================

Explanation:

Let's go through choices A through D to see which result in one unique triangle, or could produce (infinitely) many triangles, or produce no triangles at all.

Even if the angles did add to 180 (for either choice A or choice C), then we'd have infinitely many triangles and not one unique triangle. Think of dilating the triangles and how each dilated image retains the same angles. In other words, the triangles keep the same shape. Simply knowing the three angles is not enough info to create one unique triangle. We would need to know some info about the sides. This explains why AA or AAA is not a congruence theorem.

Answer:

if the length of the brush is = 16.2m

then in cm it is  1,620cm

Answer:

2 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$1.72

Step-by-step explanation:

First, subtract the cupcake from the total

44.03-2.75=41.28

Find out the total number of cookies

8+16=24

Then divide the total cookie price by the total number of cookies

41.28÷24=1.72

Each cookie costs $1.72

Answer:

40 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you divide 30 minutes by 6 miles, so you can see how long it takes to complete 1 mile. It takes 5 minutes. Now, multiply 8 by 5 and you get 40 minutes.

Answer:

30 mins ---- 6 miles

  ? mins ---- 8 miles

30 mins - 6 miles

40 mins - 7 miles

50 mins - 8 miles

Multiply the top number of the fraction by the whole number and then place that over the lower number of the fraction. Then you can see if the new fraction can be reduced or rewritten as a proper fraction.

Example:

1/2 x 3 would be (1 x3) / 2 = 3/2 which can be rewritten as 1 1/2

Example: [tex]\frac{2}{5}*10=\frac{2}{5}*\frac{10}{1}=\frac{20}{5}=4[/tex]

Answer:

Dont forget about the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

100 is the answer

hope this helps

have a good day :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

64/2=32

Answer:

[tex]\text{Apple juice needed: }40\:\mathrm{oz},\\\text{Cranberry juice needed: }24\:\mathrm{oz}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let [tex]a[/tex] be the amount of apple juice needed, in ounces. Let [tex]c[/tex] be the amount of cranberry juice needed, in ounces. We can set up the following system of equations:

[tex]\begin{cases}a=\frac{5}{3}c, \\a+c=64\end{cases}[/tex]

Solving, we get:

[tex]\frac{5}{3}c+c=64,\\\\\frac{8}{3}c=64,\\\\c=\frac{64\cdot 3}{8}=\boxed{24\:\mathrm{oz}}[/tex]

[tex]a=\frac{5}{3}c,\\\\a=\frac{5}{3}(24),\\\\a=\boxed{40\:\mathrm{oz}}[/tex]

Answer:

I only know the answer to number 13, and it is 61°

Step-by-step explanation:

Since I go to RSM, I learned something called a remote interior angle theorem. Basically, the exterior angle is equal to the two angles that are on the far side of the triangle. So if you do 145-74, you get 61°.

Answer: 61°

Answer:

In lowest terms, there is a 1/3 probability of Jason pulling out a baseball card.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are a total of 6 cards. 4/6 of them are football and wrestling which results in 2 baseball cards. So the probability is 2/6 but since the question wants it in lowest terms, you would have to simplfy 2/6. Divide the top by 2 and the bottom by 2 which gets you 1/3.

Answer: the one in 2008 has more higher scores.

Step-by-step explanation:the highest score was 15 and it was in 2008.

Answer:

in 2008 they had a lot of points scored around the same number which was a lower number. However, they had a better season in 2016 because they had more instances where they had 20 points or higher

Step-by-step explanation: I tried my best. Not 100% sure what type of answer you´re looking for.

Answer:

75

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume = 1/2*B*H

So 10 times 3 times 5 divided by 1/2. 10 times 3 is 30, multiplied by 5 is 150.

150 divided by 0.5 (1/2) is 75.

Find :-

= 1/27

= 1/(3×3×3)

= 1/3³

= 3^(-3)

Veryfication

Our option (c). be like 3^(-4) . 3^7

Now, we explain our ans.

= 3^(-4).3^7

Using Formula

★ a^m × a^n = a^(m + n)

So,

= 3^(-4+7)

= 3^(-3) .

proved.

0+7=7

1+7=8

2+7=9

3+7=10

4+7=11

5+7=12

We can find patterns.

So the answer would be +7.

Answer:

Um i dont think so

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:You can use the Counting Principle to find probabilities of events. The probability of any event is equal to the ratio of favorable outcomes to the total number of equally likely possible outcomes. Favorable outcomes are the outcomes you are looking for.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=-46/5

Step-by-step explanation:

1. subtract either 5/6 or add 3 for each side.

2. combine terms

3. x=-46/5

The interest rate is +906.6 per year.