Please help. Brainliest will be given! 25 points. Show all work.

Answer:

[tex]k=784 N/m[/tex]

[tex]\Delta x=8,8 cm[/tex]

Explanation:

Usando la ley de Hook tenemos:

[tex]F=k\Delta x[/tex]

Solving it for k we have:

[tex]k=\frac{F}{\Delta x}[/tex]

[tex]k=\frac{39,2}{0,05}[/tex]

[tex]k=784 N/m[/tex]

Usando la misma ecuación y sabiendo k tenemos:

[tex]\Delta x=\frac{F}{k}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta x=\frac{68,6}{784}[/tex]

[tex]\Delta x=8,8 cm[/tex]

Espero esto te ayude!

Answer:

c i took the test

Explanation:

The total amount of energy in this scenario is transformed into other forms of energy because of the burning process of the wood.

The energy present in the wood change into other forms of energy such as heat and radiant energy. We know that during a reaction, matter is transformed into another form with the release of different types of energy.

So we can conclude that he total amount of energy in this scenario is transformed into other forms of energy because of the burning process of the wood.

Learn more about energy here: https://brainly.com/question/13881533

Answer:

people in urban areas strip the soil of nutrition and makes it difficult to grow crops. people of urban areas consume more energy,food,and water. people in urban areas remove minerals and metals from the ground so, urbanization is a contribution to pollution .

Explanation:

it may help you and give me brainliest

Answer:

pollution and loss of trees not to mention how much electricity we use which doesnt benefit the world.

Explanation: because when we urbanize things we get rid of natural resources around us

Answer:

we should not drop a magnet on the floor because the magnets tend to lose magnetism gradually and become weak over a period of time if they are not stored properly.

Answer:

Well depending on the floor like say if it was a wooden floor the magnet might lose it magnetism, if concrete floor the magnetic brake and still lose it magnetism, if a metal floor the magnet would stick not sure if it wood lose it magnetism or not but the possibilities still there, basically what I'm saying is the magnet would lose its magnetism if it were to interact with the floor maybe temporary or maybe permanently.

for those with with a learning disability it's a

Explanation:

Answer: B.) HYDROPLANE

Explanation: The term hydroplane can be used to refer to a condition which usually occur during a downpour or on surfaces covered by water. It occurs when water forms a barrier or comes in between the frictional grip which occurs between the road surface and the car tyres. The contact between the car tyres and the road surface is supposed to give adequate frictional support which prevents the car from skidding or skidding uncontrollably on the road surface. However, when water comes invetween the surface, traction is lost and skidding results due to very low Coefficient of friction between the road and Tyre which was supposed to provide a firm grip between the tyres and the road surface.

When a vehicle is traveling on wet or slick roads, hydroplaning can occur. The correct answer is b) hydroplane.

When a vehicle is traveling on wet or slick roads, hydroplaning can occur. Hydroplaning happens when a layer of water builds up between the tires of the vehicle and the road surface, leading to a loss of traction.

This loss of traction can cause the vehicle to skid or slide, making it difficult to control. The tires ride on top of the water rather than maintaining contact with the road, resulting in reduced traction and control of the vehicle.

Therefore, When a vehicle is traveling on wet or slick roads, hydroplaning can occur. The correct answer is b) hydroplane.

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Answer:

c) Both the parts will weigh the same

Explanation:

center of gravity is based on weight so if you cut down the center of gravity you would have 2 equal parts

(might be D if it is cutting against the center of gravity)

Answer:

for every action thete is an equal and opposite reaction

Answer:

Newton’s third law of motion says that for every action there is a(n)

equal and opposite reaction.

Explanation:

just got it right edg 1928

Answer:

An object moving in certain direction with an acceleration in the perpendicular direction. The above condition is possible . Example of such situation in life would be when stone tied to a string whirling in a circular path

Hope this helps and pls mark as BRAINLIEST :)

Answer:

Water is non-polar molecule False

Water is polar molecule because the electronegativity of Oxygen is much greater than electronegativity of hydrogen and it has also a bend shape that is why it is polar molecule.

Explanation:

I hope this will help you :)

False. Water is a polar molecule.

Water (H2O) consists of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. The oxygen atom has a higher electronegativity, meaning it attracts electrons more strongly than hydrogen.

As a result, the shared electrons in the covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen are pulled closer to the oxygen atom, creating an uneven distribution of charge.

This leads to a partial negative charge (δ-) on the oxygen atom and partial positive charges (δ+) on the hydrogen atoms, making water a polar molecule.

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Answer:

LED;

      The energy of photons emitted by an LED is dictated by the band gap of the semiconductor used – the energy required to make an electron–hole pair. When an electron and hole recombine in a radiative process, a photon carries away the extra energy.

BULB

        In the light bulb, the flow of charge through the filament heats it up and causes it to glow. In this way, the light bulb converts electrical energy to heat energy and light energy. ... 1, chemical potential energy is converted to electrical energy, which is immediately converted to light energy and heat energy

       This flow of charge converts chemical potential energy into electrical energy. In the light bulb, the flow of charge through the filament heats it up and causes it to glow. In this way, the light bulb converts electrical energy to heat energy and light energy. bulb have a fillament but LED have no filament they produce energy through clod process but bulb have a filament and they produce energy through hot process

Explanation:

This progression of charge changes over substance expected vitality into electrical vitality. In the light, the progression of charge through the fiber warms it up and makes it shine. Along these lines, the light believers electrical vitality to warm vitality and light vitality.

hope soo u can understand my point

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The force is  [tex]\= F = (-0.001089, 0 ,0)[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The magnetic dipole moment of first magnet  is  [tex]z_1 = (6,0,0) A \cdot m^2[/tex]

       The magnetic dipole moment of second magnet  is  [tex]z_2 = (7,0,0) A \cdot m^2[/tex]

       The location of the second magnetic dipole moment is  [tex]x = 0.39 \ m[/tex]

Generally the vector force on the second magnet due to the first is mathematically evaluated as

         [tex]\= F =- \frac{\mu_o }{4 \pi} * \frac{6 * z_1 * z_2}{x^4}[/tex]

Where  [tex]\mu _o[/tex] is the permeability of free space with value  [tex]4\pi * 10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

substituting values

            [tex]\= F = - \frac{ 4\pi * 10^{-7} }{4 \pi} * \frac{6 * 6 * 7}{0.39^4}[/tex]

           [tex]\= F = (-0.001089, 0 ,0)[/tex]

Note the negative sign show that the force is an attraction force

Explanation:

2. Heat gained by tap1 = mass1 × SHC × change in temperature

= mass1 × 4200 × (40 - 26)

= mass1 × 58800

Heat lost by tap 2 = mass2 × SHC × change in temperature

= mass2 × 4200 × (82 - 40)

= mass2 × 176400

Heat gained = heat lost

mass1 × 58800 = mass2 × 176400

Ratio of mass 1 to mass 2 = 58800mass1 : 176400mass2

= 1 : 3

Answer:

P = VI = (IR)I = I2R

Explanation:

What the equation means is that if you double the current you end up with 4 times the power loss. It's like the area of carpet you need for a room - if you make the room twice as long and twice as wide you need 4x as much carpet. The physical explanation is that the voltage difference along a wire depends on the current - more current flowing with a resistance means more voltage (pressure of electricity if you like) is built up.

This extra voltage means more power. So if you double the current your would double the power, but you also double the voltage which doubles the power again = 4x as much power. P = VI = (IR)I = I2R

I hope this helps you out, if I'm wrong, just tell me.

As I mentioned earlier, Ohm's law gives us the formula P = IV, where V is the voltage ( also known as the electrical potential difference ) and I is the current. It is confusing that P = I²R and P = IV are one in the same - so I want to go a bit deeper on that.

We have three formulas, P = IV, P = I²R, and P = V² / R. Each are considered the same. The two formulas P = I²R, and P = V² / R are derived from the statement that P = IV, under the condition V = IR. Substitute the value of V from this second condition V = IR into P = IV. You would get the following -

P = I( IR ),

P = I²R

That is how one can derive the formula P = I²R, and how P = IV and P = I²R are thought to be one in the same. If you would like, take a look at how to get the formula " P = V² / R, "

V = IR, P = IV

I = V / R, P = IV

P = ( V / R )V,

P = V² / R

Hope that helps!

Answer:

Part A)

Since all of the resistors have equal resistance, hence for finding even only 1 branch It will be fine because current will be the same for all branches.

=> [tex]I = \frac{V}{R_{1} }[/tex]

=> [tex]I = \frac{30}{15}[/tex]

=> I = 2 A

Part B)

Equivalent resistance for parallel circuits is the sum of reciprocals of each resistor.

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}} +\frac{1}{R_{3}}[/tex]  

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{15}+ \frac{1}{15}+\frac{1}{15}[/tex]

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{3}{15}[/tex]

=> R = 15/3

=> R = 5 ohms

Part C)

I = V/R

Where I is current, V is voltage and R is the equivalent resistance

=> I = 30/5

=> I = 6 A

Answer:

hope its helpful to uh...

Answer:

1,600 km

Explanation:

since the acceleration due to gravity reduces by 36%, it means that (1 - 36%) of acceleration still remains:

g' = 64g/100

using the acceleration formula:

g' = g x [R² / (R + height)²]

64g/100 = g x [R² / (R + height)²]

64/100 = R² / (R + height)²

√(64/100) = √[R² / (R + height)²]

8/10 = R / (R + height)

8 (R + height) = 10R

8R + 8height = 10R

8height = 2R

height = 2R / 8 = R / 4

R = 6,400 km

height = 6,400 km / 4 = 1,600 km

Answer:

Answer:

it shows that co2 is absorbed by the atmosphere.

when the animals respire they produce co2 which is release in atmosphere and in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll the plants manufacturs the food and releases the oxygen in the atmosphere .

hope it helps..

Answer:

Its A

Explanation:

Answer:

a = 1.07 m/s^2

Explanation:

The computation of the acceleration is shown below:

As we know that

[tex]v_f^{2} - v_i^{2} = 2 ad[/tex]

where,

v_i = 0 m/s  = initial speed

v f = 8 m/s  = final speed

d = 30m = distance

Now placing these values to the above equation

[tex]8^{2} - 0 = 2 \times a \times 30[/tex]

64 = 60a

a = 1.07 m/s^2

We simply applied the above formula so that we could able to determine the acceleration

Answer:

(B)

Explanation:

Because what ever angle the surface is, the light will reflect of of it perpendicular.

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Answer:

the following image will make you understand

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer to this should be: 5.0 x 10⁸ Hz

Explanation:

The speed, s, of a wave, equals the product of its frequency, ν, times its wavelength, λ:

s = νλ.

As the question states, the speed of an electromagnetic wave is a constant, c, equal to 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s.

Substituting this constant in the equation for the speed of the wave, you get:

c =  νλ.

From that equation, you can solve for the frequency to show the inverse realation of frequency and wavelength:

ν =  c / λ

Now, you just have to substitute values and compute, leaving you with:

5.0 x 10⁸ Hz

Answer:

circular motion

Explanation:

hope this helps you :)

Answer:

Centripetal motion

Explanation:

As a motorcycle takes a sharp turn the type of motion that occurs is called centripetal motion

Answer:

Ohm's Law:

[tex]V = IR[/tex]

Where V is voltage, I is current and R is resistance

While,

[tex]P = IV[/tex]

Where P is power, I is current and V is voltage (or potential difference)

So, Electrical power is the product of current and potential difference.

Answer:

Ted is correct

Explanation:

The equation for gravitational potential energy is PE = m·g·h

The equation for gravitational kinetic energy is KE = 1/2·m·v²

Where:

m = Mass of the object (The racing car)

g = Acceleration due to gravity

h = The height to which the object is raised

v = Velocity of motion of the object

From the principle of conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed but changes from one form to another, we have;

Potential energy gained from location at height h = Kinetic energy gained as the object moves down the level ground

m·g·h = 1/2·m·v² canceling like terms gives

g·h = 1/2·v²

v = (√2·g·h)

If the speed is doubled, we have

2·v = 2× (√2·g·h) =  (√2·g·4·h)

Therefore, if 2·v = v₂ then v₂ =  (√2·g·4·h)

Since g, the acceleration due to gravity, is constant, it means that the initial  height must be multiplied or increased 4 times to get the new height, that is we have;

v₂ =  (√2·g·4·h) = (√2·g·h₂)

Where:

4·h = h₂

Which gives;

v₂² = 2·g·h₂

1/2·v₂² = g·h₂

1/2·m·v₂² = m·g·h₂ Just like in the first relation

Therefore, Ted is correct s they need to go up four times the initial height to double the speed.

Answer:

104.9 m

5.63 s

45.3 m/s

Explanation:

Given:

y₀ = 100 m

v₀ = 9.8 m/s

a = -9.8 m/s²

Find: y when v = 0 m/s

v² = v₀² + 2a (y − y₀)

(0 m/s)² = (9.8 m/s)² + 2 (-9.8 m/s²) (y − 100 m)

y = 104.9 m

Find: t when y = 0 m

y = y₀ + v₀ t + ½ at²

0 m = 100 m + (9.8 m/s) t + ½ (-9.8 m/s²) t²

0 = 100 + 9.8t − 4.9t²

t = [ -9.8 ± √(9.8² − 4(-4.9)(100)) ] / 2(-4.9)

t = (-9.8 ± 45.3) / -9.8

t = 5.63 s

Find: v when y = 0 m

v² = v₀² + 2a (y − y₀)

v² = (9.8 m/s)² + 2 (-9.8 m/s²) (0 m − 100 m)

v = -45.3 m/s

|v| = 45.3 m/s

Answer:

It is not a uniform velocity, because his velocity increases for 5 m every second (acceleration = 5m/s2), meaning his velocity always changes.

When he starts at rest, his velocity is 0 m/s. But in 1 second later, his velocity is already 5m/s. At 2 seconds, his velocity will be 10 m/s.

Answer:

25.13 ft

Explanation:

r = 4 feet

ω=0.25 revolution per minute

=1 revolution in  4 minutes  

total number of revolution N = 1 (in 4 minutes )

v=rω

distance traveled = 2×N×π×r

=2×1×π×4  

=8π

= 25.13ft in 4mins

Answer:

85.0 please I don't understand

Answer:

D. the water's latent heat of vaporization is being pulled from the air.

Explanation:

A swamp cooler also generally referred to as the evaporative cooler is an electronic device that uses moisture to cool air. This simply means that, the electronic device works on the principle of evaporation of water to cool the surrounding air.

In swamp coolers, water absorbs large amount of warm air via the evaporative wet cooler pad, so as to evaporate and consequently cooling the air effectively and efficiently.

Swamp coolers are effective because the water's latent heat of vaporization is being pulled from the air.

The latent heat of vaporization can be defined as the energy that is being absorbed by water during evaporation.

The swamp coolers are typically made up of the following essential components, these are;

1. Float.

2. Blower.

3. Pump.

4. Evaporative pad.

5. Water supply valve.

Hence, through the principle of evaporative cooling (latent heat of vaporization), swamp coolers reduces or lower the air temperature in its surroundings.

Answer:

B and D

Explanation: