Answer:
See below
Explanation:
There were yellow seedlings in Dish #1 during the light phase and also during the dark in Dish #2. The difference in these results is likely due to the period of exposure to light.
There are more number of yellow seedlings on Day 4. This is probably because of being kept in the dark for a long period of time. Light intensity is the experimental variable that accounts for this difference in appearance.
The yellow color is being environmentally controlled since the parent phenotype was wildtype in this experiment. The environment has an effect on which genes are expressed in the organism, which in turn influences the phenotype observed.
2. Where does cellular respiration take places in the cell?
Answer:
Explanation:mitochondria
The enzymatic reactions of cellular respiration begin in the cytoplasm, but most of the reactions occur in the mitochondria. Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion. The folds in the inner membrane are called cristae.
Answer:
IT TAKES PLACE IN THE CYTOPLASM BUT MOST OF THE REACTIONS TAKE PLACE IN THE MITOCHONDRIA
Explanation:
Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion
HOPE IT HELPS
The currently accepted model of the coeur laboratory you are observing skin cells labeled 'defective' to determine what is wrong with them. After careful observation you notice that the cytoskeleton is there, but the cell is still having trouble maintaining its shape. Infer what could be damaged.l membrane was discovered by
Answer:
Cell membrane
Explanation:
The cytoskeleton is known to be a kind of proteinous filaments which is found in the cytoplasm of organism but grow out to the cell membrane to give shape to the organism and likewise help in movement.
In the case highlighted above, the organism might still not be able to get a shape especially when the cell membrane is affected or being damaged.
Which type of mutation results in a frame shift mutation? Check all that apply? Substitute Insertion Deletion Point mutation
Answer: Insertion, Deletion
Explanation:
The frameshift mutation can be defined as a genetic mutation that is caused by the deletion or insertion of the DNA sequence or base pairs that shifts the sequence to be read. As a result of this the abnormal proteins are produced along with incorrect amino acid sequence that either shorter or longer than the normal protein.
maggots feed on dead and decaying organisms for energy. what are maggots
Answer:
Decomposers, or as they're alternatively known, detritovores.
Explanation:
Their job is to break down decaying/dead organic matter to recycle it into the soil for plants (mainly). Fungi and bacteria make up the vast majority of decomposers.
How Can Regulation be Accomplished? Chemotaxis by Pseudomonas aeruginosa requires regulation of macromolecules in response to signals. Protein regulation is very important and can be grouped into two categories: those that are based on protein activity and those that are based on the amount of protein present ,write the type of regulation described that does not affect the amount of protein present.
1. regulating amount of mRNA made
2. catabolite repression
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
4. attenuation controlling whether mRNA is translated
Answer:
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
Explanation:
The post-translational modification does not affect the amount of protein present because this type of change is only done to the protein when the translation process has finished, and there is a protein as a result. After the translation, the final product can suffer modifications such as the addition of different components, or enzymatic modifications. In other words, they are chemical changes that the protein experiences that do not affect the amount of protein present.
The women has had two miscarriages. What is the chance that she could have a normal child? a. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.b. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.c. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers.d. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers
During which phase of the cell cycle do chromatids form?
-Lab-
"Why are cells so small"
Answer:
Explanation:
Because we need a lot of cells and if they were big only a small about would fit.
Explain TWO strategic ways employed by microbes of extreme environments that enable them withstand harsh environmental and physical conditions
Answer:
Explanation:
Some microbes are thermophiles and they can survive in area with high temperature between 45 -80°C, they are chemoautotroph in nature, oxidizing sulphur to products acids such as sulfur in the environment. This acid also help them to better adapt to the environment as many thermophiles likes acidic environment.
Thermophiles body has saturated and straight chain fatty acid that helps prevent denaturation which enables them grow and thrive in harsh weather condition by providing the fluidity that is needed in membrane function.
Thermophiles are also small in sizes this ensure there stability.
During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear membrane, nucleoli, nucleus dissolve
Answer:
Prophase stage
Hope this helps
Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?
in humans unattached earlobes are dominant over attached earlobes. which could be the genotybe for someone with attached earlobs/Answer/a is Ee/b is e/c is ee/D is E
Answer:
C. ee
Explanation:
attached earlobes isn't the dominant trait, if it isn't dominant then it'll have lower case letters to represent it
Answer:
C
Explanation
hopes this helps :]
g If a pair of sister chromatids fail to separate during anaphase II (meiosis II), what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)
Answer:
The result will be two gametes with a normal haploid number (n), one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) and one gamete missing one chromosome (n − 1).
Explanation:
Nondisjunction is caused by the failure in the mechanism of separation of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids during meiosis and/or mitosis. The failure in the separation of sister chromatids during meiosis II is referred to as 'secondary nondisjunction' and it produces two daughter cells with abnormal chromosome numbers.
The fusion of one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) with a normal (n) gamete will lead to trisomy (2n + 1), while the fusion of one gamete missing one chromosome (n - 1) with a normal gamete will lead to monosomy (2n-1).
Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition
Answer:
seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors
Explanation:
Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.
In 1668 Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze will exclude the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, fies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The experiment was inconclusive because it did not nun long enough
B. The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
C. The expertment supports the hwpothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flhes
D. The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat
Answer:
The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies; that is only from reproduction and development.
Explanation:
The objective of this experimental set up by Francesco Radi was to demonstrate the concept of spontaneous generation. He concluded that, Maggots are not spontaneous generated from rotten meats, rather they are products of eggs laid by houseflies who visited the rotten meat to lay eggs. The maggots (larva) are products of complete metamorphosis, from egg to larva to pupa and adult. This is an indication that, new organisms are not formed form spontaneously, but are products of well-defined process of reproduction and development which in this case is a complete metamorphosis.
Based on this premise he concluded that, if maggots were products of laid eggs, then they should appear only when rotten meat is exposed to open air.However,if they are f products of spontaneous generation they should appear irrespective of the meat exposure to air or not.
Suppose a plant breeder wants to isolate mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair. However, this breeder does not have the expertise or equipment to study enzymes in DNA repair systems.
Which methods would best allow the breeder to identify tomato plants that are deficient in DNA repair?
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants. Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
D) Measure the germ line spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
The provided question has marked options incorrectely the correct order as follows:
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
D) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
E) Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Answer:
The correct answer is: A), C) and E)
Explanation:
The breeder wants to isolate the mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair, to identify such plants breeder should follow these methods as they will allow best to identifying the defective tomatoes-
Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants. This will allow the breeder to see and analyze the ability of DNA repair in tomatoes
Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction?
Answer:
all but the last one
Explanation:
NADH is not a product of the light reaction of photosynthesis.
• The role of NAD+ is that it acts as an electron carrier.
• NADH is formed from NAD when it oxidizes the compound by accepting electrons and adding hydrogen ions to the compound.
What do NADH mean?
NADH stands for "Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) + Hydrogen (H)." This chemical occurs naturally in the body and plays a role in the chemical process that produces energy.People use NADH supplements as medicine.Learn more about NADH here.
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The allosteric effector molecule 2,3-BPG facilitates transfer of oxygen between maternal and fetal blood in the placenta. Which of the following correctly describes the role of BPG in this process?
a. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is unable to cross the placenta into fetal blood, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
c. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
d. Fetal hemoglobin releases oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds more effectively to fetal hemoglobin causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
Answer:
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
Explanation:
BPG is a chemical compound which is found in red blood cells. It is known for decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen and thus helps in unloading oxygen from hemoglobin.
Owing to the structural difference, fetal hemoglobin binds to BPG with less affinity as compared to maternal hemoglobin thus it shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the left i.e. causes fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state. Due to this, fetal hemoglobin can carry up to 30% more oxygen as compared to maternal hemoglobin. As a result of this, oxygen is readily transferred to fetal blood when maternal blood enters placenta which restricts hypoxia in fetus.
Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?
a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Answer:
The correct answer would be:
Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Explanation:
The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.
This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.
Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).
This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.
Please describe the regulation of the blood glucose 6 hours after a meal?
Please include all relevant organs, hormones, and actions.
Answer:
Find the description below in the explanation section
Explanation:
The body system regulates the blood sugar level via the hand-in-hand working of insulin and glucagon hormones, both produced by the Pancreas. After a meal, the food undergoes digestion and is broken down into glucose, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Insulin hormone is released by the pancreas (stimulated by a negative feedback) when the sugar level of the blood increases. This secretion of insulin causes cells to absorb glucose as source of energy, while liver and muscle cells store some of the excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN.
However, after about 6 hours of taking the meal, the blood sugar (glucose) level must have decreased. This triggers the secretion of Glucagon hormone by the Pancreas. Glucagon hormone, acts in an opposite manner as Insulin hormone, by causing the stored GLYCOGEN in the liver and muscle cells to be converted back to Glucose in order for cells to make use of it.
This continuous process occurs and it is how the body regulates the blood glucose levels.
Which gas is a major contributor to ocean acidification? A. oxygen B. sulfur dioxide C. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen
Answer:C, carbon dioxide.
Explanation:Carbon Dioxide reacts with water forming Carbonic acid. This acid increases the acidity of the ocean.
Answer:
Explanation: got it correct
The largest taxon and consists of all the other taxis called
Answer:
Domain
Explanation:
Hurry please!!!
Which statement accurately describes long-term environmental changes?
Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup.
Long-term environmental changes happen suddenly with little warning,
Long-term environmental changes occur in hundreds of years.
Long-term environmental changes immediately affect organisms in the environment
Answer:
A. or #1 -- Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
How are lysosomes pro-nuclear dense bodies?
Answer:i hope this answers ur question
Explanation:
The function of the plasma membrane is....
Answer:
to protect the cell from it's surroundings
Explanation:
the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells
Explanation:
The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings.
Sorry if the ans is wrong
a strand of mRNA has the bases adenine- cytosine- uracil which amino acid corresponds to these bases?
Answer:
Threonine
Explanation:
Using the amino acid chart, the mRNA strand ACU corresponds to the amino acid Threonine.
Answer:
thr
Explanation:
i did test
The process of succession is necessary to maintain and establish stable communities. T or F
Answer: True it is necessary
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation?
A. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3
B. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATAT-3
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
D. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCCAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Answer:
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Explanation:
In the wild type, the DNA sequence encodes the following aminoacidic segment: SRSLGI; while the mutant form has a stop codon in the second codon (TGA). A stop codon is a trinucleotide sequence in the messenger RNA (mRNA) that indicates a stop signal in protein synthesis. There are three types of stop codons: UGA, UAG and UAA, where U represents Uracile in the mRNA instead of Thymine in the DNA sequence.
Representation:
C. WT 5-T AGT CGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = SRSLGI
Mutant 5-T AGT TGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = S-, where - represents a stop codon (TGA) and therefore it is the end of the protein.
At the neuromuscular junction, _______ must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________ can enter the muscle fiber.
Answer:
At the neuromuscular junction, calcium must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of acetylcholine, which binds to ligand gates so sodium ions can enter the muscle fiber.
Explanation:
Skeletal fiber contractions are based on different physiological and biochemical phenomena that happen in every cell. These phenomena are due to stimulation produced by somatic motor neurons, which axons get in contact with muscle fibers through a neuromuscular synapse. In rest, attraction strengths between myosin and actin filaments are inhibited by the tropomyosin. When an action potential is originated in the central nervous system, it travels to the somatic motor neuron membrane: the muscle fiber, and activates the calcium channels releasing it in the neuron. Calcium makes vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter named acetylcholine (Ach) into the synaptic space in the juncture. Then, Ach binds to its receptors on the skeletal muscle fiber. This causes the ion channels to open, and positively charged sodium ions cross the membrane to get into the muscle fiber (sarcoplasm) and potassium get out. The difference in charges caused by the migration of sodium and potassium makes the muscle fiber membrane to become more positively charged (depolarized). The action potential caused by this depolarization enters the t-tubules depolarizing the inner portion of the muscle fiber. This activates calcium channels in the T tubules membrane, that make the calcium be released into the sarcolemma. At this point, tropomyosin is obstructing binding sites for myosin on the thin filament. When calcium binds to the troponin C, the troponin T alters the tropomyosin by moving it and then unblocks the binding sites. Myosin binds to the uncovered actin-binding sites, and while doing it ATP is transformed into ADP and inorganic phosphate. Z-bands are then pulled toward each other, thus shortening the sarcomere and the I-band, and producing muscle fiber contraction.
If it is accepted that the information for how a protein is intended to fold lies within its primary sequence, explain why a purified protein denatured in vitro might not be able to renature accurately.
Answer:
Denaturation and renaturation are properties of protein but in some cases denaturation is irreversible and protein is unable to renature.
The primary sequence of a protein determines which portion of protein fold closely together in order to form three-dimensional conformation and the conformations are held by hydrogen bonds.
Denaturation of protein in-vitro is generally obtained by increasing temperature. Heat or high temperature disrupts hydrogen bonds that held between protein folds because high temperature increases the kinetic energy and the bonds are disrupted due to rapid heating. Disruption of hydrogen bonds will change the 3D structure of the protein and denatured proteins lose its function.
Chemicals are also used to disrupt hydrogen bonds such as alcohol.
So, high temperature and chemicals denature protein by affecting the hydrogen bonds holding 3D shape of primary sequence in protein and the change in protein becomes irreversible.