If we split the total amount of paint so that each can had the same amount, how much paint would be in each can?

Answer:

i think C correct me if im wrong pls

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

im not sure if you're using 3.14 for pi or 3 but here's the answer for pi of 3.14

Answer:

a) 3.5

b) 3.33

c) [tex]6 - 6\left(\begin{array}{ccc}5\\6\end{array}\right)^{10}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

As given,

A fair die is rolled 10 times

a)

Expected value of Sum of the number in 10 rolls = [tex]\frac{1}{6}(1+2+3+4+5+6) = \frac{21}{6}[/tex]

                                                                                = 3.5

∴ we get

Expected value of Sum of the number in 10 rolls = 3.5

b)

Ley Y : number of multiples of 3

Y be Binomial

Y - B(n = 10, p = [tex]\frac{2}{6}[/tex] )

Now,

Expected value = E(Y) = np = 10×[tex]\frac{2}{6}[/tex]  = 3.33

c)

Let m = total number of faces in a die

⇒m = 6

As die is roll 10 times

⇒n = 10

Now,

Let Y = number of different faces appears

Now,

Expected value, E(Y) = m - m[tex]\left(\begin{array}{ccc}m-1\\m\end{array}\right)^{n}[/tex]

                                  = [tex]6 - 6\left(\begin{array}{ccc}6-1\\6\end{array}\right)^{10} = 6 - 6\left(\begin{array}{ccc}5\\6\end{array}\right)^{10}[/tex]

In this exercise we have to use probability knowledge to calculate the times the numbers of a roll, in this way we have to:

a) [tex]3.5[/tex]

b) [tex]3.33[/tex]

c) [tex]6-6\left[\begin{array}{cc}5\\6\2\end{array}\right] ^{10}[/tex]

Given that a fair die is rolled 10 times:  

a) Expected value of Sum of the number in 10 rolls  :

[tex]\frac{1}{6} (1+2+3+4+5+6)= \frac{21}{6} = 3.5[/tex]                                                                            

b) Using the formula of the binomial that is represented by:

[tex]Y - B(n = 10, p = \frac{2}{6})[/tex]

Expected value:  [tex]E(Y) = np = (10)(\frac{2}{6} ) = 3.33[/tex]

c) Looking at the 10 times the roll does, we have that it will be. Let m = total number of faces in a die   that represents m  = 6, as die is roll 10 times that represents n = 10. Now,  Expected value:

[tex]= E(Y) = m - m \left[\begin{array}{cc}m-1\\m\\ \end{array}\right] \\= 6-6\left[\begin{array}{cc}5\\6\2\end{array}\right] ^{10}[/tex]

See more about probability at brainly.com/question/795909

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Second option correct

Answer:

a) 0.8088 = 80.88% probability that there are at most 2 typos on a page.

b) 0.0858 = 8.58% probability that there are exactly 10 typos in a 5-page paper.

c) 0.001 = 0.1% probability that there are exactly 2 typos on each page in a 5-page paper.

d) 0.717 = 71.7% probability that there is at least one page with no typos in a 5-page paper.

e) 0.2334 = 23.34% probability that there are exactly two pages with no typos in a 5-page paper.

Step-by-step explanation:

Poisson distribution:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

[tex]\mu[/tex] is the mean in the given interval.

Binomial distribution:

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

The number of typos made by a student follows Poisson distribution with the rate of 1.5 typos per page.

This means that [tex]\mu = 1.5n[/tex], in which n is the number of pages.

(a) Find the probability that there are at most 2 typos on a page.

One page, which means that [tex]\mu = 1.5[/tex]

This is

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.5}*(1.5)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.2231[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-1.5}*(1.5)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.3347[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-1.5}*(1.5)^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.2510[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.2231 + 0.3347 + 0.2510 = 0.8088[/tex]

0.8088 = 80.88% probability that there are at most 2 typos on a page.

(b) Find the probability that there are exactly 10 typos in a 5-page paper.

5 pages, which means that [tex]n = 5, \mu = 5(1.5) = 7.5[/tex].

This is P(X = 10). So

[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 10) = \frac{e^{-7.5}*(7.5)^{10}}{(10)!} = 0.0858[/tex]

0.0858 = 8.58% probability that there are exactly 10 typos in a 5-page paper.

(c) Find the probability that there are exactly 2 typos on each page in a 5-page paper.

Two typos on a page: 0.2510 probability.

Two typos on each of the 5 pages: (0.251)^5 = 0.001

0.001 = 0.1% probability that there are exactly 2 typos on each page in a 5-page paper.

(d) Find the probability that there is at least one page with no typos in a 5-page paper.

0.2231 probability that a page has no typo, so 1 - 0.2231 = 0.7769 probability that there is at least one typo in a page.

(0.7769)^5 = 0.283 probability that every page has at least one typo.

1 - 0.283 = 0.717 probability that there is at least one page with no typos in a 5-page paper.

(e) Find the probability that there are exactly two pages with no typos in a 5-page paper.

Here, we use the binomial distribution.

0.2231 probability that a page has no typo, so [tex]p = 0.02231[/tex]

5 pages, so [tex]n = 5[/tex]

We want P(X = 2). So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{5,2}.(0.2231)^{2}.(0.7769)^{3} = 0.2334[/tex]

0.2334 = 23.34% probability that there are exactly two pages with no typos in a 5-page paper.

Answer:

50/50

Step-by-step explanation:

YOU SAID “but som ppl in my class got 3/4 or 2/4

cuz it’s TWO coins that tossed”

2/4 is also half it's still 50/50

The possible outcomes when two coins are tossed together are {HH,TT,HT,TH}. Therefore, the number of possible outcomes when two coins are tossed is 4.

Now, the possible outcomes of getting exactly one head are {HT,TH}, which means the number of favourable outcome is 2.

Therefore, probability P of getting exactly one head is:

P= 4/2 = 1/2

​

Hence, the probability of getting exactly one head is  

1/2

In short ​ 1/2,2/4 is basically a half so getting one head is 50/50

.

Answer:

The answer is 1750 dollars more than his other yearly salary.

Step-by-step explanation:

I am super sorry if it is wrong. It might be.

Answer:

I think t is 72, because the angle looks equal to the known degree, which is 72. And since all the degrees have to add up to 180, 72+72 is 144 and 180-144 is 36. So angle s is 36 degrees.

Answer:

the answer would be 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

ty for reading :P

The number of ways five complete outfits could be arranged if Johnny had 20 complete living room outfits is 1,860,480 ways

Permutation has to do with arrangement.

Since Johnny had 20 complete living room outfits, for him to arrange different sets of five complete outfits, he can do it in 20P5 number of ways.

The permutation formula is as shown below:

[tex]^n P_r =\frac{n!}{(n-r)!}[/tex]

Hence:

[tex]^{20}P_5=\frac{20!}{(20-5)!}\\ ^{20}P_5=\frac{20!}{(15)!}\\^{20}P_5=\frac{20\times19\times 18 \times 17 \times 16 \times 15!}{15!}\\^{20}P_5=20\times19\times 18 \times 17 \times 16 \\^{20}P_5=1,860,480ways[/tex]

Hence the number of ways five complete outfits could be arranged if Johnny had 20 complete living room outfits is 1,860,480 ways.

Learn more on permutation here: https://brainly.com/question/23779115

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

10 x 2=20 white chocolate

10+20=30 chocolates altogether

Answer:

14 days

Step-by-step explanation:

5x2=10

140÷10=14

Answer:

B. 14x = 42

Step-by-step explanation:

The figure is composed of a rectangle and a trapezium

(L*W) + [½(a + b)h] = Area of the figure

Where,

Area = 42

L = 2x

W = 3

a = 3 + 4 = 7

b = 9

h = x

Plug in the values

(2x*3) + [½(7 + 9)x] = 42

6x + [½(16x)] = 42

6x + 8x = 42

14x = 42

Step-by-step explanation:

according to question triangle is concurrent so two traingle= 1rectangle

so finally ans is 6×2(12+2)=168

Answer:

$128

Step-by-step explanation:

338.50 - 82.50 = 256

256/8= 32

25%= 1/4

4 x 32= 128

Answer:

Perimeter = 126cm

Area = 972cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

6*4.5 = 27

8*4.5 = 36

Perimeter = 27*2+36*2= 126 cm

Area = 27*36 = 972 cm^2

Hope this helped!

Answer:

Perimeter = 126 cm, area = 972 cm2

Step-by-step explanation:

Rectangle perimeter:

Rectangle area:

When scaled, the perimeter will change by same factor but the area by the square of same factor.

Applying to the given rectangle

Perimeter:

Area:

Correct choice is B

Answer:

According to CostHelper, the cost for one worker to shovel or snow blower can cost between $25 to $75 an hour. The cost to hire a company to plow a standard driveway after a storm can run about $30 to $45 per storm.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 even numbers are on a number cube. So, 1/3.

1/3 x 72 = 24

Desmond would roll an even number 24 times.

Answer:

x = 33

y = 66

m<BGK = 71°

Step-by-step explanation:

✔️(2x + 5) + (3x + 10) = 180° (consecutive interior angles)

Solve for x

2x + 5 + 3x + 10 = 180

Add like terms

5x + 15 = 180

5x = 180 - 15 (subtraction property of equality)

5x = 165

Divide both sides by 5

x = 33

✔️(2x + 5) = (y + 5) (alternate interior angles are congruent)

Plug in the value of x

2(33) + 5 = y + 5

66 + 5 = y + 5

71 = y + 5

71 - 5 = y

66 = y

y = 66

✔️m<BGK = (y + 5) (vertical angles)

Plug in the value of y

m<BGK = (66 + 5)

m<BGK = 71°

Step-by-step explanation:

Question 1

See the attached

This is a right triangle with different sides. Correct option is A, confirmed visually.

Question 2

Answered previously

Question 3

Answered previously

Question 4

Answer:

d is the answer of graph function

Answer:

$1327.63

Step-by-step explanation:

:First, calculate the amount of interest that will be earned on the first account:

$329 * 0.04 = $13.16

Then, add this amount to the amount that was already in the account:

$13.16 + $329 = $342.16

Next, calculate the amount of interest that will be earned on the second account:

$921 * 0.07 = $64.47

Then, add this amount to the amount that was already in the account:

$64.47 + $921 = $985.47

Finally, add the two totals together: $342.16 + $985.47 = $1327.63.

Answer:

2/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 320

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Profit%=48.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

the steps how i got it  and the picture has the ans

(hope this helps can i plz have brainlist :D hehe)

Answer:

If the area is 90 square meters then, the answer is 10 meters long (length.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

90 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

A triangle equals 180

180 - 60

= 120

120 - 30

= 90

Also you can easily get the answer without doing any math because you can see the angle is a right angle

Right angles equal 90

Hope this helps dude

Answer:

16

10

4

-2

.....................

Answer:

Y=10

Step-by-step explanation:

Y=3(2)+4

y= 6+4

y= 10

x= +2

why?

because if you add two at -4 you have -2 and you add 2 and u get 0  and u add two again and u get 2.