Answer: a. True
Explanation:
Marginal Cost as well known is the cost of producing an extra unit of a good. Average Cost on the other hand is the cost of producing all the goods divided by the number of units that are produced.
It therefore stands to reason that if goods are getting more expensive to produce, the Average Cost will rise.
For example, take 2 scenarios.
Scenario 1.
Cost of producing units 1 to 5 is $2 each.
Average Cost = (2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2) / 5
= 10/5
Average Cost = $2
Scenario 2
Cost of Producing Units 1 to 5 are;
Unit 1 - $2
Unit 2 - $2
Unit 3 - $2
Unit 4 - $2
Unit 5 - $4
Average cost at unit 5 = (2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 4)/5
= 12/5
= $2.40
Average Cost has increased by $0.40
The management of L Corporation is considering a project that would require an investment of $260,000 and would last for 6 years. The annual net operating income from the project would be $110,000, which includes depreciation of $17,000. The cash inflows occur evenly throughout the year. The payback period of the project is closest to (Ignore income taxes.):
Answer:
2.04 years
Explanation:
Payback period calculates the amount of the time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from its cumulative cash flows.
To derive cash flows from net income, add depreciation to net income.
$110,000 + $17,000 = $127,000
Payback period = $260,000 / $127,000 = 2.04 years
I hope my answer helps you
A one-year and two-year bonds currently pays 1.2% and 1.6%, respectively. What is the expected interest rate on a one-year bond next year according to the liquidity premium theory if the two-year term premium is 0.1%
Answer: 1.8%
Explanation:
Liquidity Premium theory posits that investors prefer more liquid securities to less liquid ones.
It can also be used to calculate expected interest by relating to other bond returns.
The formula is;
Interest Rate expected in nth year = (Sum of individual interest rates in n years)/n + Liquidity Premium in nth year
The premium provided is for the two - year bond and the return on the 2 year bond is also given.
Plugging the figures in gives;
1.6% = (1.2% + One year bond expected interest) / 2 + 0.1%
1.6% - 0.1% = (1.2% + interest) / 2
1.5% * 2 = 1.2% + interest
3% = 1.2% + interest
Interest = 3% - 1.2%
Interest = 1.8%
Flyer Company has provided the following information prior to any year-end bad debt adjustment:Cash sales, $167,000Credit sales, $467,000Selling and administrative expenses, $127,000Sales returns and allowances, $47,000Gross profit, $507,000Accounts receivable, $275,000Sales discounts, $31,000Allowance for doubtful accounts credit balance, $2,900Flyer estimates bad debt expense assuming that 2% of credit sales have historically been uncollectible. What is the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after bad debt expense is recorded?a) $12,240.b) $9,340.c) $9,780.d) $6,440.
Answer:
The balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after bad debt expense is recorded is $12,240. Option A
Explanation:
Cash sales = $167,000
Credit sales = $467,000
Selling and administrative expenses = $127,000
Sales returns and allowances = $47,000
Gross profit = $507,000
Accounts receivable = $275,000
Sales discounts = $31,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts credit balance = $2,900
Balance needed in the 'Allowance for doubtful accounts' = $467,000 × 2%
= $9,240
Credit balance in the allowance account = $2,900
Bad debts expense = Balance needed in the 'Allowance for doubtful accounts' + Credit balance in the allowance account
= $9,340 + $2,900
= $12,240
Using $3,000,000 as the total manufacturing costs, compute the cost of goods manufactured using the following information.
Raw materials inventory, January 1 $ 20,000
Raw materials inventory, December 31 40,000
Work in process, January 1 18,000
Work in process, December 31 12,000
Finished goods, January 1 40,000
Finished goods, December 31 32,000
Raw materials purchases 1,700,000
Direct labor 760,000
Factory utilities 150,000
Indirect labor 50,000
Factory depreciation 400,000
Operating expenses 420,000
a. $3,014,000
b. $3,006,000
c. $3,008,000
d. $2,994,000
Answer:
$3,006,000
Explanation:
The computation of cost of goods manufactured is shown below:-
Cost of Goods Manufactured = Gross Manufacturing Cost + Opening Work in progress - Closing work in progress
= $3,000,000 + $18,000 - $12,000
= $3,006,000
Therefore for computing the cost of goods manufactured we have applied the above formulas and ignore all other values as they are not relevant.
The Securities and Exchange Commission and the Federal Aviation Administration are examples of agencies engaged in A. the regulation of nonmonopolistic industries. B. health and safety regulation. C. social regulation. D. the regulation of natural monopolies.
Answer:
A. the regulation of nonmonopolistic industries.
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Commission and the Federal Aviation Administration are examples of agencies engaged in the regulation of nonmonopolistic industries.
A nonmonopolistic industry is one that is characterized by competition among various service providers in a country and generally there's a government agency that regulates their actions and activities in the public.
The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is a governmental agency saddled with the sole responsibility of regulating the securities or capital markets, as well as protecting investors in a country.
In the U.S, the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) as an independent government agency was established under the Securities Act of 1933 and the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 of the United States of America.
Hence, SEC has the power to propose securities rules and regulations, and enforce federal securities law in the securities market.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) was founded on the 23rd of August, 1958 under the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 of the United States of America. It is an independent government agency with the responsibility of regulating civil aviation, commercial space transportation, construction and maintenance of airports, air traffic management and operations of navigation systems for both civil and military aircrafts, and issuance of licenses to airline operators with their personnel.
A company issued 1,000 shares of $10 par value common stock due to a previously declared stock dividend; the market value at both the date of declaration and distribution was $12 per share. Which of the following correctly describes the reporting of this stock issue within the financing activities section of the cash flow statement?
a) A cash outflow of $10,000
b) A cash outflow of $2,000
c) A cash outflow of $12,000
d) There is no cash flow
Answer:
d) There is no cash flow
Explanation:
There is no cash flow because a stock dividend refers to a dividend that is paid by issuing additional shares to shareholders of a company instead of paying them a cash dividend.
Therefore, there is no cash flow since no cash is received nor paid.
Note: To record stock dividends, the amounts is moved from retained earnings to paid-in capital; and the evidence that no cash is received nor paid is that the journal entries for the issue of stock dividend will be as follows:
Debit Retained for $12,000 (i.e. 1,000 * $12 = $12,000)
Credit Common Stock for $10,000 (i.e. 1,000 - $10 = $10,000)
Credit Additional Paid-In Capital in Excess of Par - Common Stock for $2,000 ($12,000 - $10,000)
If annual demand is 12,000 units, the ordering cost is $6 per order, and the holding cost is $2.50 per unit per year, which of the following is the optimal order quantity using the fixed-order quantity model?
A. 421
B. 234
C. 78
D. 26
E. 312
Answer:
240 units
Explanation:
We can find Optimal order quantity easily by Optimal order quantity formula using the fixed order quantity formula
Formula:: Optimal order quantity = [tex]\sqrt[2]{\frac{2CoD}{Ch} }[/tex]
Where
Co = Ordering cost per order
D = Annual demand
Ch = Holding cost per unit
Calculations
Lets put in the values
Optimal order quantity = [tex]\sqrt[2]{\frac{2CoD}{Ch} }[/tex]
Optimal order quantity = [tex]\sqrt[2]{\frac{2*6*12000}{2.5} }[/tex]
Optimal order quantity = 240 units
Note: There must have been a mistake in question options the answer is 240 and closest to 240 is option B
Oscar owns a building that is destroyed in a hurricane. His adjusted basis in the building before the hurricane is $130,000. His insurance company pays him $140,000 and he immediately invests in a new building at a cost of $142,000. What is Oscar's basis on his new building?
Answer: $132,000
Explanation:
Oscar's new basis on the building will be the basis of the old building plus any additional investment he added.
This is the because there is no gain on the $140,000 he received because it was an Involuntary Conversion amount and he reinvested it into another building within a period of 2 years.
As there is no gain, the building will retain it's original basis but will add any amount outside the involuntary replacement cost of the building.
The Additional basis will be,
= Cost of building - Insurance
= 142,000 - 140,000
= $2,000
The Basis for the new building is,
= 130,000 + 2,000
= $132,000
If $1200 is borrowed at 9% interest, find the amounts due at the end of 4 years if the interest is compounded as follows. (Round your answers to the nearest cent.) (i) annually $ 1693.9 Correct: Your answer is correct. (ii) quarterly $ 1204.3 Incorrect: Your answer is incorrect. (iii) monthly $ (iv) weekly $ (v) daily $ (vi) hourly $ (vii) continuously $
Answer and Explanation:
(i) The computation of compound interest for annual is shown below:-
Compound interest = A = P × (1 + r ÷ n)^t
= $1,200 × (1 + 9% ÷ 1)^1 × 4
= $1,200 × (1.09)^4
= $1,693.897932
or
= $1,693.90
(ii) The computation of compound interest for quarterly is shown below:-
= $1,200 × (1 + 9% ÷ 4)^4 × 4
= $1,200 × (1.09)^16
= $1,713.145749
or
= $1,713.15
Since it is quarterly so we divide the interest rate by 4 and multiply the time period by 4
(iii) The computation of compound interest for monthly is shown below:-
= $1,200 × (1 + 9% ÷ 12)^4 × 12
= $1,200 × (1.0075)^48
= $1,717.6864
or
= $1,717.69
Since it is monthly so we divide the interest rate by 12 and multiply the time period by 12
(iv) The computation of compound interest for weekly is shown below:-
= $1,200 × (1 + 9% ÷ 52)^4 × 52
= $1,200 × (1.432883461 )^208
= $1719.460154
or
= $1,719.46
Since it is weekly so we divide the interest rate by 52 and multiply the time period by 52
(v) The computation of compound interest for daily is shown below:-
= $1,200 × (1 + 9% ÷ 365)^4 × 365
= $1,200 × (1.43326581 )^1460
= $1719.918972
or
= $1719.92
Since it is daily so we divide the interest rate by 365 and multiply the time period by 365
(vi) The computation of compound interest for hourly is shown below:-
= $1,200 × (1 + 9% ÷ 8760)^4 × 8760
= $1,200 × (1.433326764 )^35,040
= $1,719.992117
or
= $1719.99
(vii) The computation of compound interest for continuously is shown below:-
A = Pe^rt
= 1,200e^0.09 × 4
= 1,200e^0.36
= $1,720.00
Outstanding stock of the Blue Corporation included 50000 shares of $5 par common stock and 18000 shares of 5%, $10 par non-cumulative preferred stock. In 2019, Blue declared and paid dividends of $7500. In 2020, Blue declared and paid dividends of $25000. How much of the 2020 dividend was distributed to preferred shareholders
Answer:
The dividends to be distributed among preferred stockholders in 2020 is $9000
Explanation:
The preferred stock holders are always paid dividends before the common stock holders. The amount left after paying preferred stockholders is paid to common stockholders as dividends.
Non cumulative preferred stock does not accrue or accumulates dividends. Thus, if dividends are not paid in a particular year, the company has no obligation to pay these dividends ever in the future.
Preferred stock dividend per year = 18000 * 10 * 0.05
Preferred stock dividend per year = $9000
As the preferred stock is non cumulative, then the remaining dividends for 2019 (which are 9000 - 7500 = $1500) will not be paid in 2020.
So, the preferred stock dividends to be paid in 2020 will be $9000 as the declared dividends are more than that required to pay the preferred stockholders.
Denver Co. recently used 14,000 labor hours to produce 7,500 units. According to manufacturing specifications, each unit is anticipated to take two hours to complete. The company's actual payroll costs were $158,200. If the standard labor cost per hour is $11, Denver's labor efficiency variance is: Question 18 options: $11,300 (U). $11,000 (U). $11,000 (F). $11,300 (F).
Answer:
Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $11,000 favorable
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Denver Co. recently used 14,000 labor hours to produce 7,500 units. According to manufacturing specifications, each unit is anticipated to take two hours to complete. The standard labor cost per hour is $11.
To calculate the direct labor efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:
Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate
Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (2*7,500 - 14,000)*11
Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $11,000 favorable
g in computing the present value of lease payments, the lessee shoulduse the lessee's incremental borrowing rate unless the lessor's implicit interest rate is known to the lessee. expected rate of return. settlement rate. none of these answer are correct
Answer:
b on edg
Explanation:
Beamish Inc., which produces a single product, has provided the following data for its most recent month of operations: Number of units produced 3,700 Variable costs per unit: Direct materials $ 132 Direct labor $ 93 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 5 Variable selling and administrative expense $ 12 Fixed costs: Fixed manufacturing overhead $148,000 Fixed selling and administrative expense $288,600 There were no beginning or ending inventories. The absorption costing unit product cost was:
Answer:
Absorption costing unit product cost = $270 per unit
Explanation:
Absorption costing values unit produced using the full cost per unit.
It categories cost as production and non-production cost
Full cost per unit =Direct labour cost + direct material cost + Variable production overhead + fixed production overhead
Fixed prod overhead per unit = Total fixed production overhead/Number of units
= $148,000/3,700 units=$40 per unit
Full cost per unit = 132+ 93+ 5 + 40 = $270 per unit
Absorption costing unit = $270 per unit
Due to population shifts, Select one: a. businesses that cater to older consumers will see slower growth. b. health care will emerge as the only business sector that will grow. c. businesses that sell electronic devices will see a significant decline. d. businesses that cater to older consumers will see higher growth.
Answer: d. businesses that cater to older consumers will see higher growth
Explanation:
The trend in the Developed World is that of lower birth rates and higher life expectancies. This has and will keep leading to more of the population being from the Older generation. This is a population shift towards the older generation.
Should this happen, Businesses and products that were made for the older generation will see their business grow as they will have more customers which equates to more demand which equates to higher profitability.
An asset has an average return of 10.19 percent and a standard deviation of 22.41 percent. What is the most you should expect to lose in any given year with a probability of 16 percent
Answer:
The answer is 32.6%
Explanation:
Solution
Given that
An assets has a return average of =10.19%
Standard deviation =22.41%
Probability in any given year =16%
Now
The most you should expect to earn in any given year with a probability of 16 percent is = 10.19 + 22.41
= 32.6
Therefore,what you should expect in given year to lose is 32.6%
Question 2 (10 Marks)
In Andalusia Ltd, wages are paid on a weekly basis (40 hours per week) at a guaranteed hourly rate
of RM2.80. It is estimated that the time required to manufacture a particular product was 12 minutes.
However, the time allowed of 25% is to be added (for normal idle time, setting up time, etc.). During
the first week of June 2020, Roslan produced 250 units of the product.
Required:
Compute Roslan's wages for the particular week using the following methods of wage payment:
a. time rate.
[2 marks]
b. piece rate with a guaranteed weekly wage.
[3 marks]
c. Halsey's premium bonus scheme.
[5 marks]
Answer:
Andalusia LtdWages based on:a. Time rate = RM 2.80 x 40 hours = RM 112
b. Piece Rate = RM 0.70 x 250 units = RM 175
c. Halsey premium bonus scheme:
Pay per hour = RM 2.80,
Therefore Wages = Normal Wages + Bonus
= (RM 2.80 x 40) + 50% (RM 2.80 x 22.5)
= RM 112 + 31.5 = RM 143.50
Explanation:
a) Time for each product unit = 12
Piece rate = RM 2.80/60 x 15 = RM 0.70 per unit
b) Under Halsey Premium Bonus Scheme:
Hours used in production = 40 hours
Hours for producing 250 units = 62.5 hours
Gain in hours = 22.5 hours (62.5 - 40)
c) Time rates are wages based on the amount of time spent at work. The usual form of time rate is the weekly wage or monthly salary. Usually the time rate is fixed in relation to a standard working week (e.g. 40 hours per week).
d) Wages based on piece rate (also known as piecework) is a pay based on number of units or pieces created rather than the number of hours worked. In other words, the more “pieces” an employee produces, the more the employee is paid.
e) Under Halsey Plan, the standard time for the completion of a job is fixed and the rate per hour is then determined. The usual bonus share paid to the worker is 50% of the time saved multiplied by the rate per hour (time-rate).
Biarritz Corp. is growing quickly. Dividends are expected to grow at a rate of 29 percent for the next three years, with the growth rate falling off to a constant 6.8 percent thereafter. If the required return is 15 percent and the company just paid a dividend of $3.15, what is the current share price
Answer:
The current price of the share is $69.85
Explanation:
To calculate the current share price, we will use the dividend discount model approach.
The dividend discount model (DDM) estimates the value of a share/stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. We will use the two stage growth model of DDM here as the growth in dividends of the stock is divided into two stages.
The formula for current price under two stage growth model is,
P0 = D0 * (1+g1) / (1+r) + D0 * (1+g1)^2 / (1+r)^2 + ... + D0 * (1+g1)^n / (1+r)^n +
[( D0 * (1+g1)^n * (1+g2)) / (r - g2)] / (1+r)^n
Where,
g1 is initial growth rateg2 is the constant growth rater is the required rate of returnSo, the price of the stock today will be,
P0 = 3.15 * (1+0.29) / (1+0.15) + 3.15 * (1+0.29)^2 / (1+0.15)^2 +
3.15 * (1+0.29)^3 / (1+0.15)^3 +
[( 3.15 * (1+0.29)^3 * (1+0.068)) / (0.15 - 0.068)] / (1+0.15)^3
P0 = $69.85196 rounded off to $69.85
A large international company has two business units. Invested assets and condensed income statement data for each business unit for the past year are as follows: Compute the following for Business Unit 1: a) Operating Income Using the Dupont Formula: b) Profit Margin % (round % to 1 decimal) c) Investment Turnover (round to 2 decimals) d) Return on Investment (round 1 decimal) Compute the following for Business Unit 2: 2A) Operating Income Using the Dupont Formula: 2B) Profit Margin (round % to 1 decimal) 2C) Investment Turnover (round to 2 decimals) 2D) Return on Investment (round 1 decimal)
Answer:
1. Compute the following for Business Unit 1:
a) Operating Income = $117,500
b) Profit Margin = 20.7%
c) Investment Turnover = 0.86
d) Return on Investment = 0.2
2. Compute the following for Business Unit 2:
a) Operating Income = $69,750
b) Profit Margin = 12.2%
c) Investment Turnover = 1.18
d) Return on Investment = 0.1
Explanation:
1. Compute the following for Business Unit 1:
a) Operating Income
Operating Income = Revenue – Operating expenses = $280,000 – $162,500 = $117,500
Using the Dupont Formula:
b) Profit Margin % (round % to 1 decimal)
Net income = Operating income – Services department charges = $117,500 - $59,500 = $58,000
Profit Margin = Net income / Revenue = ($58,000 / $280,000) * 100 = 20.7%
c) Investment Turnover (round to 2 decimals)
Investment Turnover = Revenue / Invested Assets = $280,000 / $325,000 = 0.86
d) Return on Investment (round 1 decimal)
Return on Investment = Net income / Invested Assets = $58,000 / $325,000 = 0.1785 = 0.2
2. Compute the following for Business Unit 2:
a) Operating Income
Operating Income = Revenue – Operating expenses = $222,500 – $152,750 = $69,750
Using the Dupont Formula:
b) Profit Margin % (round % to 1 decimal)
Net income = Operating income – Services department charges = $69,750 - $42,625 = $27,125
Profit Margin = Net income / Revenue = ($27,125 / $222,500) * 100 = 12.2%
c) Investment Turnover (round to 2 decimals)
Investment Turnover = Revenue / Invested Assets = $222,500 / $189,000 = 1.18
d) Return on Investment (round 1 decimal)
Return on Investment = Net income / Invested Assets = $27,125 / $189,000 = 0.1435 = 0.1
Dynamo Corporation manufactures toasters. Each toaster comes with a 5-year assurance-type warranty. The toasters sell for $60 each. During Year 1, Dynamo sells 600 toasters, for cash. Past experience shows that the average warranty costs are $4 each or $2,400 for these toasters. In Year 1, Dynamo pays $500 cash for warranty costs on the toasters sold that year. Required: Prepare Dynamo’s journal entries related to the sales and warranty in Year 1.
Answer:
Journal entry to record sale of toasters and warranty
Dr Cash 36,000
Cr Sales revenue 36,000
Dr Warranty expense 2,400
Cr Warranty liability 2,400
Adjusting entry for actual warranty expense
Dr Warranty liability 500
Cr Cash 500
Since the warranty covers a 5 year period, the remaining warranty expense cannot be recognized as warranty revenue yet. Only after the warranty period is over, will any money left over will be recognized as revenue.
On April 1, 2021, the Electronic Superstore borrows $21 million of which $7 million is due in 2022. Show how the company would report the $21 million debt on its December 31, 2021 balance sheet.
Electronic Superstore
Partial Balance Sheet
December 31, 2021
Current liabilities:
Long-term liabilities:
Total liabilities
Answer:
Electronic Superstore
Partial balance sheet as at December 31, 2021
Current Liabilities
Current portion of long term debt 7,000,000
Long term liabilities
Notes payable 14,000,000
Total Liabilities 21,000,000
Orion Flour Mills purchased a new machine and made the following expenditures:
Purchase price
$65,000
Sales tax
5,500
Shipment of machine
900
Insurance on the machine for the first year
600
Installation of machine
1,800
The machine, including sales tax, was purchased on account, with payment due in 30 days. The other expenditures listed above were paid in cash.
Required:
Record the above expenditures for the new machine.
Answer:
When buying PPE, the way to record it is to capitalize every expense that enabled the PPE to be brought to the location required and then set up for use. This includes the actual cost of the machine, the sales taxes (part of purchases price so must be included), the shipment of the machine as well as installation costs.
The Insurance paid (prepaid) is an expense for the period and so will not be capitalized.
Total cost of the machine therefore is;
= 65,000 + 5,500 + 900 + 1,800
= $73,200
Only the machine and the sales tax were purchased on account.
= 65,000 + 5,500
= $70,500
The rest in cash.
Journal Entry is
DR Machinery $73,200
DR Prepaid Insurance $600
CR Cash $3,300
CR Accounts $70,500
(To record purchase of equipment)
art E14 is used by M Corporation to make one of its products. A total of 20,000 units of this part are produced and used every year. The company's Accounting Department reports the following costs of producing the part at this level of activity: Per Unit Direct materials $ 4.30 Direct labor $ 8.90 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 9.40 Supervisor's salary $ 4.80 Depreciation of special equipment $ 3.20 Allocated general overhead $ 8.40 An outside supplier has offered to make the part and sell it to the company for $30.30 each. If this offer is accepted, the supervisor's salary and all of the variable costs, including the direct labor, can be avoided. The special equipment used to make the part was purchased many years ago and has no salvage value or other use. The allocated general overhead represents fixed costs of the entire company, none of which would be avoided if the part were purchased instead of produced internally. In addition, the space used to make part E14 could be used to make more of one of the company's other products, generating an additional segment margin of $32,000 per year for that product. The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company as a result of buying part E14 from the outside supplier should be:
Answer:
It is more profitable to continue making the product. On this level of production, the company saves $26,000 if it makes the product in-house.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Units= 20,000
Per Unit Cost:
Direct materials $4.30
Direct labor $8.90
Variable manufacturing overhead $9.40
Supervisor's salary $4.80
An outside supplier has offered to make the part and sell it to the company for $30.30 each.
Rent space= $32,000 per year
We will take into account only the differential costs.
Make in-house:
Total cost= 20,000* (4.3 + 8.9 + 9.4 + 4.8)= $548,000
Buy:
Total cost= 20,000*30.3 - 32,000= $574,000
It is more profitable to continue making the product. On this level of production, the company saves $26,000 if it makes the product in-house.
Consider an assembly line with 20 stations. Each station has a 0.5% probability of making a defect. At the end of the line, an inspection step singles out the defective units. The inspection step catches 80% of all defects. From inspection, units that are deemed to be non-defective
are moved to the shipping department.
If a defect is found at inspection, it is sent to the rework department.
Rework fixes about 95% of the defective units. Units are directly shipped from the rework department with no further inspection taking place.
1- What is the probability that a unit ends up in rework (in decimal form)?
2- What is the probability that a defective unit is shipped (in decimal form)?
Answer:
Assembly Line1. Probability that a unit ends up in rework = Probability of defect in 20 stations multiplied by the probability of catching defects = 0.8%(1% x 80%) = 0.008
2. Probability that a defective unit is shipped = Probability of defective units during inspection plus Probability of defective units during rework = 25% (20% + (100-95%)) = 0.25
Explanation:
a) Probability of defect in 20 stations = 0.5% x 20 = 1%. Each station has a 0.05%
b) Probability of defective units during inspection = 20% (100% - 80)
c) Probability of defective units during rework = 5% (100% -95)
c) Probability is the likelihood or chance of an event occurring. Divide the number of events by the number of possible outcomes. This will give us the probability of a single event occurring.
A firm considers to buy a machine in 2020. The cost of that machine is $ 5 000 000. The firm uses 5 year straight line depreciation which allows it to write off $ 1 000 000 depreciation expense each year. The firm is subject to 20% corporate tax rate. The firm's revenue in 2021 is expected to be $ 6 000 000 if the investment is not done. The revenue will be $ 9 000 000 if the investment is done. The firm's total costs (including both COGS and General&Administrative Costs) will be $ 4 000 000 if the investment is not done. The total costs will be $ 5 500 000 if the investment is done. Also the following information is given for the year 2021
Without Investment With Investment
Inventories $ 300 000 $ 500 000
Acc. Receivables $ 200 000 $ 300 000
Acc. Payables $ 100 000 $ 150 000
Given the above information, calculate the free cash flow of that investment for the years 2020 and 2021.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the free cash flow of the investment for the year 2020 and 2021 is shown below:
Particulars Case 1 Case 2
Without Investment With Investment
Add: Earnings Before
Interest and
Tax × (1 - Tax Rate) $2,000,000 $2,500,000
Add: Non Cash Expenses $0 $1,000,000
less: Change in
(Current Assets
- Current Liabilities) ($400,000) ($650,000)
Less: Capital Expenditure $0 ($5,000,000)
Free Cash Flows $1,600,000 ($2,150,000)
Working notes:
1.
Particulars Without Investment With Investment
Revenue for the Year 2021 $6,000,000 $9,000,000
Less: Cost of Goods Sold $4,000,000 $5,500,000
(-) Depreciation $0 $1,000,000
Earnings Before
Interest and Tax $2,000,000 $2,500,000
Tax Savings on Depreciation
(Depreciation × 20%) $0 $200,000
2.
Current Assets Without Investment With Investment
Inventories $300,000 $500,000
Accounts Receivable $200,000 $300,000
Total $500,000 $800,000
(Less: Current Liabilities)
Accounts Payable $100,000 $150,000
Less: Change in
(Current Assets
- Current Liabilities) $400,000 $650,000
Present Value of an Annuity of 1 Periods 8% 9% 10% 1 .926 .917 .909 2 1.783 1.759 1.736 3 2.577 2.531 2.487 A company has a minimum required rate of return of 8%. It is considering investing in a project that costs $97116 and is expected to generate cash inflows of $39000 each year for three years. The approximate internal rate of return on this project is
Answer:
9.92%
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested
IRR can be calculated using a financial calculator:
Cash flow in year 0 = $-97116
Cash flow each year from year 1 to 3 = $39000
IRR = 9.92%
To find the IRR using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.
I hope my answer helps you
On November 7, 2017, Mura Company borrows $360,000 cash by signing a 90-day, 9% note payable with a face value of $360,000. (Use 360 days a year. Do not round your intermediate calculations.) 1. Compute the accrued interest payable on December 31, 2017.
Answer:
The accrued interetst is $4860 and $3240
Explanation:
Solution
Recall that:
Mura Company borrows= $360,000
Time =90/360
rate = 9%
Face value =$360,000
The next step is to compute the accrued interest payable on December 31, 2017.
Now,
Interest = 360000*9%*90/360=8100$
year end interest accrual:
Principal =$360000
time 54/360
Interest =360000*9%*54/360 = $4860
Interest recognized on February 5
Principal =$360000
Rate= 9%
Time= 36/360
Interest 360000*9%*36/360 = $3240
Given the following information, calculate the debt ratio percentage: Liabilities = $25,000Liquid assets = $5,000Monthly credit payments = $800Monthly savings = $760Net worth = $75,000Take-home pay = $2,300Gross income = $3,500Monthly expenses = $2,050
Answer:
33.33%
Explanation:
The debt ratio percentage is calculated as:
Liabilities / Net worth = Debt Ratio Percentage
$25,000 / $75,000 = 0.3333
0.3333 * 100 = 33.33%
The debt ratio is easy to calculate and is calculated by dividing the total liabilities of a person with the total net worth of the person. Dividing both gives a figure in decimal which is then multiplied by 100 to derive a percentage.
george forgot to pay his monthly life insurance premium that was due march 1. the policy had a face value of $100,000. on march 21, george died. how much will the insurer pay george's beneficiary for this death claim
Answer: An amount equal to the face value of the policy, MINUS the overdue premiums and any interest or late penalties George owed them
Explanation:
Grace Periods are usually included in Life Insurance policies to safeguard the client in question in case they are late with their payment. This means that should they pay within the grace period they will not lose their coverage.
Normally in Life Insurance, a grace period of 30 days is standard. George died 20 days after his due date which meant that he was still under a grace period and so the Insurance company will still pay out to his beneficiaries but they will deduct all monies owed by George.
One-year Treasury securities yield 4%. The market anticipates that 1-year from now 1-year Treasury securities will yield 2.1%. If the pure expectations theory is correct, what should be the yield today for 2-year Treasury securities? Write your answer as a percentage, i.e. for example write 8% as 8.
Answer:
3.05%
Explanation:
According to Pure Expectation Theory, the future short term interest rates are actually the forward rates.
Mathematically,
(1 + r2,0)^2 = (1 + r1,0)^1 * (1 + r1,1)^1
Here,
r2,0 is the rate of interest for 2 year treasury security from today
r1,0 is the rate of the interest for 1 year treasury security from today
r1,1 is the rate of the interest for 2 year treasury security from Year 1
By Putting Values, we have:
(1 + r2,0)^2 = (1 + 0.04)^1 * (1 + 0.021)^1
(1 + r2,0)^2 = 1.06184
By taking square-root on both sides, we have:
(1 + r2,0) = 1.0305
r2,0 = 3.05%
An electric utility is considering a new power plant in northern Arizona. Power from the plant would be sold in the Phoenix area, where it is badly needed. Because the firm has received a permit, the plant would be legal; but it would cause some air pollution. The company could spend an additional $40 million at Year 0 to mitigate the environmental Problem, but it would not be required to do so. The plant without mitigation would cost $209.71 million, and the expected cash inflows would be $70 million per year for 5 years. If the firm does invest in mitigation, the annual inflows would be $75.84 million. Unemployment in the area where the plant would be built is high, and the plant would provide about 350 good jobs. The risk adjusted WACC is 17%.a) Calculate the NPV and IRR with and without mitigation.
b) How should the environment effects be dealt with when evaluating this project?
c) Should this project be undertaken? If so, should the firm do the mitigation?
Answer:
Without Mitigation:
Net Present Value $14,244,200
IRR 19.92%
With mitigation
Net Present Value: $ -7,071,600
IRR = 15.76%
The project should be started without hte mitigation effort as would decrease the return below the cost of capital of the company.
Explanation:
Present value without mitigation
[tex]C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\[/tex]
C 70.00
time 5
rate 0.17
[tex]70 \times \frac{1-(1+0.17)^{-5} }{0.17} = PV\\[/tex]
PV $223.9542
Less
cost $209.71
Net Present Value 14,2442
IRR (using excel)
we input the -209.71 in one cell
then, we enter the 70 millon five times below the cost
and use the IRR formula to get the answer:
0.1992 = 19.92%
With mitigation:
[tex]C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\[/tex]
C 75.84
time 5
rate 0.17
[tex]75.84 \times \frac{1-(1+0.17)^{-5} }{0.17} = PV\\[/tex]
PV $242.6384
Less
249.71 cost
Net present value -7,0716
IRR:
A
1 -249.71
2 +75.84
3 +75.84
4 +75.84
5 +75.84
6 +75.84
=IRR(A1:A6)
= 0.1576