Premature birth causes pulmonary inflation difficulties because type II cells are unable to create enough pulmonary surfactant.
What use does pulmonary surfactant serve?It is known that pulmonary surfactant lowers surface tension in the alveoli at the air-water interface, limiting the collapse of these structures at end-expiration. Surfactant lessens the effort required for breathing in this way.
How can surfactant stop the collapse of the lungs?The lung cells exude surfactant, which distributes throughout the alveolar tissue. This chemical reduces surface tension, which facilitates easy breathing by preventing the collapse of the alveoli following exhalation. A complex mixture of proteins and phospholipids called pulmonary surfactant works to lower surface tension at the alveolar-air interface, preventing atelectasis.
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what part of the inner ear houses the receptor organ of hearing, the spiral organ (organ of corti)? what part of the inner ear houses the receptor organ of hearing, the spiral organ (organ of corti)? a b c d
The cochlea contains the inner ear organ known as the Organ of Corti, which aids in hearing.
Hearing is facilitated by the cochlea's Organ of Corti, an inner ear structure.The Organ of Corti is made up of three rows of outer hair cells and one row of inner hair cells.Stereocilia of these hair cells are bent by electromechanical vibrations caused by sound waves.The hair cells convert mechanical energy into electrical energy that is sent to the central nervous system via the auditory nerve in order to facilitate audition.On the surface of the basilar membrane, sensory hair cells are arranged in neat rows that generate nerve impulses in response to sound vibrations.
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a vaginal swab for anaerobic culture is received in the laboratory. how should this specimen be handled?
The specimen should be rejected.
What is anaerobic culture?
In anaerobic cultures, tests are done without letting oxygen get to the sample.
Infections caused due to anaerobic bacteria can occur almost anywhere in your body. These could be infections in the mouth or lungs, diabetes-related foot infections, infected bites, and gangrene, etc.
Finding the bacteria that are causing infection helps your healthcare provider in choosing the right treatment.
It may take some time to get the results, maybe up to a week. Because any bacteria from the sample needs time to grow so they can be looked at in a lab.
Therefore, a vaginal swab for anaerobic culture is received in the laboratory. This specimen should be rejected.
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If bicoid mrna is injected at the anterior end of an egg from a bicoid mutant mother, what would the phenotype of the resulting larva be?.
The larva would be normal if bicoid mRNA was injected at the anterior end of an egg from a bicoid mutant mother.
A larva is a different juvenile form many animals go through before transformation into men. Bicoid (Bcd) controls rudimentary deoxyribonucleic acid expression by transcriptional incitement and translational constraint.
Both functions demand the homeodomain (HD), which identifies DNA patterns at aim gene enhancers and a particular order break in the 3' untranslated region of Caudal (CAD) mRNA. Bicoid protein represses the rewording of posterior mRNA and improves the transcription of beginning breach genes containing hunchback, orthodenticle, and buttonhead.
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which of the following is true about noncompetitive inhibition? group of answer choices the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme the shape of a noncompetitive inhibitor is at least partially similar to the actual substrate of the target enzyme. it is an example of allosteric regulation the binding of the inhibitor does not causes a conformational change.
The statement that is true about non competitive inhibitors is that it is an example of allosteric regulation.
What is inhibition?When we talk about inhibition, we are talking about a situation in which there is a substance that occupies the position that an enzyme is suposed to bind. It could be a case of competitive or non competitive inhibition.
When we talk about a competitive inhibition, it means that the inhibitor looks somewhat like the enzyme thus it can occupy its place. On the other hand when we have a non competitive inhibitor, the inhibitor does not look like the enzyme.
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select all of the changes that occur upon sympathetic stimulation. check all that apply vasoconstriction of blood vessels to salivary glands, resulting in thick, viscous saliva vasoconstriction of blood vessels to salivary glands, resulting in thick, viscous saliva contraction of smooth muscle in the gi tract wall contraction of smooth muscle in the gi tract wall relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary bladder wall and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary bladder wall and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreas
This muscle contracts, releasing the bladder's pee. The parietal peritoneum is the bladder wall's external layer on the superior surface. In every other.
Which part of the ANS causes the internal urethral sphincter to relax and the urine bladder wall to contract?The neurons in the sacral spinal cord segments (S2-S4) that innervate visceral motor neurons in parasympathetic ganglia in or close to the bladder wall are the source of the parasympathetic regulation of the bladder musculature, the contraction of which promotes bladder emptying.
What element of the neurological system regulates the bladder's sphincters and urine production?The external urinary sphincter and the pelvic diaphragm's voluntary movements are controlled by the pudendal nerve, which emerges from the nucleus of Onuf.
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if a man with blood type a marries a woman with blood type a, what phenotypes would their children have?
Two dad and mom with A blood kind can produce a infant with both A or O blood types. Two dad and mom with B blood kind can produce a infant with both B or O blood kind.
Even though each dad and mom nonetheless have blood kind A, Dad can by skip on both his A or his O gene version. Mom also can both by skip on her A or her O. Because of this, you could see that there is 1 in four or 25% hazard for a kid to have OO, or blood kind O.
If one discern has A and every other has O, they are able to both produce a infant with A or O blood types. The Rh (+/-) element is inherited one at a time from the ABO blood types.
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Which of these RNA polymerases catalyze the synthesis of rRNA in eukaryotes?A) RNA polymerase IB) RNA polymerase IIC) RNA polymerase IIID) RNA polymerase IV
In eukaryotes, three RNA polymerases are involved in the transcription of nuclear genes: RNA polymerase (pol) I synthesizes large rRNA, pol II synthesizes mRNA, and pol III synthesizes tRNA and 5S rRNA.
Eukaryotic cells have three unique nuclear RNA polymerases that transcribe various gene types. RNA polymerase II transcribes protein-coding genes to produce mRNAs; RNA polymerases I and III transcribe ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs) and transfer RNAs (tRNAs).
RNA Polymerase I is a ribosomal RNA transcription enzyme. RNA Polymerase II is an enzyme that transcribes mRNA precursors. RNA Polymerase III is a tRNA transcription enzyme. Except for the 5S rRNA component, it transcribes all rRNAs.
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Carbohydrates are a type of biological macromolecules required to carry out life functions.
The Carbohydrates are a type of biological macromolecules required to carry out life functions is true.
There are five primary competencies of carbohydrates withinside the human body. They are strength production, strength storage, building macromolecules, sparing protein, and supporting in lipid metabolism.
Carbohydrates are a hard and fast of macromolecules which is probably a vital strength deliver for the mobileular, provide structural resource to many organisms, and can be placed on the ground of the mobileular as receptors or for mobileular recognition. A carbohydrate is an herbal compound that is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
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lacey conducted a study on how black bear activity is affected by the number of humans around the bears' habitat. she determined that the relationship had a weak, negative association. she concluded that more humans around caused the black bear activity to decrease. is her conclusion valid? explai
Lacey found a weak, negative connection. Thus, black bear activity is not directly related to human density. Human numbers might indirectly impact black bear behaviour by affecting other aspects. Bears may assault less if they have more food.
What are some of the limiting factors that a black bear encounters?Lacey found that there was a tenuous, unfavourable link between the two. This indicates that there is not a significant, direct correlation between the presence of people and the activity of black bears. This is due to the fact that an increase in human population may change other variables that directly or indirectly influence black bear activity.
The most important limiting variables for black bears are those that have an impact on the food supply, which might change both seasonally and yearly. The biological carrying capacity of environments close to people may sometimes sustain more black bears than the local population is ready to accept as neighbours.
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Sequence and model each step in the replication of a DNA
molecule. Write about what happens, and draw a DNA molecule going through each step. In the last box, describe and draw the products of replication.
The sequence and model each step in the replication of a DNA
molecule are:
a) the DNA unzips
b) the nucleotides in the cell attach to the unzipped chains
How is DNA replicated?The act of replicating one double-stranded DNA molecule into two additional ones is known as replication. One of a cell's most fundamental functions is the replication of its DNA. Opening the double helix and separating the DNA strands, priming the template strand, and putting together the new DNA segment are the three main phases in the replication process.
The DNA double helix uncoils its two strands at a site known as the origin during separation. The strands are subsequently primed, or made ready, for replication by a number of proteins and enzymes. The construction of the new DNA strands is then orchestrated by a unique enzyme known as DNA polymerase.
The other steps involved are:
c) the molecule continues to unzip, and the nucleotides continue to join
d) two new DNA molecules form, each containing one parental and one new strand.
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which can result from aldosterone hypersecretion or renal failure? multiple choice question. hypovolemia dehydration hypotonic hydration volume excess
hypovolemia can cause result from aldosterone hypersecretion or renal failure
A state of low extracellular fluid volume known as hypovolemia is typically caused by coupled salt and water loss. To maintain homeostasis, all living things must keep their fluid balances in check. At about 50% to 60% of the total weight, water is the most prevalent fluid in the body. The extracellular fluid (ECF), which makes up about 25–45% of total body water, and the intracellular fluid (ICF), which makes up 55%–75% of total body water, are further divided. The intravascular and extravascular (interstitial) spaces make up the remainder of the ECF. ECF is the component that can be measured more easily because arterial blood pressure can be used to estimate it.
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During fermentation, most of the pyruvate produced during glycolysis is used to convert nadh to?.
Reduced NADH from glycolysis is utilized during fermentation to decrease pyruvate. Reduced pyruvate is converted to lactate or ethanol.
How does fermentation affect NADH?In the course of fermentation, the NADH + H+ produced during glycolysis will be recycled back into NAD+, allowing glycolysis to proceed. NAD+ is converted into NADH + H+ during the glycolysis process. Glycolysis won't be able to proceed if NAD+ isn't present.
What function does NADH, a byproduct of glycolysis, serve?NADH helps with the oxidation of glucose by contributing to oxidation in cell processes like glycolysis. In the process of aerobic cellular respiration, the TCA cycle provides the energy stored in this reduced coenzyme NADH, which fuels the electron transport activity in the membranes of mitochondria.
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the part of the neuron that contains the nucleus is the a. axon. b. dendrite. c. synapse. d. cell body.
The cell body is the portion of the neuron that houses the nucleus.
The oval-shaped, membrane-bound nucleus of a neuron is located in the soma, or body, of the neuron. It has the nucleolus and chromosomes, which are essential for the cell's programmed protein production. Ribosomes are made by the nucleolus of the nucleus. The lengthy strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which are used to make chromosomes, contain the genetic code for an organism. DNA is made up of two long strands that are linked together in a helical pattern. When a chromosome's subunits (genes) are activated, messenger ribonucleic acid is produced (mRNA). The information found in the gene is duplicated in the mRNA. A ribosome is where mRNA attaches after exiting the nucleus and acting as a template for the synthesis of a protein molecule.
Depending on their function and location, neurons differ in size, shape, and structure. A cell body, an axon, and dendrites are the three fundamental components of nearly all neurons.
Sensory and motor neurons that are myelinated are normally found in the peripheral nerves, whereas non-myelinated neurons are found in the brain and spinal cord. nerve ends or dendrites.
The right response is, therefore, option D.
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The formation of bivalents and subsequent crossing over occur in what phase of meiosis?.
The formation of bivalents happens at some stage in the prophase I of meiosis and entails the coordination among homologous recombination, pairing, and synapsis (Mercier et al., 2015).
During meiosis, crossing-over happens at the pachytene stage, whilst homologous chromosomes are absolutely paired. At diplotene, whilst homologs separate, the webweb sites of crossing-over end up seen as chiasmata, which maintain the 2 homologs of a bivalent collectively till segregation at anaphase I.
Because handiest one replica of every homolog is present, bivalents aren't formed. In metaphase of meiosis II, the chromosomes will another time be added to the center of the cell, however this time it's far the sister chromatids to be able to segregate at some stage in anaphase II.
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UUU-CAG-GUA-UAC
15. What is the sequence of amino acids that will be translated from the mRNA above?
O phenylalanine-histidine-valine-tyrosine
Ophenylalanine-stop
Ophenylalanine-histidine-stop
O phenylalanine-glutamine-valine-tyrosine
q3.2. do you think this population of snails will evolve as predators start eating them? why or why not?
No, the population will not evolve toward thicker shells, because there is no variation in shell thickness. so there weren't any snails that were more or less difficult to eat.
The term "population" refers to all citizens who are either permanently residing in a nation or are just temporarily absent from it. This indicator displays the population of a given area on a regular basis. Growth rates are the yearly changes in population brought on by births, deaths, and net migration. The mean calculated from the total group, distribution, or population.
In broad terms, a snail is a shelled gastropod. The name is most frequently used to refer to land snails, which are pulmonate gastropod molluscs. When used in this broad meaning, the word "snail" refers to many different kinds of freshwater and marine snails in addition to land snails.
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If animals that are normally seasonal are kept in a laboratory and receive no information about changes in day length or temperature (i.e. housed in constant dark), their circannual rhythms will
become free-running
The correct option is B ; become free running , If animals that are normally seasonal are kept in a laboratory and receive no information about changes in day length or temperature become free running .
The circadian rhythm typically consists of a 24-hour cycle for most people. Some people's endogenous or natural rhythms, however, do not correspond to this 24-hour period.
For instance, those who are blind and unable to distinguish between natural and artificial light frequently experience free-running sleep patterns.
The typical effects of exposure to heat or cold are an increase in wakefulness and a decrease in slow wave and rapid eye movement sleep. Thermoregulation, which affects the mechanism regulating sleep, is strongly correlated with these effects of the thermal environment on sleep stages.
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Full Question
If animals that are normally seasonal are kept in a laboratory and receive no information about changes in day length or temperature (i.e. housed in constant dark), their circannual rhythms will
a. persist, with a period of 365 days.
b. become free-running.
c. disappear.
d. persist, but only in females.
A dam is built that separates a river into two sections—a deep upstream section and a shallow downstream section. When the dam is first built, a fish species is able to move from the upstream section into the downstream section, but not vice versa. Predators can more easily catch the fish in the shallow downstream section than they can in the deep upstream section. Which scenario is most likely to lead to speciation?.
The fish population contains individuals with effective predation evasive traits and eventual changes to the dam to prevent fish from moving downstream is the most likely scenario to lead to speciation (Option A).
What is speciation?Speciation refers to an evolutionary process in which individuals of a population diverge by the restriction of the gene flow among them and therefore they emerge as new species that are not able to produce interfertile individuals when they are crossed.
Speciation is a type of evolution associated with the appearance of reproductive isolation barriers between individuals of a given population.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that speciation may lead to the generation of new species from individuals of a population due to the emergence of reproductive isolation barriers and restriction of gene flow.
Complete question:
A dam is built that separates a river into two sections—a deep upstream section and a shallow downstream section. When the dam is first built, a fish species is able to move from the upstream section into the downstream section, but not vice versa. Predators can more easily catch the fish in the shallow downstream section than they can in the deep upstream section. Which scenario is most likely to lead to speciation?
A. The fish population contains individuals with effective predation evasive traits and eventual changes to the dam prevent fish from moving downstream.
B. The fish completely lack any effective predation evasive traits across the entire population, move infrequently from upstream to downstream locations, and reproduce with low frequency.
C. The fish reproduce with high frequency, move with high frequency from upstream to downstream locations, and have a robust set of predation evasive traits across the entire population.
D. The rate of upstream fish entering the downstream section decreases over time without being completely shut off, and many of these fish carry predation evasive traits.
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1. the glms ribozyme is a unique strategy for regulating the production of glcn6p. precisely what is the ribozyme controlling?
Glms ribozyme stands for glucosamine 6 phosphate riboswitch ribozyme. It is used in metabolic pathway and the ribozyme controlling is glucosamine 6 phosphate riboswitch.
Summary, the glmS ribozyme is a small-molecule-structured catalytic RNA this is substantial amongst Gram-superb bacteria, wherein it regulates a key metabolic pathway. It employs the small molecule GlcN6P now no longer to facilitate folding, however as a part of the lively site, as a cofactor or coenzyme.
The GlmS ribozyme is thought to take advantage of a fashionable acid-base catalytic mechanism withinside the presence of glucosamine-6-phosphate (GlcN6P) to boost up self-cleavage via way of means of about six orders of magnitude. Glms ribozyme stands for glucosamine 6 phosphate riboswitch ribozyme.
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a mixture of ddntps and dntps is used in sanger sequencing. which of the following statement is correct?
When added to a growing chain, dNTPs prevent DNA synthesis because they lack a hydroxyl group in the 3' position.
What is Sanger sequencing?
The "chain termination method," often known as Sanger sequencing, is a technique for figuring out the nucleotide sequence of DNA. The Sanger Sequence is a technique that was created in 1977 by two-time Nobel laureate Frederick Sanger and his colleagues.
The Sanger sequencing process consists of three key phases.
DNA SEQUENCE FOR ENDING CHAIN PCR
Chain-termination PCR is a unique form of PCR that uses the DNA sequence of interest as a template. While chain-termination PCR functions similarly to normal PCR, it differs significantly in that modified nucleotides (dNTPs) known as dideoxy ribonucleotides are added (ddNTPs).
ELECTROPHORESIS OF GEL TO SEPARATE SIZE
The second stage involves separating the chain-terminated oligonucleotides by size using gel electrophoresis. The oligonucleotides will be drawn toward the positive electrode on the other side of the gel in gel electrophoresis because DNA is negatively charged. DNA samples are placed into one end of a gel matrix and an electric current is applied.
DNA SEQUENCE DETERMINATION & GEL ANALYSIS
The final step consists of simply reading the gel to ascertain the input DNA sequence. Each terminal ddNTP will match a specific nucleotide in the original sequence as DNA polymerase only creates DNA in the 5' to 3' direction beginning at a supplied primer.
Hence, When added to a growing chain, dNTPs prevent DNA synthesis because they lack a hydroxyl group in the 3' position.
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in the e-test, the zone of inhibition is elliptical around the plastic strips impregnated with antibiotics. what information do you get when you know the point at which the bacterial growth touches the strip?
The information that we get when we know that the point at which the bacterial growth touches the strip is you know the concentration of a chemical that bacteria are resistant to.
According to the e-test, when the bacterial growth touches the strips then this means that they are growing in the zone of inhibition. Only those bacteria can grow in the zone of inhibition that is resistant to the particular antibiotic.
Hence, when the bacterial growth touches the strip we get to know the concentration of bacteria that have moved to the zone of inhibition and still managed to grow. This causes the bacteria to grow in resistant environments.
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Answer the following questions in complete sentences.
1.
What is the direct effect of this type of weathering?
How does freeze-thaw weathering occur in a glacler?
What can be the results from abrasion?
2.
3. How does deposition form from a glacier? What are two landforms that can be formed from glacial deposits?
This type of weathering can cause changes to the shape, size, and texture of different landforms. It can also play a role in landslides and the formation of new landforms.
What is weathering?Weathering may be defined as the process of breaking down or dissolving rocks and minerals on Earth's surface. It involves the complete deterioration of rocks, soils, and minerals as well as wood and artificial materials through contact with water, atmospheric gases, and biological organisms.
Freeze-thaw weathering is the main type of weathering. In proceeding in a manner that during the day when temperatures are higher, the snow melts and water enters the cracks in the rock. When the temperature drops below 0°C the water in the crack freezes and expands by about 9%. This makes the crack larger.
The majority of abrasions heal without leaving any scars. However, the abrasions that extend into the dermis may result in scarring of the tissue upon healing. The most common mechanism of the formation of abrasion is due to friction against the epidermis, resulting in its denudation.
A glacial deposition is the settling of sediments left behind by a moving glacier. As glaciers move over the land, they pick up sediments and rocks. Drumlins and ribbed moraines are two types of landforms left behind by glacial deposits.
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individuals iii-3 and iii-4 are expecting their first child when they become aware that they both have a family history of this recessive condition. as their genetic counselor, you can calculate the probability that they are carriers and that their child will be affected with the condition. complete each statement by dragging the correct label to the appropriate location. labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
The probability that they are carriers and that their child will be affected with the condition is 2/3, 1/2, 1/12
As you can see the below image you get clarity about the probability of child for individuals iii3 and iii4 .The probability of him inheriting an r from either parent is 1/2 .so that means 2/3 of the options involve him being a carrier.Only rr genotype is affected, so the probability is 1:4. However, there is only 1/2 probability that their mother is affected and 1/2 that their father is. To work out their probability based on this we have to multiply the probabilities: 2/3 x 1/2 x 1/4 = 1/12.
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bi331 synovial fluid: group of answer choices is located within intervertebral discs is found in synarthrotic joints is produced by chondrocytes is used by some cells to make atp
A synarthrosis is a nearly or completely immobile joint. The joints between the bones of the skull that surround the brain, such as the manubriosternal joint, are an example.
What does the Manubriosternal joint is synovial, right?
Description. The joint connecting the manubrium with the body of the sternum is a synovial joint known as the synovial manubriosternal joint in mature pigs, bovis, sheep, and some goat species (by opposite to the cartilaginous joint called the manubriosternal synchondrosis)
What does the manubrium serve to accomplish?
The tympanic membrane's central section is attached to the manubrium of the malleus, which draws the membrane inward into the middle ear cavity and is the cause of the conical form of the membrane.
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the increase in girth associated with production of wood and bark in trees occurs as a consequence of a) indeterminate growth. b) primary growth. c) secondary growth. d) apical meristem growth
The girth associated with production of wood and bark in trees occurs as a consequence of increases are c) secondary growth.
There are many vascular flowers, secondary increase is the end result of the pastime of the 2 lateral meristems, the cork cambium and vascular cambium. Arising from lateral meristems, secondary increase will increase the girth of the plant root or stem, as opposed to its length. So, an appropriate solution is 'Lateral meristem'.
Secondary increase is characterised via way of means of an boom in thickness or girth of the plant. It is due to mobileular department withinside the lateral meristem. Herbaceous flowers frequently go through number one increase, with little secondary increase or boom in thickness.
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Several body systems work together to regulate the pH of body fluids within a very narrow range. Click to select the problems that can occur when the pH of body fluids gets too high (alkalosis) or too low (acidosis). Reduced function of blood transport proteins Hypertension Fatigue Decreased rate of chemical reactions Dizziness Fishy body odor
Answer:yea
Explanation:
no
What is the most important reason a cell exhibits tight transcriptional control over the regulation of gene expression?.
Limiting the amount of mRNA that is generated from a specific gene regulates transcription. The translation of mRNA into proteins is regulated by post-transcriptional processes, which constitute the second level of regulation.
What does transcriptional regulation refer to?A crucial biological mechanism known as transcriptional regulation enables a cell or an organism to respond to a variety of intra- and extracellular inputs, determine a cell's identity throughout development, maintain it over the course of its existence, and coordinate cellular activity.
What transcriptional activity is there?These genetic alterations generate a luciferase gene that has been destabilized and contains an ARE sequence for mRNA instability and a PEST sequence for proteasome-mediated protein degradation.
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The cycle of events that initiates gonadarche involves signals from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, which secretes hormones that in turn stimulate production of hormones in the __________________.
GONADS
The cycle of events that initiates gonadarche involves signals from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, which secretes hormones that in turn stimulate production of hormones in the GONADS .
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are anterior pituitary topic hormones that stimulate the gonads (testes and ovaries) to create gametes and emit sex steroids.
The major reproductive organs are the gonads. Males have testes, whereas females have ovaries. The male testes release testosterone. The female ovaries release oestrogens and progesterone.
The hypothalamic production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) modulates pituitary secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), and subsequently FSH and LH act on the gonads to drive gonadal growth and maturation.
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basil will produce tiny flowers if it is not kept trimmed back. after these tiny flowers are pollinated, they produce tiny seeds encased in a papery covering. basil is an example of a(n
Basil will produce tiny flowers if not kept trimmed back. After these tiny flowers are pollinated, then they produce tiny seeds encased in a papery covering. Basil is an example of : angiosperm.
What do you understand by angiosperms?Flowering plants that bear flowers and fruits, and form the clade angiosperms. The term "angiosperm" is derived from the Greek words angeion and sperma, and are those plants that produce their seeds enclosed within a fruit.
Angiosperms are vascular plants and they have stems, roots, and leaves. Unlike gymnosperms, angiosperm's seeds are found in a flower. Angiosperm eggs are fertilized and develop into seed in an ovary.
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Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms can combine to form
a monosaccharide. Many monosaccharides can combine
to form a large carbohydrate.
Which sentence is true?
A. The monosaccharides are macromolecules, and the large
carbohydrate is a monomer.
B. The monosaccharides are monomers, and the large carbohydrate
is a macromolecule.
C. The monosaccharides are atoms, and the large carbohydrate is a
monomer.
D. The monosaccharides are monomers, and the large carbohydrate
is an atom.
According to the research, the correct answer is Option B. The monosaccharides are monomers, and the large carbohydrate is a macromolecule.
What are monomers?They are molecules that have a low molecular mass and are joined through chemical bonds to form a polymer, which is a macromolecule.
In this sense, monosaccharides, meanwhile, are the monomers of carbohydrates.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, monosaccharides are the monomers of so-called carbohydrates, which are also known as polysaccharides.
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