Cancer cells are the best target to amplify the most within first 2 hours. Highly oncogenic retroviruses are recombinants of viral and host genes.
Retroviruses are viruses with RNA rather than DNA in their genomes that infect cancer cells. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that is used to integrate into the DNA of the host cells. It is enhanced to a greater extent the more cell replication takes place. More retroviruses are then produced by the cell, infecting further cells. Many diseases, including AIDS and various types of cancer, are linked to retroviruses.
Low-incidence cancer-causing retroviruses lack inserted host information. Instead, it seems that they alter the expression of potentially carcinogenic host genes, which in turn results in cancer. Retroviruses incorporate proviral DNA into the chromosomal DNA of their host during the course of their regular life cycle. Integrations take place across numerous locations. Although most integrations are benign, some can cause cancer. Many of these seem to encode tyrosine phosphorylating protein kinases.
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traditional ecological knowledge and western science the case of the bowhead whale what is science? science is both a set of practices (way of knowing) and the historical accumulation of knowledge (body of knowledge). nearly chegg
Science is both a method for comprehending the natural world and the corpus of information created by several scientists.
The natural environment or natural world includes all living and non-living things that arise spontaneously, or in this case, without the use of science artificial means. The phrase is most often used to refer to Earth or certain areas within it. This environment includes all aspects of how all living things interact, as well as the climate, weather, and natural resources that have an impact on human survival and economic It is possible to divide the natural world into the following parts:complete ecological systems with all the plants, bacteria, soil, rocks, atmosphere, and natural occurrences that occur within their boundaries, as well as a nature that functions naturally.
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he cell-cell junctional structure that regulates the intercellular fluid transport between cells is:
Gap junctions in animal cells function similarly to plasmodesmata in plant cells in that they are channels between nearby cells that facilitate the passage of ions, water, and other substances. However, gap junctions and plasmodesmata are structurally distinct.
Cell junctions are required for communication with the cell's outside area. Cell junctions are classified into numerous types, including tight junctions, gap junctions, and desmosomes.
A tight junction is the junction that prevents fluid leakage between epithelial cells. Claudins and occludins are two proteins discovered that aid in the tightening of the cell-cell border.
These connections are present in epithelial cells in the skin and cavities. This sort of junction also governs water transport in epithelial cells. It serves as a physical barrier and aids in the regulation of cell polarity.
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a population of individuals about whom an epidemiologist wants to make inferences best describes a: question 1 options:
A population of individuals about whom an epidemiologist wants to make inferences best describes option B: Source population.
In an epidemiological setting, the group about which you would like to draw inferences from what you observe in your sample should be considered the source population. People who can interbreed, have children, and have similar personalities are referred to as the population. An ecosystem contains many different types of species, and each collection of organisms creates a population there.
Epidemiology is the study of the frequency and causes of disease occurrence in various populations. Planning and assessing illness prevention strategies as well as serving as a manual for the treatment of patients in whom disease has already manifested use epidemiological data.
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Comlete question is:
A population of individuals about whom an epidemiologist wants to make inferences best describes:
Target population
Source population
Study population
Affected population
what is the function of myoglobin in muscle cells? group of answer choices stores atp breaks down glucose stores oxygen stores glucose
Myoglobin is a protein that stores oxygen in muscle cells. Thus the correct answer is option (C).
Your striated muscles, which include your cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles (the muscles linked to your bones and tendons), contain the protein known as myoglobin. Its primary job is to give your muscles' cells oxygen (myocytes).
Your body's cells require oxygen to function. They transform the stored energy using oxygen. Due to their regular use, your cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles need a lot of oxygen and energy.
Myoglobin is mostly located in your striated muscles (the kinds of muscles you consciously move, such as your arm and leg muscles). Myoglobin only moves into your blood when your muscles are damaged.
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explain the relationship between monomers and polymers: a. using polysaccharides as an example: b. using proteins as an example: c. using nucleic acids as an example:
Building block of polymers is called Monomer. A polymer is serial repitition of monomer.
a) Carbohydrates are classified as polysaccharides and monosaccharides. Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides(monomer). Example - Starch is a polymer of glucose(monomer). b) Protein is a polymer of amino acid (monomer). Example - polymers is polypeptide, monomers are amino acids. c) In case of nucleic acid for example- Nucleotides are monomers (adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine, uracil) and polymers are DNA & RNA (Nucleic acid).
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Hemophilia is an example of what type of disorder?
a. disorder caused by a dominant gene
b. disorder inherited only from the mother
c. X-linked recessive disorder
d. disorder with genes located on the y chromosome
Answer:
The answer is C!
hope this helps
Explanation:
which of the following are radiographic evidence of beriberi? group of answer choices enlarged heart. thin bone cortices. hyperlucent lungs. sclerotic bands near metaphysis.
When air becomes trapped in the lungs, it overinflates them, resulting in hyperinflated lungs.
Can hyperinflated lungs be dangerous?The fact that patient symptoms improved after lung volume reduction surgery is evidence that hyperinflated lungs can have considerable negative consequences on breathing. When compared to airflow measurements, measurements of lung volume show a stronger correlation with the patient's functional limitations.
How can inflated lungs be diminished?Increasing airflow during expiration or slowing down breathing to extend the time for expiration can both help to prevent dynamic hyperinflation. For faster airflow during expiration, bronchodilators and heliox reduce airflow resistance.
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the kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, including urea, a by-product of glucose metabolism. group of answer choices true false
The kidneys eliminate metabolic wastes such as urea, which is a byproduct of glucose metabolism false: Urea is a waste product of amino acid metabolism.
Metabolic wastes are the byproducts of metabolic activities that the organism cannot utilize. Amino acid is not a metabolic waste because it is a nutrition that the organism uses.
With the exception of CO2, which is expelled together with water vapor through the lungs, all metabolic wastes are eliminated as water solutes through the excretory organs (nephridia, Malpighian tubules, kidneys).
The human urinary system consists of the kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder, and urethra, which work together to excrete pee. The kidney is an important organ that aids in the transport of nitrogenous wastes to the urinary tract.
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chromosomal rearrangement mechanisms which mechanism of generating chromosomal rearrangements involves nonhomologous end-joining (nhej)? multiple choice legitimate crossing-over transposition dna breakage illegitimate crossing-over
Answer:Induction of chromosomal translocations with CRISPR-Cas9 and other nucleases: Understanding the repair mechanisms that give rise to translocations
Explanation: vote brainiest
URGENT!!!!! What are the tructural, behavioral, and phyiological adaptation of the chicken of the wood muhroom?
The structural, behavioral, and physiological adaptation of the chicken of the wood mushroom is as follows:
Behavioral Changes
The Psilocybin cubensis is underside contains gills that can swivel such that they are always perfectly aligned to gravity. this implies that the gills will continue to successfully release spores even if the mushroom moves or bends.
Structural changes
The underside of the Psilocybe cubensis is gilded. As a result, the mushroom's surface area grows, enabling it to generate millions of basidiospores (spores) at once.
Physiological Changes
Exoenzymes can be secreted by Psilocybin cubensis, and these enzymes can then break down organic matter. Following digestion, the Psilocybe cubensis consumes the substance and puts it to use as needed. They can eat a wider range of materials as a result, which makes it easier for them to discover more edible material.
Hence, Fungi possess a unique adaptability. Exoenzymes, which are responsible for digesting organic molecules outside of the plant body, are secreted as a result of adaptation.
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in cremation, the supplies heat to raise the temperature of the cremation chamber to the point where combustion of the human remains and container is possible.
In cremation, the burner supplies heat to raise the temperature of the cremation chamber.
Cremation is a thermal process that reduces human remains to bone fragments. In this process the only remains of the human body is skeleton. soft parts, skin and hair etc. everything will be burned. The temperature required is between 1400 to 1600 degrees F. There are four main elements of cremation;
TransportationStorage cremation process ReturnTransportation means transfer of dead person to cremator
Cold storage of dead person before cremation.
The cremation or burning of dead person.
Return of cremated to authorized person.
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degeneration of the distal portion of the neural process and the myelin sheath is called this type of degeneration quizlet
Degeneration of the distal portion of the neural process and the myelin sheath is called this type of degeneration quizlet The deterioration of myelin sheath patches, which slows or prevents neuronal message transmission.
A condition known as multiple sclerosis causes degeneration the myelin sheath that surrounds the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves to deteriorate, impairing nerve impulses and making it difficult to see, hear, speak, feel, or move different parts of the body.As the distal part of the axon and myelin sheath degrades, the proximal section shuts off and enlarges. Internal organelles are transported to the proximal neuron. The term "degeneration " refers to this process.Following Augustus Waller's original nerve transection research, Wallerian degeneration is traditionally described as the degeneration of axons distant to an injury (Waller 1850).When a nerve fibre is severed or crushed, a process called distal axonal degeneration (DAD) occurs when the portion of the axon that was detached from the neuron's cell body degenerates.
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Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon
A) occurs continuously in the cell.
B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present.
C) starts when the pathway's product is present.
D) stops when the pathway's product is present.
E) does not result in the production of enzymes.
Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon starts when the pathways substrate is present is . B
What is structural gene ?Structural genes are the genes that code for proteins and RNAs except regulatory factors. They create physical structures inside cells like the cytoskeleton which gives our cells shape and support. Structural genes are divided into different type such as:
Cell receptor genes Environment genes Behavioural genesTherefore Induction is common in metabolic pathways that result in the catabolism of a substance and the inducer is normally the substrate for the pathway.
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a new era of neoadjuvant treatment with pertuzumab: should the 10-lymph node guideline for axillary lymph node dissection in breast cancer be revised?
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy was associated with a significantly lower rate of "adequate" ALNDs as defined by current guidelines. The patient subset that received neoadjuvant pertuzumab was more likely to have fewer than 10 axillary lymph nodes retrieved.
How long is neoadjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer?
Adjuvant and neoadjuvant chemo is often given for a total of 3 to 6 months, depending on the drugs used. The length of treatment for metastatic (Stage 4) breast cancer depends on how well it is working and what side effects you have.
How effective is neoadjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer?
A meta-analysis that combined the results of 12 studies found no difference in rates of breast cancer recurrence or overall survival in women who had neoadjuvant chemotherapy versus those who had adjuvant chemotherapy [157].
What is the benefit of neoadjuvant therapy?
Doctors use neoadjuvant chemotherapy before a person's primary cancer treatment. It can shrink tumors, making surgery possible in otherwise inoperable areas. It can also allow doctors to test a chemotherapy drug to gauge how the body responds to it.
Therefore, the 10-lymph node guideline for axillary lymph node dissection in breast cancer has to be revised.
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Mutant forms of RAF have also been found to play an important role in cancer. A dominant mutant called RAF-V600E (change of a valine to a glutamate at amino acid position 600) causes RAF to become hyperactive independent of signals from Ras. Drugs that inhibit RAF-V600E cause rapid shrinkage of tumors that express RAF-V600E. Interestingly, treatment of cancer cells with these drugs leads to an increase in Ras activity in the cancer cells.
Which of the following statements best explains this observation?
a. ERK normally phosphorylates the RTK and inhibits its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E decreases ERK activity, which leads to increased RTK signaling.
b. ERK normally phosphorylates and inhibits RAF to restrict the duration of RTK signaling. Therefore, inhibition of ERK leads to increased Ras activity.
c.ERK normally phosphorylates the RTK and stimulates its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E increases RTK signaling, which leads to increased Ras activity.
d. RAF normally phosphorylates the RTK and stimulates its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E therefore increases RTK signaling and increases Ras activity.
a) ERK normally phosphorylates the RTK and inhibits its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E decreases ERK activity, which leads to increased RTK signaling play an important role in cancer.
The traditional RAS-RAF-MEK-ERK signaling pathway is preserved in mammals, and the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) signaling pathway is crucial for cellular biological processes. ARAF, BRAF, and CRAF are three members of the RAF family that bind to RAS, which acts as the upstream activator, and mediate the MAPK signaling transduction to MEK. With the aid of extracellular signals, RAS.GDP (inactive) is converted to RAS.GTP (active), which then initiates a number of downstream cascades, including the RAF/MEK/ERK pathway, to transmit the signal. Thirty percent of human cancers, such as melanoma, breast cancer, ovarian cancer, colon cancer, thyroid cancer, prostate cancer, and others, are linked to the hyperactivation of ERK signaling brought on by mutations in the genes encoding receptor tyrosine kinases, RAS, BRAF, CRAF, MEK1, or MEK2. Furthermore, BRAF and its RAS activator mutations are thought to be the primary cause of this pathway's dysregulation, and RAS mutations are linked to 27% of all human malignancies. It goes without saying that the MAPK pathway is frequently dysregulated in many cancers that harbor RAS mutations, leading to the pathway's constitutive activation, unchecked proliferation, and decreased cellular sensitivity to substances that could initially induce apoptosis.
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in principle, at least, one way to increase the concentration of glucose 6‑phosphate (g6p) is to drive the equilibrium reaction to the right by increasing the intracellular concentrations of glucose and pi. the maximum solubility of glucose is less than 1 m, and the normal physiological concentration of g6p is 250????m. assume a fixed concentration of pi at 4.8 mm. the calculated value of K′eq is 4.74×10−3 m−1. calculate the intracellular concentration of glucose when the equilibrium concentration of glucose 6‑phosphate is 250????m, the normal physiological concentration.
Answers for both scenarios: The concentration (Gle= 13.7 M) can't be soluble in the first scenario while during the second situation the concentration (Gle= 116 μM) is normal and physiologically reasonable.
For the first scenario:
The equilibrium reaction is:
3.8* 10⁻³ = [250*10⁻⁶]/[0.0048][Gle]
Gle = 13.7 M
This can't be soluble at the concentration.
For the second scenario:
c. ΔG⁰ = 13.8 + (-30.5) = -16.7 KJ/mol
-16,700 = -8.315 (298) In Keq
K = 845
845 = [[250*10⁻³] [1.32*10⁻⁶]/ [3.38*10⁻⁶] [Gle]
{Gle} = 1.16*10⁻⁴
= 116 μM
Yes, the concentration is normal and physiologically reasonable.
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based on the nature of the interaction between dna and histones, what is the most likely requirement for all dna-binding proteins?
In DNA-binding proteins, restriction enzymes predominate. The majority of proteins that bind to DNA would be very negatively charged.
DNA-binding proteins include nucleases, which cut DNA molecules, different polymerases, transcription factors, which control the process of transcription, and histones, which are involved in chromosome packing and transcription in the cell nucleus. Zinc finger, helix-turn-helix, leucine zipper, and other nucleic acid-binding domains can all be found in DNA-binding proteins, among many others. There are other more bizarre examples, including effectors that resemble transcription activators. In order to have a specific or general affinity for single- or double-stranded DNA, proteins with DNA-binding domains are known as DNA-binding proteins. Because the primary groove of B-DNA exposes more functional groups that identify a given sequence, sequence-specific DNA-binding proteins typically interact with chromosomes.
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the major model of vesicle fusion holds that actual fusion of a vesicle with its target membrane is driven by the interaction of pairs of proteins called vesicle and target ... select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a snares. b rab proteins. c cops. d tethers.
According to the vesicle fusion model, the interaction between protein pairs known as vesicle and target SNAREs causes a vesicle to fuse with its target membrane.
SNAREs (soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor attachment protein receptors) are small proteins that are membrane-crossing segments or chains of lipids that are bonded to the surface of the vesicle and the membrane, respectively. Together, the SNARE proteins form a compact bundle of alpha helices that draws the membranes together.
The fusion of a vesicle with a membrane can be powered by as few as two or three of the SNARE complexes.
Therefore, the correct option is option a.
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The results of mitosis allow growth and ______ of worn out or damaged cells.
A. fixing
B. destruction
C. development
D. replacement
which cell engulfs a microbe, digests its proteins, and presents peptide antigens in combination with mhc ii molecules?
Macrophages and dendritic cells engulfs a microbe, digests its proteins, and presents peptide antigens in combination with MHC ii molecules
What are macrophages?
Important immune system cells called macrophages are created in response to an infection or an accumulation of damaged or dead cells.Large, specialized cells called macrophages can identify, engulf, and kill target cells. The Greek words "makro" for large and "phagein" for "eat" are combined to form the word "macrophage."Function:
Macrophages may have different names according to where they function in the body. For example, macrophages present in the brain are termed microglia and in the liver sinusoids, they are called Kupffer cells.What are dendritic cells?
Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) known as dendritic cells (DCs) have a crucial function in the adaptive immune system. Since antigen presentation is DCs' main job, the cells are sometimes referred to as "professional" APCs. Because they grow branched extensions called "dendrites" to increase their surface area and improve exposure to antigens throughout development, dendritic cells get their name.Hence, macrophages and dendritic cells perform these functions
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helpppppppppp meeeeeeeeee
helpppppppppppop meeeeeeeeee
pleaseeeeeeeeeeeee
helpppppppp meeee
asappppppp asapppppp
Answer:
1. C
2. D
3. C
Explanation:
Which of the following is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchandensis which identifies it as a hominin? big toe opposability larger body size shape of the hand bones perihoning chewing complex
Nonhoning chewing complex is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchandensis which identifies it as a hominin.
What is a Nonhoning complex?
This edge is kept sharp because the upper canine rubs against, or hones, the sharp edge of the lower third premolar every time the jaws close. This is due to the diastema present on the jaws, which allows the jaws to close completely.
Do humans have non-honing chewing?
All hominins have a non-honing chewing complex for smashing food. Where the chewing muscles connect to the top of the skull.
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Full Question :Which of the following is a derived hominin trait first seen in Sahelanthropus tchandensis?
A. Length of the calcaneus
B. Nonhoning chewing complex
C. Larger body size
D. Big toe opposability
which of the following are not found in the glomerular filtrate? a. urin acid b. protein c. glucose d. creatinine
Answer:
b. protein
Explanation:
under anaerobic conditions in the muscle what is the net yield of atp from glycolysis when glycogen is used as a starting material
The net yield of ATP from glycolysis under anaerobic conditions in muscle when glycogen is used as a starting material is 2ATP.
Under anaerobic conditions, two molecules of ATP are generated from the oxidation of glucose to lactate via anaerobic glycolysis. Hexose sugar, or a monosaccharide containing six carbon atoms and six oxygen atoms, is what glucose is. The first carbon has an aldehyde group attached to it, and the other five carbons each have a hydroxyl group. During glycolysis, glucose is ultimately broken down into pyruvate and energy; A total of 2 ATP are produced in the process. Once pyruvate is formed, pyruvate will have different fates in different organisms depending on the availability of oxygen. In animals, where there is an adequate oxygen supply, pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide. In the absence of oxygen, it enters anaerobic respiration where it is converted to lactate. Under anaerobic conditions, NADH is not converted to ATP; Therefore, the net production of ATP is only 2 ATP.
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if adenine makes up 40% of the bases in dna, then what percentage of the bases in dna does cytosine make up?
If adenine makes up 40% of the bases in DNA, then 10% of the bases in DNA does cytosine make up.
If 40% of Adenine (A) is present, it would be reasonable to assume that 40% of Thymine (T) will be present, as the ratio between the two complementary nitrogenous bases will be roughly equal.
Therefore, that leaves us with 20% between Cytosine (C) and Guanine (G). Since the ratio between them would be equal, it gives us 10% of Cytosine (C) and 10% of Guanine (G).
Therefore:
40% of A + 40% of T + 10% of C + 10% of G = 100% DNA
So, Cytosine makes up 10% of the bases in DNA.
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production of offspring by parthenogenesis or cloning bypasses the typical meiotic process. describe either parthenogenesis or cloning and compare the genomes of the offspring with those of the parents.
Cloning is the technique of creating a cell or creature that is genetically identical to the original.
It is a hotly debated subject that affects both researchers and the general public. The regular meiotic process is avoided throughout the cloning process. The polymerase chain reaction is a method for replicating sections of parental DNA (PCR). The embryo created from this DNA can subsequently be implanted into a uterus to develop and flourish. Since the purpose of cloning is to create an identical replica rather than one with genetic variation, meiosis does not take place in this situation.
A female gamete (rarely a male) develops without fertilization as part of the parthenogenic reproductive strategy. It can occur in plants, mammals, and higher vertebrates but not in invertebrates.
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in dogs, alleles c and c determine whether a dog has curly (cc), wavy (cc), or straight hair (cc). in a cross of a curly-haired dog with a straight-haired dog, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
Answer: (cC)
Explanation: Curl (C) is governed by a change in one of the genes responsible for a structural protein in hair (keratin). The mutation again involves the substitution of a single nucleotide—this time, a T (thymine) is substituted for a C (cytosine). The substitution is believed to affect folding of the completed protein, leading to curled or wavy hair. Dogs with straight hair have two copies of the straight form of the gene (cc); dogs with wavy hair have one copy of the straight form of the gene and one copy of the curly form (Cc); dogs with curly hair are homozygous for the curly mutation (CC).
A blood platelet drifts along with the flow of blood through an artery that is partially blocked. As the platelet moves from the wide region into the narrow region, the blood pressure:.
A blood platelet drifts along with the flow of blood through an artery that is partially blocked. As the platelet moves from the wide region into the narrow region, the blood pressure: reduces
A blood platelet floats with the blood as it passes through a partially clogged artery. The pressure on platelet reduces as the platelet advances from the large zone to the narrow partially obstructed region.Thermal pressure is the term used in thermodynamics to describe the change in relative pressure that a fluid or solid experiences in response to a change in temperature at a constant volume. It has to deal with the Pressure-Temperature Law, often known as Gay Lusac's Law or Amontons' Law. When heated to a steady pressure, a gas expands, which causes it to cool through expansion. The requirement to add more thermal energy leads to the formula for specific heat at constant pressure: CP = CV + R per mole.
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on 1 in this exercise, the kirby-bauer diffusion test was used to test the sensitivity of s. epidermidis to penicillin, novobiocin, and gentamicin. what results would you predict if the sensitivity of e. coli was tested. explain your answer.
In the Kirby-Bauer test, bacteria are plated on solid growth medium and antibiotic wafers (white disks, pictured) are added to the plate.
After allowing the bacteria to grow overnight, areas of clear medium surrounding the discs indicate that the antibiotic inhibits bacterial growth. If the observed inhibition zone is greater than or equal to the size of the standard zone, the microorganism is considered to be sensitive to the antibiotic. On the contrary, if the observed inhibition halo is smaller than the standard size, the microorganism is considered to be sensitive. it is resistant. Advantage. This test is used to determine the antibiotic of choice to treat an infection. It can be useful for monitoring antimicrobials and for the selection of suitable antibacterial agents. It does not require special equipment for its performance and can be interpreted by all medical personnel. The test is done by taking a sample from the infected site. The most common types of tests are listed below. A health professional will take a blood sample from a vein in his arm with a small needle. After the needle is inserted, a small amount of blood will be collected in a test tube or vial.
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Environmental sustainability is the responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion and degradation of natural resources so that future generations can benefit from long-term resource availability and environmental health capable of supporting life on Earth. One way we can all contribute to environmental sustainability is through smart growth. Smart growth covers a range of development and conservation strategies that help protect our health and natural environment.
Some of the strategies utilized in smart growth communities include A) Preservation of open space, farmland, natural beauty, and critical environmental areas, B) Emphasis on mixed-use communities, where people can live, work, and live in retirement, C) Reinvestment in existing infrastructure and rehabilitating historic buildings helps conserve resources and E) Design of communities that make it easy for people to walk, bicycle, or take public transit instead of driving, reducing air pollution (Options A, B, C and E).
What are smart growth community strategies?Smart growth community strategies are those procedures aimed at enhancing the development of a given area while maintaining natural resources and avoiding contamination.
The procedures (smart growth community strategies) can be very useful to enhance the quality of life of people in cities and simultaneously maintain the overall health of the ecosystems.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that smart growth community strategies are the new methods to produce suitable development in the community by minimizing environmental effects on the ecosystems.
Complete question:
Environmental sustainability is the responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion and degradation of natural resources so that future generations can benefit from long-term resource availability and environmental
health capable of supporting life on Earth. One way we can all contribute to environmental sustainability is through
smart growth. Smart growth covers a range of development and conservation strategies that help protect our health
and natural environment. Identify some of the strategies utilized in smart growth communities. Choose ALL that apply.
A) Preservation of open space, farmland, natural beauty, and critical
environmental areas.
B) Emphasis on mixed-use communities, where people can live, work, and
live in retirement.
C) Reinvestment in existing infrastructure and rehabilitating historic
buildings helps conserve resources.
D) Design communities that cater only to residential development, excluding
business and industrial spaces.
E) Design of communities that make it easy for people to walk, bicycle, or
take public transit instead of driving, reducing air pollution.
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