Identify examples and non examples of the standard form of a linear expression

The cargo plane's speed was 500 mph.

Answer:

(or 132 inches)

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 6 bracelets to make, we can multiply 22 and 6 to get 132.

The correct unit / format to answer this is in feet and all we have right now is the amount of inches we must convert.

132 inches converted into feet can be found by dividing by the amount of inches there are in a 1 foot.

Since there are 12 inches in a foot, we can divide 132 by 12 to get 11.

Answer:

The total in the account after 10 years would be: $14,190.68

Step-by-step explanation:

Recall the formula for continuous compounding:

[tex]A=P\,e^{r\,t}[/tex]

where "A" is the accrued value after t years (what we need to find), "P" is the principal invested (in our case $10,000), "r" is the interest rate in decimal form (in our case r = 0.035), and "t" is the time in years (in our case t = 10). Therefore the formula becomes:

[tex]A=P\,e^{r\,t}\\A=10000\,\,e^{0.035\,*\.10}\\A=14190.68[/tex]

Therefore the total in the account after 10 years would be: $14,190.68

Answer:

x = -3y-3

Step-by-step explanation:

To put the equation in terms of x, you simply subtract 3y on both sides.

Answer:

x = -3 -3y

Step-by-step explanation:

x+3y=-3

Subtract 3y from each side

x+3y-3y=-3-3y

x = -3 -3y

Answer: A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

just got it right EDG 2021

Answer:

volume of water in the tank when it its half full

The capacity of the water tank = (5.04) /2 = 2.52 m³

2,520 litres

Step-by-step explanation:

Dimensions of a water tank:

Length (l) = 2.0 m,

wide (w) = 1.4 m,

Depth (h)= 1.8 m,

Volume of the tank (V)

LWH

2.0m × 1.4m × 1.8 m

= 5.04 m³

= 5.04 × 1000 litres

/* 1m³ = 1000 litres */

5,040 litres

Therefore,

The capacity of the water tank = 5.04 m³

5,040 litres

Answer:

8/49

Step-by-step explanation:

4/7 ÷7/2

Copy dot flip

4/7 * 2/7

Multiply the numerators

4*2 = 8

Multiply the denominators

7*7= 49

numerator over denominator

8/49

Answer: 8/49

Step-by-step explanation: When dividing by a fraction, we can change the division sign to multiplication and flip the second fraction.

So 4/7 ÷ 7/2 means the same thing as 4/7 · 2/7.

So when dividing by a fraction, we can just multiply by the

reciprocal of that fraction or that fraction flipped.

Now multiply across the numerators

and denominators to get 8/49.

Since 8/49 is in lowest terms, it's our final answer.

Answer:

a = 4/27 - b/54

Step-by-step explanation:

27a+1/2b=4

Subtract 1/2 b from each side

27a+1/2b - 1/2 b=4-1/2 b

27a = 4 - 1/2 b

Divide each side by 27

27a/27 = 4/27 - 1/2 b/27

a = 4/27 - b/54

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Point B is at -0.5, -1 is not greater than -0.5.

Point A is at -1 and is not greater than Point B, because Point B is at -0.5.

Therefore, it is none of the above.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Therefore, it is none of the above.

Answer:

A , B and C are similar to each other

Step-by-step explanation:

Please give me branlest

Answer: $479.20

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]499.20*0.04=19.968[/tex]

[tex]round \\[/tex] [tex]19.968[/tex]

= 20

tax= $20

[tex]499.20-20=479.2[/tex]

The price of the TV before tax was $479.20

Answer:

Option D. 91/4950

Step-by-step explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Barcelona (B) = 23

Real Madrid (R) = 23

Liverpool (L) = 22

Manchester City (M) = 18

Juventus (J) = 14

Total (T) = 100

Next, we shall determine the probability of the first pick i.e probability of Juventus. This is illustrated below:

P(J1) = n(J) /n(T)

P(J1) = 14/100

Now, the picking is done without replacement. The next pick being Juventus will reduce in number and likewise the total number will also reduce i.e

Juventus = 13

Total = 99

Therefore, the probability that the 2nd pick is Juventus is given below:

P(J2) = 13/99

Now, we can obtain the probability that the 1st and 2nd student prefer Juventus as follow:

P(J1 and J2) = P(J1) x P(J2)

P(J1) = 14/100

P(J2) = 13/99

P(J1 and J2) = P(J1) x P(J2)

P(J1 and J2) = 14/100 x 13/99

P(J1 and J2) = 7/50 x 13/99

P(J1 and J2) = 91/4950

Therefore, the probability that the 1st and 2nd student prefer Juventus is 91/4950

Answer:[tex]2*3^{2} -1[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

calculate the power: 2*9-1

calculate the product or quotient:18-1

calculate the sum or difference:17

answer:17

Answer: 84 3/8 or 84.375 inches cubed

Step-by-step explanation:

4 1/2 * 5 = 22 1/2

22 1/2 * 3 3/4 = 45/2 * 15/4 = 675/8

675/8 = 84 3/8 or 84.375

Answer:

495 students

Step-by-step explanation:

The 4 part of the ratio is the number of boys.

Divide the number of boys by 4 to find the value of one part of the ratio.

220 ÷ 4 = 55 ← value of 1 part of the ratio, thus

5 parts = 5 × 55 = 275 ← number of girls

Number of students = 220 + 275 = 495

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]220 \: boys \\ 4:5 = 4 + 5 \\ boys \: = \frac{4}{9} \times x = 220 \\ = \frac{4x}{9} = \frac{220}{1} [/tex]

[tex]4x = 1980 \\ \frac{4x}{4} = \frac{1980}{4} \\ x = 495 \\ total \: no \: of \: students \: = 495 \\ [/tex]

Answer:

4.68 in

Step-by-step explanation:

4.825-0.145=4.68 in

The inside diameter of the pipe is 4.68 inches.

A straight line that runs through the sideways of a body or figure, particularly a circle or sphere, is called as a diameter of a circle or sphere.

Given:

The outside diameter of a pipe is 4.825 inches.

If the pipe wall is 0.145 inches thick,

the inside diameter of the pipe,

= 4.825 - 0.145

= 4.68

Therefore, the diameter is 4.68 inches.

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Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

I cant be asked

Answer:

the answer is x = ( 5 + r )²

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this was helpful

Answer:

B.

[tex]y = - x + 2[/tex]

Answer:

b. y=-x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

hi!

the slope intercept form is y=mx+b where m is the slope, and b is the y intercept.

since the y intercept is postive 2, we can first eliminate choices A and C since they show a y intercept of negative 2, not positive 2.

next, we can eliminate d since the line of the graph is going downwards, meaning that the slope or m is negative.

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

u can also use a graphing calculator if youre unsure and plug in each equation and see if it matches with the graph.

Answer:

GJ

Step-by-step explanation:

The "Side Splitter" Theorem says that if a line intersects two sides of a triangle and is parallel to the third side of the triangle, it divides those two sides proportionally.

In this case, lines EF and HJ are parallel, H is on side EG and J is on side GF; then using the side-splitter theorem:

[tex] \frac{GH}{HE} = \frac{GJ}{JF} [/tex]

Answer:

It is C

Step-by-step explanation:

Took it on Edg

Answer:

D, -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello! If two lines are parallels, it means they will never meet. This means that they have to be the same slope, because if one is even the slightest bit different, it will eventually touch the other line! A great website to understand visually, is Desmos! You can plot the lines and see for yourself if you're a visual learner!

Hope this helps! :)

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

C) All four sides are congruent

A rectangle does not have all four sides that are congruent to each other (In harmony) however a square does because all it's sides are equal!

A rectangle does not have equal sides, only it's parrel sides are equal to each other.

If  this really helped please mark me brainliest!

Answer:

C. All four sides are congruent

Answer:

y-5 = 3/2(x+3)

Step-by-step explanation:

The point slope form of the equation for a line is

y-y1 = m(x-x1) where m is the slope and (x1,y1) is a point on the line

y-5 = 3/2(x--3)

y-5 = 3/2(x+3)

Answer:

y-5 = 3/2(x+3)

Step-by-step explanation:

I did ze math

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is simple interest the equation will be P*T*R=I  T=time which is 1 year. P=money invested or borrowed  (aka princable) which is 400$. R=Annual rate is 3% per year and I= Interest after the number of years (aka answer) Hope this helps :)

Answer:

I = 400 x 0.03 x 1

Step-by-step explanation:

$400 is the principal, 0.03 is the decimal value for the annual rate, and the time is 1 year.

Answer:

D. 12

Step-by-step explanation:

D. 12    as 4 x 3 = 12

Proof

1 1

1 2

1 3

1 4

2 1

2 2

2 3

2 4

3 1

3 2

3 3

3 4

Sandwiches = 12

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

4*2=12

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Answer:

CD = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

ΔADE is similar to ΔBCD

Such that:

AD is similar to CD

BD is similar to ED

AE is similar to BC

Taking the proportion of their sides to find the unknown sides CD

=> [tex]\frac{6}{2} = \frac{CD}{3}[/tex]

Cross Multiplying

=> 2(CD) = 3*6

=> CD = 18/2

=> CD = 9

Answer:

v = -23/4 = -5 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

4= - 3/(v+5)

Multiply each side by (v+5)

4 (v+5) = -3

Distribute

4v+20 = -3

Subtract 20 from each side

4v +20-20 = -3-20

4v = -23

Divide by 4

4v/4 = -23/4

v = -23/4

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] log(x) = 2 \\ {10}^{2} = x \\ x = 100[/tex]

then for y:

[tex] log( y) = - 1 \\ {10}^{ - 1} = y \\ y = 0.1[/tex]

so:

[tex]xy - 100 {y}^{2} \\ = 100 \times 0.1 - 100 \times {(0.1)}^{2} \\ = 10 - 100 \times 0.01 \\ = 10 - 1 \\ = 9[/tex]

Answer:

One half of X are employees.

One third of X are employee's spouses.

We add one half PLUS one third:

1/2 + 1/3 = 3/6 + 2/6 = 5/6

Then we subtract that fraction from one whole, or 1,

to see what fraction is left.  That is, we say

1 minus 5/6

which is

1 - 5/6

Now write 1 as 6/6

6/6 - 5/6

We get 1/6

So 1/6 is left.  Now we need to make that into

a percent by multiplying it by 100 and tacking on a "%"

1/6 � 100

1/6 � 100/1

100/6

50/3

16 2/3 %

So 16 2/3 % of the people in

attendance are neither employees

nor employee's spouses.

Now let's check:

1/2 are employees.  That's 50%

1/3 are wmployee's spouses. That's 33 1/3%

15 2/3 % are neither employees nor employee's spouses.

Add them up

50     %

33 1/3 %

16 2/3 %

--------

99 3/3 %

And 99 3/3% = 100%

Step-by-step explanation:

Both of them can complete 7/12 of the job in  2 hours.

Rate is the mathematical term use to show how one quantity varies with a standard quantity.

Analysis:

If He can do the job in 8 hours, then he can do 1/8 of the job in 1 hour

If his friend can do the same job in 6 hours, then he can do 1/6 of that job in 1 hour.

So both of them would do the same job combine in 1 hour = 1/8 + 1/6

LCM of 6 and 8 is 24 so that 3/24 + 4/24 = 7/24

In 2 hours they would complete = 7/24 x 2 = 7/12

In conclusion, both of them can do 7/12 of that job in  2 hours.

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