How many times does a restriction enzyme cut a double stranded piece of dna at a given restriction site?.

Answers

Answer 1

A restriction enzyme is able to cut a segment of DNA several times. The number of times the DNA is cut (4n) depends on the length of the recognition site (n).

A restriction enzyme cuts how many times?

According to statistics, an enzyme makes an average of one cut per 4n base pairs, where n is the length of the recognition site. As a result, a DNA molecule's likelihood of containing one or more restriction sites increases with length.

Where on the double-stranded DNA are restriction enzymes active?

Restriction enzymes (RE) are endonucleases that recognize particular DNA sequences between four and eight base pairs in length and normally break the strands at a specified and constant point within or before the recognition site.

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question mode multiple choice question hypovolemia and dehydration are both examples of fluid deficiency. how do they differ? multiple choice question. in hypovolemia only water is lost, and in dehydration both water and electrolytes are lost. in dehydration water is lost, and in hypovolemia both water and electrolytes are lost. they differ only in the amount of fluid lost. in dehydration only water is lost, and in hypovolemia only electrolytes are lost.

Answers

In dehydration, water is lost, and in hypovolemia both water and electrolytes are lost.

What is fluid deficiency?

Dehydration occurs when you use or lose more fluid than you take in, and your body doesn't have enough water and other fluids to carry out its normal functions.

Which are types of fluid deficiency?

Deficient fluid volume (also referred to as hypovolemia or dehydration) occurs when the loss of fluid is greater than the fluid input. Common causes of deficient fluid volume are diarrhea, vomiting, excessive sweating, fever, and poor oral fluid intake.

What happens during hypovolemia?

Hypovolemic shock is an emergency condition in which severe blood or other fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body. This type of shock can cause many organs to stop working.

Thus, water is lost in dehydration, and water and electrolytes are lost in hypovolemia.

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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna?.

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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds DNA? -The activator directly binds to RNA polymerase, which then skips over a large region of DNA to start transcription.

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a single na /k atpase pump is present in the plasma membrane of an artificial cell with an initial cellular environment of 1000 sodium ions and 1000 molecules of atp inside the cell, 1000 potassium ions outside the cell, and a net charge differential across the plasma membrane of 0. assuming the only changes in the cellular environment are a result of the pump's actions, what would be the number of na , k and atp molecules inside the cell after 100 cycles of the pump and what would be the net charge differential (inside-outside) across the plasma membrane?

Answers

700 Na+; 200 K+; 900 ATP and −200 charge differential (inside-outside)

What is plasma membrane?

The boundary between a cell's inside and outside is created by the plasma membrane, which is a network of lipids and proteins. It is also known as the cell membrane plainly. The plasma membrane's primary job is to shield the cell from its surroundings. It controls the materials that enter and leave the cell and is semi-permeable. All living things have plasma membranes in their cells.

Na/K pump across plasma membrane:

This protein pump, also known as the Na+/K+ pump or Na+/K+-ATPase, is located in the cell membrane of neurons (and other animal cells). In a ratio of 3 sodium ions out for every 2 potassium ions brought in, it functions to transport sodium and potassium ions across the cell membrane. The process aids in stabilizing membrane potential, and the pump is crucial in establishing the circumstances required for action potentials to fire.

Hence, 700 Na+; 200 K+; 900 ATP and −200 charge differential (inside-outside) is the answer

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What anatomical region would the stoma created by the descending colostomy be in?.

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The descending colostomy is positioned on the lower left side of the abdomen in the descending colon.

Where would the colostomy be placed in the abdomen?

People who require ileostomies (stomas made from the final segment of the small intestine) typically have their stomas placed in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, whereas those who need colostomies (stomas made from a segment of the large intestine) typically have their stomas placed in the left lower quadrant.

Where does stoma form?

An area of your large, small, or urinary tract that has been brought through the surface of your abdomen (belly) and subsequently folded back is known as a stoma. Your medical condition will determine the location.

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class b mutants have sepals in whorls 1 and 2 and carpels in whorls 3 and 4. genes in class b control the development of which whorls?

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petals (whorl 2), stamens (whorl 3), petals and stamens (whorls 2 and 3), stamens and carpels (whorls 3 and 4) and sepals and carpels (whorls 1 and 4).

A flower's male reproductive organ is represented by stamens. The production of the stamen with distinct anther tissues, followed by anther dehiscence and pollination, are all steps in the complex biological process by which the male reproductive system develops. The flower's reproductive organ that produces pollen is the stamen. The androecium is made up of all the stamens.

The fourth whorl of the flower, located in the centre, is the carpel. Style, stigma, and ovary the female elements of a flower make up the majority of it. There may be one or multiple carpels in a single bloom. carpel, a seed-bearing structure that is part of the innermost whorl of a flower and resembles a leaf. The pistil might have just one carpel or many.

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this amino acid sequence is found in a tripeptide: met-trp-his. give a possible nucleotide sequences on the template strand of dna that can encode this tripeptide. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices 5'-tacaccgta-3' 5'-auguggcau-3' 3'-auguggcau-5' 5'-tacacagta-3'

Answers

5'-AUGUGGCAU-3'. The codon table may be used to identify the probable mRNA nucleotide sequences encoding for the tripeptide Met-Trp-His.

We can see from the table that the amino acid this has two possible codons, whereas Met and Trp each have one codon. As a result, the tripeptide might be encoded by two distinct mRNA nucleotide sequences. The template and non-template DNA strands can be produced from these prospective mRNA sequences after the nucleotide sequences for the potential mRNA have been identified.

Dual mRNAs codons

5'-AUGUGGCAU-3'

Non-template for DNA:

5'-ATGTGGCAT-3'

DNA template

3'-TACACCGTA-5'

5'-AUGUGGCAC-3'

Non-template for DNA:

5'-ATGTGGCAC-3'

Template for DNA:

3'-TACACCGTG-5'.

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suppose the extracellular fluid (ecf) osmolality becomes too high. what hormone would most likely be released to correct this situation?

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Dehydration or physiological stress can cause an increase in osmolarity above 300 mOsm/L, which in turn increases ADH secretion and water retention, causing an increase in blood pressure. ADH travels in the bloodstream to the kidneys.

vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone, a hormone that plays a key role in maintaining osmolality (the concentration of dissolved particles, such as salts and glucose, in the serum) and therefore in maintaining the volume of water in the extracellular fluid (the liquid space that surrounds cells). B (Hypotonic hydration. Hypotonic hydration occurs when extracellular fluid becomes so hypotonic (dilute) that water enters cells. Excess water is present in cells, intracellular compartments, and extracellular compartments.) The main factors that stimulate the production and release of aldosterone by the zona glomerulosa are angiotensin II and the serum potassium concentration. If a disturbance causes the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid to increase, water will flow out of the cell into the extracellular space to balance the osmotic gradient; however, the total body osmolarity will remain higher than normal and the cell will shrink.

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Consider an enzymatic reaction in which the initial concentration of substrate is low. If the amount of enzyme is held constant, but the amount of substrate is increased, the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction will
a. stay the same
b. decrease at first, then increase in a linear fashion.
c. be inhibited by the higher concentrations of substrate.
d. increase at first in a linear fashion, then remain at a constant high rate.
e. increase in an exponential fashion.

Answers

If the amount of enzyme is held constant,  the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction will e. increase in an exponential fashion.

An enzyme-catalyzed reaction involving two substrates The two substrates are brought together in the correct direction and location to react with one another using the template provided by the enzyme.

By changing the structure of their substrates to resemble that of the transition state, enzymes help speed up processes. The lock-and-key paradigm, in which the substrate perfectly fits into the active site, is the most basic explanation of how an enzyme interacts with a substrate.

However, substrate binding frequently modifies the configurations of both the enzyme and substrate, a process known as induced fit. In these situations, the substrate's conformation is changed to more closely approximate that of the transition state.

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Expression of the GAL, lac and trp structural genes all involve coordinated regulation in response to cellular metabolic needs. Answer the following T/F regarding how this coordinated regulation is achieved.

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The binding of galactose to GAL3 prevents GAL3 from associating with GAL80. This is a false statement.

The binding of Gal3 to the Gal80 monomer competes with Gal80 self-association. The Gal80 protein inhibits Gal4p-mediated transcription activation. So GAl3-GAL80 complex is formed not to prevent GAL4p. So the statement is false.  The binding of tryptophan to the repressor trpR allows the repressor to bind the operator. This is a true statement. Trp binds to its repressor so that it can bind to the operator. So the statement is true. The binding of cAMP to CAP when glucose is absent allows cAMP-CAP to bind the lac operon promoter and recruit RNA polymerase. This statement is true. In the absence of glucose, cAMP binds to the CAP so that CAP can bind to DNA. DNA-bound CAP helps RNA polymerase attach to the lac operon promoter. So the statement is true.

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what evidence (if any) does not support the hypothesis that crm b has a function associated with it? (mark all that apply) only coding regions of the genome have a function

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Hemoglobin genes and the cis-regulatory modules that regulate them. This section of the genome is the focus of your research (CRMs).DNA components where proteins can connect to transcription factors.

Different developmental periods occur when these genome are expressed. Adults express HBB and HBD, but fetal development expresses HBG1 and HBG2, and embryonic development expresses HBE1. A transcription factor called GATA1 is present in blood cells. A specialized protein called a transcription factor enters the nucleus of a cell to control gene expression. To activate or inhibit genome expression, transcription factors such as GATA1 must bind to particular regulatory DNA sequences (such as promoters).

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Which type of biotechnology is used by scientists when they alter the dna of a plant to make it grow faster?.

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Answer:

Recombinant DNA and biotechnology both have been resourced to produce the efficiency of plant growth by increasing the efficiency of the plant's ability to fix nitrogen.

Explanation:

what is the main effect of hiv infection? poor suppressor t-cell function poor natural killer cell function poor helper t-cell function poor b-cell function

Answers

The main effect of HIV infection is Poor helper T-cell function. The correct answer is option (c).

HIV infects a restricted number of container types in the frame, including a subdivision of lymphocytes named CD4+T lymphocytes (as known or named at another time or place T-assistant containers or CD4+T cells). The CD4+T containers are inevitable for rational invulnerable functions. Among other functions, the CD4+T container makes unfamiliar antigens and helps turn on antitoxin-producing B lymphocytes.

Helper T-cells are a type of invulnerable cell. They're individual of the main types of containers created by your organ meat. Helper T-cells sense when there's contamination in your material. They mobilize added immune containers to be in a dispute or fight the contamination. These T-containers are a fundamental part of your adaptive invulnerable reaction.

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home-canned low-acid foods, such as beans and corn, may be contaminated with clostridium botulinum, a bacterium that produces a dangerous toxin. to destroy the toxin, the food should be

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In order to destroy the toxin of the bacteria in the home-canned food, it should be boiled for 10 minutes before tasting or eating (option D).

What is sterilisation?

Sterilisation is the process of treating something to kill or inactivate microorganisms, usually by heating. Sterilisation could also be a procedure to permanently prevent an organism from reproducing.

Sterilization is different from processes such as; disinfection, sanitization and pasteurization, in that those methods reduce rather than eliminate all forms of life and biological agents present.

According to this question, home-canned low-acid foods, such as beans and corn, may be contaminated with a bacterium called Clostridium botulinum, which produces a dangerous toxin.

This toxin is injurious to health of food consumers, hence, needs to be removed. To do this, the food needs to be heated to a certain temperature before consumption.

Therefore, boiling the food for 10 minutes before tasting or eating is a way to remove the toxins in the food.

The options to the incomplete question is as follows:

A. frozen for 2 days and then thawed in the refrigerator before eating

B. heated in a microwave oven for 5 minutes

C. chilled for at least 24 hours before serving

D. boiled for 10 minutes before tasting or eating

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Explain the different impacts that fossil fuels and biofuels have on the climate change

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The use of biofuels, which are fuels made from renewable organic material, in place of fossil fuels has negative effects on fossil fuel carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas.

What are fossil fuels and biofuels?

The use of biofuels, which are fuels made from renewable organic material, in place of fossil fuels has the potential to effect.

Negative effects of fossil fuel carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, are released into the atmosphere in massive quantities when fossil fuels are burnt.

Therefore, global warming is caused by greenhouse gases, which trap heat in our atmosphere.

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How would you expect the rate of speciation of an allopatric case to compare to the rate of speciation of a sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring?.

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An allopatric case to compare to the rate of speciation of a sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring by the speciation differences.

Among the quickest prices in allopatric and sympatric species pairs, sympatric prices are approximately 2 to five instances quicker than allopatric prices. Even amongst those prices, variant is predicted due to the fact species pairs might also additionally range particularly evolutionary dynamics, populace sizes, and genetic variability. The allopatric case might arise at a miles slower charge than the sympatric case concerning allopolyploid offspring.

The number one distinction among the 2 forms of speciation is that allopatric speciation takes place in geographically separated populations even as sympatric speciation takes place in populations that might percentage a geographical place in the variety of the ancestral populace.

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5. A tissue is composed of a group of
a. Similar cells
b. Related organelles
c. Organ systems
d. Related organs

Answers

Answer:

a.similar cells.

Explanation:

hope it is correct.

ronald myers and roger sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of

Answers

Ronald Myers and Roger Sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of a split brain.

Because there are two routes for visual information to pass from one eye to the contralateral hemisphere, Myers and Sperry excised the corpus callosum and the optic chiasm from each cat in their main experimental group.

The folded cerebral cortex is a component of the gray matter of the brain. The grooves between the folds create fissures. The longitudinal fissure is the greatest fissure in the cerebral cortex that separates the brain's two hemispheres. The corpus callosum is made up of white matter. The corpus callosum acts as a natural connection between the two hemispheres of the brain. Roger Sperry excised a portion of the corpus callosum while researching ways to treat epilepsy. The LVF, which is controlled by the right side of the brain, only transmits visual information to the right hemisphere, whereas RVF only transmits visual information to the left. There are two writing implements required. Try to sketch both of the images at once, one on each piece of paper, as soon as you see them. the body's left side. The actions of your right body are controlled by your left brain. The left and right visual fields of each eye are separate regions; this illustrates the impact of a split brain.

The complete question is:

Ronald Myers and Roger Sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of ___________.

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explain the three steps that were used in this lab to determine the sickle cell genotype for individuals of the ryan family

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The three steps that were used in this lab to determine the sickle cell genotype for individuals in the ryan family were blood collection, DNA amplification, and PCR. Tests for sickle cell anemia are used to diagnose sickle cell anemia and identify sickle cell trait carriers. Sickle cell anemia is an inherited disorder that causes the production of an abnormal hemoglobin called hemoglobin S. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs throughout the body.

What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation, responsible for the deformity of red blood cells. To be a carrier of the disease, the altered gene must be transmitted by the father and mother.

Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease (passed from parents to children) characterized by alteration of red blood cells, making them look like a sickle, hence the name sickle cell. These cells have their membrane altered and rupture more easily, causing anemia.

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(5 pts.) woodrats are medium sized rodents with lots of interesting behaviors. you may know of them as packrats. let's assume that the trait of bringing home shiny objects (h) is dominant to the trait of carrying home only dull objects (h). suppose two heterozygous individuals are crossed a: hh 1 b: hh 2 c: hh 1 what will be the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

Answers

Answer:

the genotypic ratio of the offspring will be 3:1 for bringing home shiny objects versus dull objects respectively.

Explanation:

Denoting:

H as dominant trait

h as recessive trait

Heterozygous means that the alleles are different on the gene for a specific trait. In this case, both parents have the traits of bringing home both shiny and dull objects but since bringing home shiny objects is the dominant trait, it is the only trait that they would act on.

parental phenotype: shiny objects 》 shiny objects

parental genotype: Hh 》 Hh

Parental gametes: (H) (h) 》 (H) (h)

random fertilization: punnet square

H h

H HH Hh

h Hh hh

F1 generation phenotype: shiny objects 》dull objects

F1 generation genotype: HH, Hh, Hh 》 hh

offspring ratio: 3 : 1

percentage: 75% shiny objects 》 25% dull objects

where would you find a kelp forest? group of answer choices in a salt marsh in a silty coastal area in an estuary along a continental shelf in a coral reef

Answers

Answer:

Cool, shallow waters closer to shore

Explanation:

how are these two lizards adapted to their environment

Answers

The given types of lizards has the skin which matches their surroundings. They will not be easily identified by their predators.

What is environmental adaptations?

Each living organism has their own adaptations to live in the environment. Which is based on various factors such as their color, skin type, behaviors etc. which make them easy to survive in the environment.

For instance, the cactus plant is adapted to live in the deserts without water because, they have the ability to store water content in their stems.  Chameleons are able to change their color which matches their surroundings. Thus, they can easily hide from the predators.

The given lizard one with the green color is living under the green leaves  and catch pray at nights thus because of their color they can hide under the leaves and plants from predators.

Similarly, the grey colored lizard is found in the dry areas where the mud color matches with its color. Hence, these types of lizards are adapted to the dry areas.

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State what form of energy an impala would be
for the lion before he eats it and after he eats it.

Answers

Answer: That energy to maintain body temperature and perform other metabolic functions.

Explanation:

a plant cell has a concentration of 0.5mm nacl and is placed in flasks with varying nacl concentrations. identify if the solutions are isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic, and then predict what will happen to the plant cells (cytolysis, shrivel, plasmolysis, turgor pressure increases/decreases or nothing).

Answers

the solution is hypotonic, (just a little salt) then water will move into the cell. a plant cell just expands until the membrane is in full contact with the cell wall.

Hypotonic solutions have low solute concentrations in them. Hypotonic in terms of the cell is a solution with 0.5% salt. A cell experiences a net inflow of water when it is placed in a hypotonic environment. As a result, the cell expands. When kept in a hypotonic environment, cells absorb water from the surrounding medium and swell. Plant cells have a cell membrane that exerts pressure against the cell wall, which in turn applies pressure to the swelling cell but prevents it from bursting. Rigid cell walls contain plant cells. Osmosis occurs when it is submerged in a hypotonic solution, or a solution with a lower solute concentration than the cell. Plasmolysis, a process, causes a cell placed in a hypertonic solution to shrivel and die.This will result in an increase in cell turgor pressure.

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which is a function of tracheids? a) photosynthesis b) production of sex cells c) water conduction d) food storage

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Water conduction is one of the tracheid's functions. Answer (c) is the right choice.

The ability of water to conduct an electrical current is measured by its conductivity. Conductivity rises with salinity because dissolved salts and other inorganic compounds carry electrical current. At 20 °C, water has a thermal conductivity of 0.598 W/m-K. Pure water does not conduct electricity and is a great insulator. Water that contains contaminants, such as salts, can carry electricity. Salts divide into various electrically charged atoms known as ions when they are dissolved in water. Positive Na ions and negative Cl ions are the components of salts, such as sodium chloride (NaCl).

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how does the cell use the charge differences that bulid up across the inner mitochondrial membrane during cellular resperation

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The cell use the charge differences that bulid up across the inner mitochondrial membrane during cellular respiration is to provide ATP.

Within the internal membrane of the mitochondrion, proteins cast off electrons from NADH and FADH2 molecules and by skip them alongside the electron delivery chain, extracting power at every step. The internal mitochondrial membrane carries enzymes referred to as ATP synthases.

The price distinction throughout the membrane forces H+ ions thru channels in those enzymes, truly inflicting the ATP synthases to spin. With every rotation, the enzyme grabs an ADP molecule and attaches a phosphate group, generating ATP. The cell makes use of a procedure referred to as chemiosmosis to provide ATP.

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A mutation in human ATPase 6 (which corresponds to E. coli subunit a) from leucine to arginine at position 156 may allow the movement of protons across the membrane, but not the rotation of the ring of c subunits. How might this possible mechanism affect the function of ATP synthase? Choose two answers.1. There would be an uncoupling of proton translocation and ATP synthesis.2. ATP hydrolysis coupled to proton transport out of the matrix would increase.3. There would be no net effect on the overall function of ATP synthase.4. ATP synthase would remain sensitive to F0 proton conduction inhibitors.5. The c subunits would not fold correctly.6. Proton binding to subunit c would be impaired.

Answers

1. There would be an uncoupling of proton translocation and ATP synthesis. 2. ATP synthase would remain sensitive to Fo proton conduction inhibitors.

Adenosine di phosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate are used to create the energy storage molecule adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a protein called ATP synthase (Pi). It is categorized as a ligase since it modifies ADP by forming a P-O link (phosphodiester bond).

A molecular device called ATP synthase. Energy-wise, the production of ATP from ADP and Pi is undesirable, and the process would typically go the other way.

A proton (H+) concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotes or the plasma membrane in bacteria drives this reaction forward by coupling ATP synthesis during cellular respiration to the gradient.

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consider a hypothetical couple, john and jennifer, both of whom had brothers who died of a disease caused by a recessive lethal disorder (aa). what is the genotype of their parents?

Answers

The genotype of an organism is the make-up of its DNA, which results in the phenotype, or the traits that can be seen in an organism. Each nucleic acid in a DNA molecule that codes for a specific attribute makes up a genotype.

The interplay of proteins produced by the DNA determines the external appearance, or phenotype. Finding the DNA regions that are responsible for different phenotypes is now simpler because to advancements in DNA analysis tools.

Recessive lethal inheritance refers to an inheritance pattern where an allele is solely fatal in the homozygous form and where the heterozygote may be normal or have some altered non-lethal trait.

Only wild-type homozygotes and heterozygotes would be seen in crosses between heterozygous individuals carrying a recessive lethal allele that results in death before delivery when homozygous.

In other cases, the dominant (but non-lethal) phenotype of the recessive deadly allele could also be present in the heterozygote.

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A researcher isolates the blood of an individual who is sick. The blood is filtered through a porous material that will prevent all cells from passing through. The filtered serum of the blood is then injected into a healthy patient. This patient shows signs of the illness within days of the inoculation. What is the most likely causal agent of the disease based on this information?.

Answers

Answer: a virus

Explanation:

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What kind of life will be given to those who acknowledge Jesus as Lord and Savior?

Answers

Answer:

And so when we talk about accepting Jesus, that means that we are being saved from being trapped in sin, which results in eternal punishment. And it's that faith in Jesus that saves us by his grace. He died and rose again just to pay the price for our sins.

Cell division is the process of taking a parent cell and splitting it into 2 new genetically identical daughter cells. All organisms go through the process of cell division. What do bacteria use cell division for and how?.

Answers

However, in the case of a bacterium, cell division serves purposes other than simply producing more cells for the organism. Instead, it is how bacteria multiply, or increase the number of bacteria in a population.

What does cell division entail and why is it important?

When people talk about "cell division," they typically mean mitosis, which is the process of creating new cells for the body. The cell division process known as meiosis is what produces egg and sperm cells. A vital process for life is mitosis.

How do bacteria divide their cells?

In bacteria, cell division takes place when the membrane and peptidoglycan (PG) cell wall of the envelope layers infiltrate to form a septum that divides the cell into two compartments. Later on, the septal PG is hydrolyzed.

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Need help please .. the nurse has admitted a client to the postoperative unit following a bowel resection and is providing postoperative health education on coughing and deep breathing. what does the nurse explain to the client about why these actions are important? what are key difficulties of delivering on the hopes attached to the idea of sustainable development? Jack M. Balkin says that people and business entities act as information fiduciaries for each of the following scenarios. Which of the following is not one of the factors described in his vague formulation?A.When businesses give people belief that they will not misuse personal informationB.When existing social norms or patterns of practice justify the trust people put in the businessC.When businesses hold themselves out as respecting privacy to gain trustD.When people pay money and the business is required by law to protect the information when a foreman orders an assembly-line employee to carry out a task that the employee perceives as unethical, yet the employee feels compelled to do it because of the foreman's position, the foreman is exercising which type of power? a type of climactic play structure, blank were popular nineteenth century dramas with carefully and tightly constructed, although contrived, plots. an office typically orders 60 ink refills at a time. the company estimates that handling costs are 40% of the $10 unit cost and the monthly demand is around 20 units. the assumptions of the basic eoq model are applicable. what would be the cost to order? you have been hired to design a spring-launched roller coaster that will carry two passengers per car. the car goes up a 13-m-high hill, then descends 20 m to the track's lowest point. you've determined that the spring can be compressed a maximum of 2.5 m and that a loaded car will have a maximum mass of 420 kg. for safety reasons, the spring constant should be 14 % larger than the minimum needed for the car to just make it over the top.a) what spring constant (k) should you specify ?b) What is the maximum speed of a 350 kg car if the spring iscompressed the full amount. A gray kangaroo can bound across a flat stretch of ground with each jump carrying it 8 m from the takeoff point. part a if the kangaroo leaves the ground at a 19 angle, what is its takeoff speed How would I talk about the following people?1. Marco y yo2. El coche azul3. Las FloresPLEASE HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST dna is found in association with proteins within the cell. what is the term for this dna-protein complex? patient being screened for breast cancer, the nurse would assess it as a potential risk factor to the disease?pathophysiology at what speed does the rock strike the water if it is thrown with the same initial speed but at an angle 24 degrees below the horizontal? Study the pattern in the table. Tell whether the relationship between x and y is linear, exponential, or neither, and explain your answer. If the relationship is linear or exponential, write an equation for it. What was one setting Trysdaleremembered in the flashback?A. the farmB. his apartmentC. school What kind of person is Thomas Putnam? Offer one concrete detail about him from the text to characterize him. What are advantages and disadvanteges when using percent to measure change? You wrote a program to compare the portion of drivers who were on the phone. Which statements are true? Select 4 options. Responses It is important to test your program with a small enough set of data that you can know what the result should be. It is important to test your program with a small enough set of data that you can know what the result should be. A different set of observations might result in a larger portion of male drivers being on the phone. A different set of observations might result in a larger portion of male drivers being on the phone. Your program compared an equal number of male and female drivers. Your program compared an equal number of male and female drivers. You could modify the program to allow the user to enter the data. You could modify the program to allow the user to enter the data. Even when confident that the mathematical calculations are correct, you still need to be careful about how you interpret the results. Even when confident that the mathematical calculations are correct, you still need to be careful about how you interpret the results. What is the current regional trade agreement that guides trade in north america?. Use the numbers 1-6 to rank the Mesopotamian Empires in order of when theywere in power. The Assyrian EmpireThe Chaldrean EmpireThe PhoenicianThe Akkadian EmpireThe Sumerian Empire |The Persian Empire