The nurse has admitted a client to the postoperative unit following a bowel resection,No bowel movements are made by the customer. The nurse must inform the healthcare professional right after after conducting this examination.
A nursing evaluation finding of bowel resection concern on the second postoperative day was the patient's lack of bowel noises, which could indicate a paralytic ileus. postoperative ileus is a protracted loss of bowel function following surgery, usually abdominal surgery.The mechanism and cause of this common surgical complication remain unknown. It is a benign condition that usually goes away on its own with little or no therapy.Due to the possibility that fluids, sediments, and gas do not move through the intestinal tract, other examination findings could include discomfort and distention in the abdomen.Rales in the bases are frequently noticed following surgery, especially if general anesthesia was utilized.
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dave was arrested for and convicted of a drug-related offense. because of his history of drug problems, he has been referred by the court for drug dependence treatment. drug dependence treatment has been shown to be:
more successful than incarceration in lowering recidivism such as repeat offenses
How does recidivism manifest itself?Recidivism is defined as committing an offense or breaking the law again after receiving punishment or after stopping a particular behavior. For instance, a first-day release from jail results in a minor offender committing another theft right away.
. What are the three causes of a high recidivism rate?Numerous factors can contribute to recidivism, including interactions with others while incarcerated, a lack of employment and other financial opportunities, depression, a failure to reintegrate into society, an unchanging lifestyle and social network after release, and the failure of the criminal justice system to address underlying issues before release.
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a client with aids has been tested for cytomegalovirus (cmv) with positive titers. what severe complication should the nurse be alert for with cytomegalovirus?
The herpes virus known as CMV, sometimes known as cytomegalovirus, is spread via direct contact with an infected person's blood, spit, urine, semen, or breast milk.The most vulnerable people are those who are immunocompromised and/or have a damaged immune system.
CMV primarily affects who?One was in three children by the age of five has CMV, though most do not show any symptoms,After an infection, the virus can persist in a child's bodily fluids including saliva or urine for months.
Must I be concerned about cytomegalovirus?A typical virus is the (CMV),Once infected, the virus stays in your body permanently,The majority of people are unaware that they have CMV so it rarely creates issues in healthy individuals,CMV is a problem if you're expecting a child or if your immune response is compromised.
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a client has recently been diagnosed with gastric cancer. on palpation, the nurse would note what two signs that confirm metastasis to the liver? select all that apply.
Symptoms and diagnosis of liver metastases include fever, weakness, weakness, abdominal pain, or loss of appetite.
Which of the following appears to play a major role in the emergence of stomach cancer?There are a number of risk factors for stomach cancer, but the two most important ones are Helicobacter pylori infection and a family history of the disease.
How are stomach ulcers assessed?Endoscopy. To inspect your upper digestive tract, your doctor might use a scope (endoscopy). A hollow tube (endoscope) with a lens is passed down your neck, into your esophagus, stomach, and small intestine during an endoscopy. Your doctor checks for ulcers using the endoscope.
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the nurse at a well-baby clinic is assessing the motor development of a 24-month-old child. on the basis of the age of the child, the nurse expects to note what as the highest-level developmental milestone?
The nurse expects the child to have highest-level developmental milestone as in the child should open a door by turning the doorknob.
What is expected from a 24 month old baby ?
For 24 month olds, at least 100 words should be used, along with two word combinations. The youngster should come up with these word combinations; they shouldn't be "memorized chunks" of language like "thank you," "bye bye," "all gone," or "What's that?"
Most infants can: Run well by the time they are 24 months old.
Step up and down steps on your own.
Kick a ball while standing still.
Make a four-cube tower.
Write anything down on paper, then turn the pages of a book one at a time.
Shoe and pants removal.
feeding oneself and kissing oneself.
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angela conducts a study demonstrating that active learning strategies in a research methods course produce greater understanding of the material than passive learning strategies. she hopes that her results will apply to other research methods courses outside of the one she studied. angela is concerned with group of answer choices
Angela conducts a study to show that active learning strategies in a research methods course result in a better understanding of the material than passive learning strategies. Angela is concerned about Environmental generalization.
Active learning is an approach to demand that involves energetically charming graduates accompanying the course material through discussions, question-answering, case studies, duty plays, and added methods.
A key challenge in deep reinforcement learning (RL) is environment generalization: a procedure trained to answer a task in individual surroundings frequently fails to resolve the unchanging task in a kind of various test environment. Generalization admits the pupil to appropriate what they've well-informed during meetings and set it into practice in their nature.
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the client receives a prescription for niacin, and the nurse is providing education about the medication. what should the nurse teach the client about possible adverse effects of the medication?
"Some people get very flushed skin when they take this medication." is what the nurse should warn the client about.
What is the use of niacin medication?
High-density lipoprotein (HDL), the "good" cholesterol that aids in the removal of low-density lipoprotein (LDL), the "bad" cholesterol, from your system, is increased by prescription niacin. Niacin is available in oral tablet and extended-release (long-acting) tablet forms. The extended-release tablet is typically taken once daily, at bedtime, following a low-fat snack, while the standard pill is typically taken two to three times daily with meals.
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the nurse is providing education to a patient with newly diagnosed t1dm. which statement by the patient indicates teaching is successful? a. i need to carry hard candy when i go jogging b. i should wait to eat until after i finish exercising c. i do not need to worry about testing my urine for ketones d. i do not need a medic alert bracelet, it could cause my boss to discriminate against me
Should wait to eat until after I finish exercising is the correct option which indicates teaching is successful.
What exactly is a diabetic?
When you have diabetes, your body either produces insufficient insulin or uses it improperly. Too much blood sugar remains in your bloodstream when there is insufficient insulin or when cells stop responding to insulin. That can eventually lead to serious health issues like kidney disease, vision loss, and heart disease.
What are the four diabetes warning signs?
High blood sugar levels are a common symptom of type 2 diabetes. Early warning signs and symptoms may include fatigue, hunger, increased thirst, frequent urination, vision issues, slow wound healing, and yeast infections.
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a patient was body surfing in the ocean and sustained a cervical spinal cord fracture. a halo traction device was applied. how does the patient benefit from the application of the halo device?
The halo device allows for stabilization of the cervical spine along with early ambulation.
What is a cervical spine injury?
Cervical spine injury is caused due to deformation of the cervical spinal column that can damage the spinal cord. Cervical spinal cord injuries are the most severe kinds of spinal cord injuries.
These kinds of injuries causes permanent change in strength, sensation and other functions of the body below the site of the injury.
Spinal cord injuries may lead to quadriplegia or tetraplegia and paraplegia. These are associated with loss of muscle strength in all four extremities. quadriplegia or tetraplegia and paraplegia are paralysis caused by spinal cord injuries.
Quadriplegia or tetraplegia affects the arms, hands, trunk, legs and pelvic organs.
Paraplegia affects all or a part of the trunk, legs and pelvic organs.
Therefore, the halo device allows for stabilization of the cervical spine along with early ambulation.
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when making rounds on the pediatric neurology unit, the nurse manager notes that, when giving iv medications, many of the staff nurses are disconnecting the flush syringe first and then clamping the intermittent infusion device. the nurse manager is concerned that the nurses do not understand the benefits of positive pressure technique and turbulence flow flush in preventing clots. after the nurse manager discusses the problem with the staff educator, which intervention would be the most effective way to improve the nursing practice?
Reduce the I.V. flow rate and hang the recommended treatment intervention would be the most effective way to improve the nursing practice.
What should the nurse do?
The nurse should keep the I.V. access open and start the correct solution when a client is receiving the incorrect solution. The catheter does not need to be taken out by the nurse. The client would experience pointless needle sticks if this were done. Waiting until the next bottle is scheduled to be delivered is improper and puts both the client and the nurse in legal danger. The nurse should write out an incident report describing the precise problem after beginning the correct solution.
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which education would the nurse provide the parents of an infant with phenylketonuria about the etiologyo f the ocndition
The nurse should provide the parents of an infant with phenylketonuria about the etiology of the condition that this disorder was inherited from parents which is autosomal recessive.
What is phenylketonuria ?Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inborn error of metabolism in body which generally results in decreased metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine (C9H11NO2).
What is meant by autosomal recessive?It (autosomal recessive) is a way or method by which genetic traits are passed on from parents to child.
What happens if PKU is untreated?There are chances of occurring cognitive impairment if it is not treated at proper time. A low diet know as phenylalanine diet is also required.
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the nurse, along with a nursing student, is caring for mrs. roper, who was admitted with dehydration. the student asks the nurse where most of the body fluid is located. the nurse should answer with which fluid compartment?
Roper, who had dehydration when he was hospitalized. Where is the majority of the bodily fluid, the pupil queries the nurse. About 70% of the water in the body is intracellular, or the fluid inside cells.
Osmoreceptors, which are specialized cells in the brain, detect this drop in cell water and activate the dehydration thirst mechanism, which includes the process of seeking out and consuming water as well as the release of fluid antidiuretic hormone into the blood. Dehydration symptoms include increased thirst, a dry mouth, dizziness, fatigue, impaired mental clarity, low urine output fluid , dry skin, the inability to cry, and sunken eyes.
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when caring for a client with advanced cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
Handwriting and/or cognitive performance of the client change.
An patient having hepatic encephalopathy needs to be monitored for what?Hepatic encephalopathy cannot be detected with a conventional test.Blood tests, however, are able to detect issues like infections and bleeding linked to liver illness.To rule out illnesses like strokes and brain tumors, which have symptoms that are similar to yours, your doctor may conduct additional testing.
How would you assess a person who has hepatic encephalopathy?MHE can be identified using the Psychometric Hepatic Encephalopathy Score (PHES), which has proven to be sensitive and specific.The PHES consists of five exams: the number connection tests A and B, the serial dotting test, the line tracing test, and the digit symbol test.
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the family of a patient in hospice care for the final stage of lung cancer has summoned 911 because their father is short of breath. the patient is responsive to verbal stimuli and has an open airway with adequate respiration of 18 to 20 breaths per minute. his skin is cool and diaphoretic with diminished breath sounds bilaterally. your partner reports a heart rate of 112 beats/min, blood pressure of 96/44 mmhg, and spo2 of 82% on room air. the patient has a valid dnr order, but family is scared and wants him transported to the ed for evaluation. your next action would be to:
The nurse's next steps would be to administer additional oxygen, keep an eye on the patient's vital signs, and transport him or her to the emergency department.
An emergency department (ED) is a type of medical facility that specialises in providing acute care to patients who arrive without an appointment, either on their own volition or through ambulance. A quick and thorough assessment of a patient's injuries is followed by the creation of a patient care plan, which is primarily the responsibility of the emergency room nurse. Bone setting, blood transfusions, wound care, medication administration, and many other tasks are typical duties.
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a client has developed a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. when should the nurse assess for a possible progressing response to the secondary or late-phase?
Just after primary or initial-phase response, it may happen 2 to 8 hours later and extend for several days.About 2 to 8 hours following your primary or initial-phase response, a secondary and late-phase response sets in and lasts for several days.Within 5 to 30 minutes after antigen exposure, the initial or immediate-phase reaction typically manifests and diminishes within 60 minutes.
Why do type 1 hypersensitivity reactions occur?Within minutes after antigen exposure, type I hypersensitivity develops.Antigen-associated IgE on mast cells binds to it to cause it.There may be anaphylactic reactions as a result of the production of vasoactive amines.Some skin reactions following helminth infections appear to be brought on by this Category I hypersensitivity.
What features define type 1 hypersensitivity?hypersensitive type 1 response.After being exposed to an antigen, a person develops type 1 hypersensitivity, which results in an instant reaction.In this kind of reaction, the body produces an IgE specific form of antibody in response to an antigen.
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a client with hepatic cirrhosis questions the nurse about the possible use of an herbal supplement—milk thistle—to help heal the liver. which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Yes, Milk thistle is one the most popular liver supplements for treating and repairing the liver thanks to its amazing seeds, which contain a flavonoid called silymarin. Silymarin is an important antioxidant and protects the liver by optimizing liver function and detoxification.
Cirrhosis is a late stage of scarring (fibrosis) of the liver caused by many forms of liver diseases and conditions, such as hepatitis and chronic alcoholism.
Each time your liver is injured — whether by disease, excessive alcohol consumption or another cause — it tries to repair itself. In the process, scar tissue forms. As cirrhosis progresses, more and more scar tissue form, making it difficult for the liver to function (decompensated cirrhosis). Advanced cirrhosis is life-threatening.
The liver damage done by cirrhosis generally can't be undone. But if liver cirrhosis is diagnosed early and the cause is treated, further damage can be limited and, rarely, reversed.
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the nurse provides teaching for a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (ra) about the prescribed methotrexate. which client statement determines the need for further teaching?
Most patients who experience the early stages of rheumatoid arthritis complain of stiffness in the morning or discomfort after spending some time sitting motionless. Limited joint range of motion is one of the latter rheumatoid arthritis symptoms.
For a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, which nursing action is suitable?Offer a range of comfort measures (eg, application of heat or cold; massage, position changes, rest; foam mattress, supportive pillow, splints; relaxation techniques, diversional activities). administer painkillers, slow-acting anti-rheumatic drugs, and anti-inflammatory drugs as directed
When instructing a client with arthritis, which symptom would the nurse mention?In more than one joint, there is discomfort, edema, stiffness, and tenderness. stiffness, particularly in the morning or after prolonged hours of sitting. On both sides of your body, you have stiffness and pain in the same joints.
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a physician suspects urinary tract referred pain in a patient with right shoulder complaints. what part of the urinary system would refer pain to the right shoulder?
Auscultation led to the patient being taken to the emergency room with a suspected AMI since shoulder pain (SP) can come from both visceral and musculoskeletal sources.
which body part refers discomfort to the right shoulder?Your phrenic nerve becomes irritated and swollen when your gallbladder is affected. From the abdomen, through the chest, and into the neck is the phrenic nerve. A fatty meal irritates the nerve and results in referred pain in your right shoulder blade each time you consume it.
What is the source of soreness near the right shoulder blade?Muscular strain: The most frequent cause of shoulder blade pain is muscle strain, which can result from strenuous exercise, heavy lifting, or simply sleeping incorrectly. If your discomfort is accompanied by popping and cracking sounds, you may have snapping scapula syndrome.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. A stereotype based on appearance that is largely accurate is that, in contrast to less attractive people, more attractive people tend to ______.
A stereotype is an assumption that links a group of individuals to particular features or qualities. An assumption about a person based on the a group to which they may belong is called a stereotype. Stereotypical concepts or pictures are frequently unchanging and too simplistic. As per a report release out from University of Southern California, patients who feel evaluated by healthcare professionals are more like to mistrust the doctors as well as other healthcare providers and to follow medical instructions less closely.
How can we prevent stereotypes in healthcare and its uses?1. Take various viewpoints into account. From another perspective, how do things appear or feel.
2. Be patient. Avoid rushing an interaction and resist the need to react automatically to spot prejudices.
3. Learn about the person. To avoid stereotyping, learn more about the other person specifically.
According to Simply Psychology, stereotypes help us make sense of the social world and minimize the amount of processing (i.e. thinking) required when meeting a new person by classifying them under a "preconceived marker" of comparable characteristics.
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5. which nursing interventions are required by the joint commission (tjc) when the decision is made that a patient will benefit from the use of physical restraints? select all that apply.
The nursing interventions required by the joint commission (tjc) are: The family of the patient is telephoned and told that restraints are applied. A staff member is assigned until the restraints are removed to sit next to the patient. The nurse also provides the patient with a timetable that shows when the restraints will be removed.
What is the joint commission?
The Joint Commission (TJC) enterprise mission is to enable and empower health care organizations all around the world to build a foundation for patient safety and quality care.
As per the joint commission (TJC) standards, it is required that the family of the patient and legal representatives as well be informed when restraints are being used.
The staff is required as well to make in person observations of the patient in restraints for the entire duration of when the patient is in restraints.
So, therefore, the nursing interventions required by the joint commission (tjc) are: The family of the patient is telephoned and told that restraints are applied. A staff member is assigned until the restraints are removed to sit next to the patient. The nurse also provides the patient with a timetable that shows when the restraints will be removed.
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a 60-year-old female with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the er for changes in mental status. mri reveals that she had a hemorrhage stroke. this type of stroke is often caused by:
Aneurysms is the correct answers
What is hypertension?
The arteries in the body are impacted by the prevalent condition of high blood pressure. Additionally known as hypertension. The blood's constant pressure against the artery walls is too high if you have high blood pressure. To pump blood, the heart has to work harder.Millimeters of mercury are used to measure blood pressure (mm Hg). An average blood pressure reading of 130/80 mm Hg or greater is considered to be hypertension.The American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology classify blood pressure into four broad categories.
healthy blood pressure. At least 120/80 mm Hg for blood pressure.
high blood pressure The bottom number is below, not over, 80 mm Hg, and the top number falls between 120 and 129 mm Hg.
first-stage hypertension. The top number is in the 130–139 mm Hg range, and the bottom number is in the 80–89 mm Hg range.
Second-stage hypertension The top number is at least 140 millimeters of mercury, or the bottom number is at least 90.
Hence, Aneurysms is the correct answers
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A client is being discharged after undergoing a thyroidectomy. Which discharge instructions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
1. "Report signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia."
2. "Take thyroid medication as ordered."
3. "Watch for signs in body functioning, such as lethargy, restlessness, sensitivity to cold, and dry skin, and report these changes to the physician."
4. "Recognize the signs of dehydration."
5. "Carry injectable dexamethasone at all times."
"As directed, take thyroid medicine." and "Report any alterations in your body's functioning, such as tiredness, restlessness, susceptibility to cold, or dry skin, to your doctor."
What do you mean by symptoms?Every ailment or disease that a person may be experiencing on a bodily or mental level. Hidden symptoms do not show up on diagnostic examinations. Some symptoms include pain, nausea, fatigue, and headaches.
What are symptoms vs signs?Only one person who can accurately detect a symptom is the one who is experiencing it. Signs are quantifiable, measurable, and objective results. Getting a diagnosis requires consideration of both an underlying health condition's indications and symptoms..
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a client who is 6 weeks' pregnant comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. what is the most immediate need for the nurse to address for this client?
The nurse's top three priorities for this client are to weigh them, check their blood pressure, and listen for foetal heart sounds.
During labour, when does the membrane burst?Prelabor rupture, however, occurs sporadically in healthy pregnancies when the membranes burst before labour even begins. Prelabor membrane rupture may happen before or beyond the due date (at 37 weeks or later, when pregnancy is regarded as full term) (called preterm prelabor rupture if it occurs earlier than 37 weeks).
How a woman feels during pregnancy?Morning sickness typically starts one to two months after becoming pregnant and can happen at any time of the day or night. But some women experience nausea earlier, while others never do.
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which response by the nurse best answers a client's question regarding the purpose of white fat? energy storage heat production gluconeogenesis blood sugar regulation
The best response by the nurse in answering a client’s question about the purpose of white fat is: energy storage. Hence, the answer is: A.
What is white fat and its purpose?White fat or white adipose tissue (WAT) is made up of large lipid or fat droplets that our body uses as storage space for the excess calories. The white fat mostly consists of lipid-filled adipocytes and several non-adipocyte cells, such as adipocyte precursor cells, blood, endothelial, and stromal cells. This fat can be found beneath the skin, around our internal organs, and in the central cavity of our bones.
White fat is very crucial to our body as it has the purpose to:
Stores excess energy in triglycerides form.Releases fatty acids via lipolysis to be used by other organs.Cushions and insulates our body.Protects our vital organs.From what was just described, we can conclude that white fat purpose is energy storage.
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which nursing action would the nurse take when caring for a patient during the acute phase of diabetic ketoacidosis?
Intravenous insulin, regular monitoring, and replenishment of electrolytes, namely potassium and sodium, can all be used to treat diabetic ketoacidosis.
What should a patient with DKA have monitored?Patients need to be checked on frequently and closely. Until the patient is stable, blood sugar levels should be checked every one to two hours. Depending on the severity of the DKA, blood urea nitrogen, serum creatinine, sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate levels should also be checked every two to six hours.
When a customer has diabetic ketoacidosis Which kind of insulin will be administered by the nurse?In DKA, only short-acting insulin is utilized to treat hyperglycemia. 100 mg/dL/h is the ideal rate for glucose decrease.
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the nurse, providing client teaching, explains that difenoxin and diphenoxylate are chemically related to what medication?
The nurse, providing client teaching, explains that difenoxin and diphenoxylate are chemically related to Demerol medication which is a opioid pain medication also known as meperidine.
What is a medication?The usage of right amount of drug to diagnose, treat, cure or prevent disease is clinically termed as medication. With drug or without drug other kinds of medicines are also used for such medication purposes.
Meperidine:Difenoxin and diphenoxylate are chemically related to meperidine medication which is a opioid pain medication and are used at doses which are helpful in decreasing gastrointestinal activity without creating any harmful analgesic or respiratory effects.
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a client who is in the early first trimester of pregnancy has been encouraged to take a folic acid supplement. in addition, the nurse encourages the client to eat food rich in folic acid. which food should the nurse suggest the client eat?
a client who has been advised to take a folic acid supplement while in the early stages of her first trimester of pregnancy. Additionally, the nurse counsels the client to consume folic acid-rich foods.the benefits of folic acid before and during pregnancy
Progestins from oral contraceptives, amoxicillin, progesterone, albuterol, promethazine, and estrogenic compounds were the most frequently prescribed specific ingredients; over-the-counter ingredients included acetaminophen, ibuprofen, docusate, pseudoephedrine, aspirin, and naproxen trimester of pregnancy.Folic acid helps create the neural tube during the early stages of pregnancy when the fetus is developing. Folic acid is crucial because it can aid in preventing some serious birth malformations of the baby's spine and brain (anencephaly) (spina bifida).The greatest approach to lower your baby's risk of having a neural tube defect is to take folic acid supplements every day beginning 12 weeks before conception and continuing until at least 12 weeks of pregnancy.
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of the following individuals, who is most likely to benefit from therapeutic drugs that block receptor sites for dopamine?matthew, who feels hopeless and lethargic after losing his jobamir, who complains about feeling tense and fearful most of the time but doesn't know whymarcella, who is so obsessed with fear of a heart attack that she frequently counts her heartbeats aloudbesty, who hears imaginary voices telling her she will soon be killed
The individual that is most likely to benefit from therapeutic drugs that block receptor sites for dopamine is Betsy, who hears imaginary voices telling her she will soon be killed. Thus, the correct answer is D.
Dopamine is categorized as a neurotransmitter, meaning it transports signals throughout the brain. Most antipsychotic medications are known to inhibit certain dopamine receptors in the brain. This lowers the flow of these messages, which may aid in the reduction of any psychotic symptoms.
Some disorders, such as schizophrenia, nausea, mood disorder (bipolar disorder), and vomiting, are treated using dopamine receptor antagonists. The correct answer is D since Betsy's condition is associated to schizophrenia.
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a nurse cares for a client who is sccheduled for a total laryngectomy. which action would the nurse take prior to surgery
After surgery, the patient won't be able to speak. The nurse should help the patient select a form of communication they'd like to employ following surgery.
Which is more important in the first few days following a laryngectomy?Learning how to take care of their new airway should be a top priority for people who have undergone total laryngectomy surgery. Patients need to pay close attention to their only source of breathing because the lower airway is no longer connected to the upper airway.
Which treatment would the nurse administer to a patient who has a partial laryngectomy to prevent aspiration?The supraglottic swallow maneuver was first designed to be used with patients who have supraglottic laryngectomy to enhance their capacity to protect the airway and prevent aspiration during the swallow.
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a client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle). what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in order to evaluate the client's stage of disease?
An autoimmune disease called SLE causes the immune system to attack its own tissues, which causes severe tissue destruction and inflammation in the affected organs.
Which of the following rheumatoid arthritis (RA) treatment modalities is frequently used first?Methotrexate is usually administered as the first drug for rheumatoid arthritis, often in combination with another DMARD and a brief course of steroids (corticosteroids) to alleviate any pain. These might be combined with biological treatments.
Which drugs are recommended as first-line therapy for a patient with recently discovered rheumatoid arthritis?To control the condition, various pharmaceutical combinations are frequently employed. Usually, the first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis is methotrexate. Tumor necrosis factor inhibitors are typically regarded as second-line drugs or can be coupled to other medications for combination therapy.
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1. the nurse is percussing the seventh right intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the liver. which sound should the nurse expect to hear?
The right upper quadrant of the body contains the liver, which would produce a dull percussion noise. The nurse is most likely to hear this noise.
What is the midclavicular line ?The liver is an abdominal organ that performs a variety of tasks, such as filtering blood from the GI system, secreting bile into the GI tract, metabolizing medications, and synthesising proteins (eg, clotting factors). The term "hepatomegaly," which is used to describe an enlargement of the liver beyond its usual size, refers to a variety of disorders that might affect the liver's vascularity, location, and functions. Based on the results of a physical examination or imaging, hepatomegaly may be suspected.
The wedge-shaped liver is an organ that is situated in the right upper quadrant of the belly (figure 1). The right costal margin of the midclavicular line to the fifth intercostal space is where the liver usually lies.
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