Answer: yes
Explanation: the birds would die off and they could keep reproducing
Catabolism of protein is not a practical source of quick energy because of all of the following except that
A: proteins are more difficult to break apart than lipids or carbohydrates.
B: the energy yield from protein is less than the yield from lipids.
C: one of the by-products of protein catabolism is ammonia.
D: extensive catabolism of protein threatens homeostasis.
E: most individuals have little protein to spare before harming vital organs.
The correct option is E : most individuals have little protein to spare before harming vital organs. Proteins are broken down into amino acids during catabolic processes, lipids into fatty acids, and polysaccharides into monosaccharides.
These building components are subsequently employed in anabolic processes to synthesize compounds. Catabolic processes provide energy. They have exergonic properties. Large molecules are broken down into smaller ones in a catabolic process.
The initial step in breaking down amino acids so that they may be transformed to sugars is oxidative deamination. The process begins with the amino group of the amino acids being removed.
As the amino group is removed, it becomes ammonium and then enters the urea cycle to create urea in the liver. It is subsequently released into the bloodstream and carried to the kidneys, which discharge the urea as urine.
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When scientists and doctors are looking to heal wounds and cure diseases, stem cells are a great option because they can repair damage and grow new specialized cells. From the list, which type of stem cell would be the best option for healing the widest variety of diseases?.
The crude element scientists and doctors were looking from which our body tries to make all the other cells with specialized type of functions are called embryonic stem-cells. Option (A).
They have the ability to provide many varieties of bin the body. In infection or any injury, they may be very useful as they displace the useless and broken cells. Embryonic stem cells are discovered withinside the internal middle of the human embryo.
They are withinside the undifferentiated shape which means they could deliver upward push to any sort of mobileular and its progenitors. ESC are pluripotent this is they've complete ability to change into the 3 number one germ layers. They may be the first-rate choice for recuperation the widest kind of sicknesses as they could regenerate and restore broken tissues and organs. Therefore, Embryonic stem cells are the first-rate choice for recuperation the widest kind of sicknesses.
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Correct Question:
When scientists and doctors are looking to heal wounds and cure diseases, stem cells are a great option because they can repair damage and grow new specialized cells. From the list, which type of stem cell would be the best option for healing the widest variety of diseases?
a). embryonic stem cells
b). small intestine stem cells
c). bone marrow stem cells
d). skin stem cells
what is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? question 2 options: it hydrolyzes the host cell's dna. it uses viral rna as a template for dna synthesis. it uses viral rna as a template for making complementary rna strands. it converts host cell rna into viral dna.
The function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses is to alter the genome of the host cell in retroviruses.
A retrovirus is a type of virus that alters the genome of a host cell by inserting a DNA copy of its RNA genome[a] into the DNA of that host cell. This enzyme is known as reverse transcriptase. HIV belongs to retrovirus group, destroys the white blood cells known as CD4 cells, which aid in the body's fight against infection and disease. Reprogramming a virus-infected CD4 cell to produce new HIV copies takes place. To accomplish this, HIV requires the assistance of the enzymes reverse transcriptase, protease, and integrase.
RNA genomes carried in retrovirus particles are transformed into double-stranded DNA by retroviruses. To produce RNA, reverse transcriptase first transcribes a complementary strand of DNA: Hybrid DNA
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) Motor neuron - efferent neuron
b) Ganglion - knot like mass of the nerve cell bodies
c) Sensory neuron - afferent neuron
d) Somatic nerves - serve the eyes and ears
Somatic nerves don't serve the eyes and ears.
A subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that penetrates almost every part of the body is the somatic nervous system. This nervous system is involved in conscious activities and has nerves that travel to the skin and muscles. This helps with the regulation of the body's movements under voluntary control via the use of skeletal muscles.
Therefore, option d is incorrect. Because the nerves that serve the eyes are optic nerves and the ears are the auditory nerves.
A motor neuron is also referred to as an efferent neuron. A sensory neuron is also referred to as an afferent neuron. Ganglions are clusters of neuronal bodies that form part of the peripheral nervous system.
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After a virus binds to a specific host cell _________, it enters the cell via either receptor-mediated _______ or by fusion of the viral envelope with the plasma membrane of the target cell.receptor , endocytosis
After a virus connects to a particular host cell receptor, it either enters the cell by integrin endocytosis or by fusing with the target cell's plasma membrane.
The viral life cycle's first step of infection, known as viral entry, occurs when the virus gets in contact with the host organism & introduces viral material there. Initial contacts between viruses and cell membranes occur independently of fusion proteins. The virus fusion proteins finally connect to specific receptors on the cellular membrane as the virus moves all along fluid cell's outer surface (4). The two membranes will continue to be separate if merely binding took place. The viral particle must first engage in non-covalent contacts with one or more of the receptor-specific viral replication anchored into to the lipid bilayer before it can infect a new cell.
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what effect does contraction of the diaphragm have on intra-alveolar pressure? multiple choice question.
The thoracic cavity expands and the diaphragm contracts during inspiration. As a result, the interalveolar pressure is reduced, allowing air to enter the lungs.
Mechanism of ventilation:
Air is moved through the conducting passages between the atmosphere and the lungs during ventilation, also known as breathing. Due to pressure gradients created by the diaphragm and thoracic muscles contracting, air flows through the passages.Pulmonary ventilation:
Breathing is the general name for pulmonary ventilation. The act of air entering the lungs during inspiration (inhalation) and exiting the lungs during expiration is known as it (exhalation). Pressure differences between the atmosphere and the gases in the lungs cause air to flow.As a result of these three pressures, the lungs are ventilated:
Inspiration
The act of bringing air into the lungs is known as inspiration (inhalation). As a result of the contraction of muscles, it is the active phase of breathing. The thoracic cavity expands and the diaphragm contracts during inspiration. As a result, the interalveolar pressure is reduced, allowing air to enter the lungs. The breath of inspiration fills the lungs.
Expiration
The act of releasing air from the lungs during the breathing cycle is known as expiration (exhalation). The diaphragm relaxing and tissue recoiling elastically cause the thoracic volume to decrease and the interalveolar pressure to rise during expiration. The act of exhaling forces air out of the lungs.
Hence, the interalveolar pressure is reduced, allowing air to enter the lungs.
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1. Which of the following phyla in the animal kingdom exhibit an asymmetrical body plan? choose all that apply
a. placozoa
b.nematoda
c.arthropoda
d.porifera
Answer:
A and C
Explanation:
I took the quiz
The genetic code is three-letter code. If the code were a four-letter code, how many codons would exist in the genetic code? the answer should be 256, please explain. Will give a thumbs up.
If the code were a four-letter code, 256 codons would exist in the genetic code.
The number of codons are determined by [tex]4^{n}[/tex] where n is the number of codes in one codon.
So in four letter code, [tex]4^{4} = 256[/tex].
The genetic code is a set of rules that living cells use to convert information encoded in genetic material into proteins. There are two types of genetic code. The genetic code can be expressed using RNA or DNA codons. RNA codons are found in messenger RNA (mRNA) and are the codons that are actually "read" during polypeptide synthesis.
The genetic code aids in the prediction of the amino acid sequence of a protein from genetic material. Knowing the amino acid sequence of a protein helps us predict its structure and understand some of its properties and functions.
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why was protein hypothesized to be the hereditary material? why did people think it was so unlikely that it could be dna?
In traditional times, many scientists hypothesized that proteins were hereditary material because DNA is made up of only 4 nucleotides whereas proteins were made from 20 different kinds of amino acids.
In previous times, scientists believed that it was impossible for DNA that just had 4 nucleotides to be the hereditary material. They could not find out how information could be shuffled in just four nucleotides id DNA were to be the hereditary material.
Hence, scientists in the past believed that proteins were hereditary material as they were made of 20 different kinds of amino acids. They thought that variations were caused in organisms due to proteins.
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ATTTGCAT is the ________, which is one of the eukaryotic control sites for transcription.A) TATA boxB) OctamerC) GC boxD) GCAT box
ATTTGCAT is the TATA box, which is one of the eukaryotic control sites for transcription. Correct answer: Letter A.
Since, it is a short DNA sequence that is usually centered at the transcription start site and consists of a consensus sequence of 6-8 base pairs, usually ranging from 5'-ATTTGCAT-3' to 5'-TATAAGAT-3'.
What is the TATA box?Is a core promoter element found in the promoter region of many eukaryotic genes.
The TATA box is important for the binding of the transcription factor TFIID, which is a critical factor for the initiation of transcription in eukaryotes.
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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
if a heterozygous male with the genotype ww is mated with a homozygous recessive female of genotype ww, there is a chance that____of the offspring will be heterozygous.
W w
w Ww ww
w Ww ww
if the heterozygous, ww, is crossed with a homozygous dominant, ww, then the probability of having a homozygous recessive offspring is_____.
W w
W WW Ww
W WW Ww
If a heterozygous male with the genotype Ww is mated with a homozygous recessive female with the genotype ww, then the probability of heterozygous offspring is 0.5 or 50%. The offspring are Ww, Ww, ww, and ww.
Genotype:
The final combination of the alleles of the genes chosen for a given study is referred to as a genotype.
The likelihood of heterozygous offspring is 0.5 or 50% if a heterozygous male with the genotype Ww mates with a homozygous dominant female with the genotype WW. If a heterozygous male with the genotype Ww is mated with a homozygous recessive female with the genotype ww, then the probability of heterozygous offspring is 0.5 or 50%. The offspring are Ww, Ww, ww, and ww. There are four children: WW, WW, Ww, and Ww.
As a result, the preceding description is accurate.
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During the energy investment phase of glycolysis, glucose undergoes chemical reactions to become.
A total of 2 ATP is produced during the glycolysis process, which converts glucose into pyruvate and energy (Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 Pi —> 2 Pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 ATP + 2 H2O).
Nearly all sorts of organisms have evolved a metabolic process and anaerobic energy source called glycolysis. The Embden-Meyerhof pathway is another name for the process, given in honour of the key figures in its discovery and comprehension. [1] It serves a purpose in anaerobic respiration because it doesn't need oxygen, but it is also the initial stage in cellular respiration. Molecules of glucose, the most important organic fuel for plants, microorganisms, and animals, are oxidised during the process. a majority of cells favour glucose (although there are exceptions, such as acetic acid bacteria that prefer ethanol). Per glucose molecule, glycolysis uses up 2 ATP molecules and generates 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvates.
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according to the theory, your genetic potential is a fixed quantity, but whether you reach your full intellectual potential is dependent upon the environmental stimulation you experience.
According to any of the range for the reaction, your genetic potential is a fixed quantity but whether want to you reach and full intellectual potential is always dependent upon the present environmental stimulation and our experience especially in our childhood.
Range of Reaction is the concept that anybody responds to the surroundings in a completely unique manner primarily based totally on his or her genetic makeup. According to this idea, your genetic ability is a set quantity, however whether or not you attain your complete highbrow ability depends upon the environmental stimulation you revel in, specifically in childhood.
Think approximately this scenario: A couple adopts a baby who has common genetic highbrow ability. They increase her in an incredibly stimulating surroundings. What will occur to the couple’s new daughter? It is in all likelihood that the stimulating surroundings will enhance her highbrow effects over the route of her life. But what takes place if this test is reversed? If a baby with an incredibly robust genetic history is positioned in an surroundings that doesn't stimulate him: What takes place? Interestingly, in line with a longitudinal take a look at of tremendously talented individuals.
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Correct Question:
According to the range of reaction, your genetic potential is a ___ but whether you reach your full intellectual potential is dependent upon the environmental stimulation you experience especially in childhood.
How are skin cells damaged by exposure to ultra-violet radiation?
A. Too many new cells are produced.
B. The skin cells produced split too easily.
C. Skin cell DNA is broken up and the DNA molecules do not repair properly.
D. RNA is not reproduced and the skin cells are incomplete.
PLSS i have a 84 in this class :P
The manner in which skin cells are damaged by exposure to ultra-violet radiation is as follows: skin cell DNA is broken up and the DNA molecules do not repair properly (option C).
What is Ultraviolet radiation?Ultraviolet radiation is a form of non-ionizing radiation emitted by the sun and other artificial sources.
Ideally, ultraviolet is a form of electromagnetic radiation with wavelength from 10 nm to 400 nm, shorter than that of visible light, but longer than X-rays.
Exposure to UV rays can cause premature aging of the skin and signs of sun damage such as wrinkles, leathery skin, liver spots, actinic keratosis, and solar elastosis.
Therefore, UV radiation causes the DNA in the cells of skin to break down beyond repair.
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Calculate the number of oxygen atoms in a sample of scheelite. Be sure your answer has a unit symbol if necessary, and round it to significant digits
167.77 x 10²¹ molecules of scheelite contains 4 x 167.77 x 10²¹ atoms of oxygen .
Scheelite is a calcium tungstate mineral with the chemical formula CaWO4. It is an important ore of tungsten .They have developed commercial value in the 20th century when tungsten is widely used in alloy steels and electric light filaments.
Scheelite consists of a broad range of colors, from bright orange, golden yellow, yellow-brown, brownish green to dark brown, pinkish to reddish gray, white or can be even colorless. Transparent varieties are notably difficult to prepare as gemstones because of their fragility.
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cell bio what makes it possible for a combination of signal molecules to evoke a response that differs from the sum of the effects that each signal could trigger on its own
It is done by the ability of different intracellular relay systems to interact. The correct option is D.
What is intracellular relay systems?Transcription factors that regulate gene expression are frequently targets of such signaling pathways.
Thus, intracellular signaling pathways link the cell surface to the nucleus, resulting in changes in gene expression in response to extracellular stimuli.
Cells communicate with one another through direct contact or by the release of a substance from one cell that is taken up by another.
Because different intracellular relay systems can interact, a combination of signal molecules can elicit a response that differs from the sum of the effects that each signal could elicit on its own.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
A)The tendency of different cells to display different receptors
B)The ability of different receptors to activate different intracellular relay systems
C)The ability of different signal molecules to bind to the same receptors
D)The ability of different intracellular relay systems to interact.
E)The ability of the same signal molecule to bind to different receptors
what does the follicular epithelium of the thyroid do? how could you distinguish these cells from other cells of the thyroid? 0 word(s)
The follicular cells soak up the iodinated thyroglobulins from the colloid gift in the lumen of the thyroid follicle. This system is beneathneath the have an effect on of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Afterward, lysosomal digestion and intracellular proteolysis launch the thyroid hormone withinside the shape of T3 and T4.Thyroid epithelial cells (additionally called follicular cells or thyrocytes) are the most important mobileular kind withinside the thyroid gland and are accountable for the manufacturing and secretion of the thyroid hormones triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4).Thyroid follicular cells shape a easy cuboidal epithelium and are organized in round thyroid follicles surrounding a fluid stuffed area called the colloid.
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among the typical midlife changes for men are a(n) . a. loss of body fat b. increase in testosterone production c. increase in prostate size d. increase in bone density e. increase in urinary flow
Among the typical midlife changes for men is an Increase in prostate size.
A portion of the fluid that carries sperm during ejaculation is produced by the prostate, a gland. The urethra, which is the tube through which urine leaves the body, is surrounded by the prostate gland.
As you get older, your chances of having an enlarged prostate go up. Because BPH is so common, it has been said that if a man lives long enough, he will all have an enlarged prostate. Many men over 40 have a small amount of prostate enlargement. The condition affects more than 90% of men over the age of 80.
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Which postulate of natural selection is deliberately enforced by dog breeders using artificial selection?.
Dog breeders actively assert that reproduction and survival are not influenced by chance by using artificial selection.
Advantage in reproduction biological selection?The mechanism of evolution known as reproductive advantage modifies the population's heritable features. Natural selection, according to the theory of evolution, is the process through which a species' phenotype—its outwardly manifested genetic traits—can change over time.
Why is reproductive success critical to the process of natural selection?Long life is not favored by natural selection unless it allows for or resulting in increased reproductive success. Similar to this, even though we might wish it were the case, there isn't necessarily a premium placed on intelligence, physical prowess, or beauty unless these qualities actually result into more offspring than normal.
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a typical operon contains several regions. in which region does a regulator protein bind? group of answer choices
A typical operon contains several regions but in the operator, the region a regulator protein bind. Thus the correct answer is option (A).
An operon is a collection of genes with similar functions that are managed by a single shared operator. Operons are made up of several genes arranged in a group with a promoter and an operator. Operons are not found in eukaryotes but are found in prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea). When more than one operon is regulated by the same regulatory protein, the operons collectively make up a regulon. Operons were initially recognized by François Jacob and Jacques Monod in 1961 as a way of controlling gene expression.
Operons are areas of DNA that have collections of related gene clusters. Between the promoter and the genes or inside the promoter is where the operator can be found. For transcription RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region. The operator's position is crucial because it affects whether or not genes can be transcribed into mRNA.
The complete question is:
A typical operon contains several regions. in which region does a regulator protein bind? group of answer choices
(A) Operator
(B) Structural genes
(C) Promoter
(D) Splice site
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which methods are typically used to collect saliva or mucus samples from the oral and nasal cavities?
Mucous is created by the sinuses and then goes into the nasal cavity where it is pushed back to the back of the nose and subsequently swallowed. The nasal cavity is the interior of the nose.
The purpose of the mucus is to trap pollutants in the air and to preserve the moisture and health of the skin inside the nose. Mucus in the nasal cavity does not operate to remove oxygen from inhaled air,genomic techniques,Method of DNA-DNA hybridization.,16S and 23S rDNA sequencing; amplified ribosomal DNA restriction analysis.Numerous cellular as well as viral pathogens are frequently identified using both immunologic and biochemical methods. Quick approaches for growing infectious pathogens include immunological testing.To enable for the growth of only the suspected pathogen, nonsterile items like faeces should be grown onto BLANK media.
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what makes the visible light microspectrophotometer a useful tool with which to analyze fibers the pyrolysis products generated are used to chemically identify polymer type.
A microspectrophotometer that combines a microscope and a spectrophotometer is an effective tool for analyzing the pyrolysis-derived fibres.
In the forensic examination of numerous types of trace evidence, the visible microspectrophotometer is a very helpful tool. In order to record the light absorption characteristics of a very small sample, it combines a microscope with a spectrophotometer. microspectrophotometer is a very helpful tool.
Without reacting with oxygen or any other oxidants, pyrolysis is the heat breakdown of a solid (or a liquid) into smaller volatile molecules. The majority of solid fuels require pyrolysis in order to burn. As temperature rises, pyrolysis proceeds more quickly. The substance that is subjected to pyrolysis undergoes a chemical transformation.
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What catalyzes DNA synthesis?
DNA polymerase
Answer:
catalysts
Explanation:
i wouldnt explain
Lactoferrin and transferrin are used by the body to bind iron, keeping it from microbes that might otherwise colonize. Pathogenic microbes get around this limitation by doing which of the following?
Producing their own iron binding molecules known as siderophores
Stripping the iron bound to lactoferrin/transferrin molecules
Pathogenic microbes get around this limitation by producing their own iron binding molecules known as siderophores Stripping the iron bound to lactoferrin/transferrin molecules.
Lactoferrin (LF), also known as lactotransferrin (LTF), is a transferrin family protein with multiple functions. Lactoferrin is a globular glycoprotein with an approximate molecular mass of 80 kDa that is found in a variety of secretory fluids including milk, saliva, tears, and nasal secretions. Lactoferrin increases iron uptake by intestinal cells by entering the cell via its own receptor. Iron is then set to release from lactoferrin within the intestinal cell and translocated to the bloodstream via transferrin.
A pathogenic organism is one that is responsible for the disease in its host (person). The World Health Organization (WHO) identified harmful organisms, viruses, toxins, parasites, and chemicals as potential hazards in food. Pathogens are classified into bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. They can be found in almost every environment on the planet, and the bacteria carried by the average human, primarily in the gut, outnumber human cells.
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a virus mutates, and therefore it has which of the following traits of living things?(1 point) responses it uses energy. it uses energy. it is made of cells. it is made of cells. it evolves. it evolves. it grows and develops.
A virus that mutates represents the characteristic of living things that is evolution. Unicellular organisms have a cell membrane made of a lipid bilayer, whereas viruses have a protein coat. This is the main distinction between viruses and unicellular organisms.
When a virus replicates, its genes make sporadic "copying errors" (i.e. genetic mutations). These genetic copying errors may also alter the virus' surface proteins or antigens in addition to other alterations that have occurred to the virus throughout time. A process called mutation can result in a virus's genetic makeup (DNA or RNA) changing irreversibly. A mutation could happen if the virus's DNA or RNA is copied incorrectly. Though this is not always the case, some viruses exhibit incredibly high rates of mutation. RNA viruses often have high mutation rates, but DNA viruses frequently have modest mutation rates. Our immune system uses these antigens to recognize and fight viruses.
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Neurexins are cell adhesion proteins that are important for connecting neurons at the synapse. Mammals have 3 neurexin genes. However, 2000 forms of neurexin proteins are found in cells where they play a role in determining synapse specificity. What mechanism most likely underlies this diversity?.
The mechanism that most likely underlies the diversity observed where 3 neurexin genes are used to make about 2000 forms of neurexin proteins found in cells is gene splicing.
What are genes?Genes are specific regions of DNA in a living organism that codes for a particular protein or gene product.
The products of a gene are synthesized from the gene through the process of transcription and translation.
In the process of transcription, the nucleotide sequence of the gene is used to synthesize mRNA.
The mRNA synthesized from the gene is then used by the ribosomes to make proteins in the process called translation.
Multiple gene products or proteins can be synthesized from a single as a result of a process known as gene splicing.
Gene splicing is a post-transcriptional modification that occurs in the mRNA molecule that has been produced from the such that different regions of the
are added or removed to produce new mRNA molecules that are then used to make proteins.
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over time with several attempts of passaging, the donor strain used in this laboratory exercise fails to successfully induce mutagenesis in the recipient strain and eventually becomes diffcult to culture. based on your understanding of how the prl27 plasmid behaves in the donor strain, why do these things eventually occur?
Option (b) The donar will always possesses defective mismatch kind of repair mechanism, which allowing mutations to gradually try to accumulate.
Mutational inactivation of each copies of a DNA mismatch restore gene effects in a profound restore illness and revolutionary accumulation of mutations all through the genome. The DNA mismatch restore device is a bidirectional excision-resynthesis device this is initiated at a described strand scission this is 3′- or 5′- of a mismatch and this excision will tract extends to any nonspecific factor simply beyond the mismatch.
(MIS-healthy reh-PAYR deh-FIH-shun-see) Describes cells which have mutations (changes) in sure genes which can be worried in correcting errors made while DNA is copied in a cell. Mismatch restore (MMR) poor cells normally have many DNA mutations, which may also cause cancer.
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Correct Question:
Over time with several attempts of passaging, the Donor strain used in this laboratory exercise fails to successfully induce mutagensis in the Recicpient strain and eventually becomes difficult to culture. Based on your understanding of how the PRL27 plasmid behaves in the Donor strain, why do these things eventually occur?
a). The transpson is active in the donor, and mutations gradually accumulate due to continued activity.
b). The donor possesses defective mismatch repair mechanisms, allowing mutations to gradually accumulate.
c). The plasmid eventually integrates into the donor chromosome.
d). Pl protein slowly accumulates through time, resulting in overproduction of the plasmid.
What is the process where bone is continually broken
down and continually made?
A remodeling
B reduction
C fracturing
D ossification
Which of the following terms should not be used to describe a human with three copies of chromosome 12?
A. Polyploid
B. Triploid
C. Aneuploid
D. Euploid
E. 2n 1
F. Trisomy 12
Polyploid, Triploid and Euploid terms should not be used to describe chromosome 12
What are chromosomes?
The thread-like chromosomes that convey the genetic information from cell to cell are formed of protein and a single DNA molecule. Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of cells in both plants and animals, including humans. There are 46 chromosomes in all, including 22 pairs of numbered chromosomes (autosomes) and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY). Children receive half of their chromosomes from their mother and half from their father since each pair comprises two chromosomes, one from each parent. The dissolution of the nucleus during cell division allows for the visualization of chromosomes under a microscope.Living things have different numbers and shapes of chromosomes. One or two circular chromosomes may be found in most bacteria. All animals and plants, including humans, have linear chromosomes. Actually, there are a certain number of chromosomes for each species of plants and animals. For instance, a fruit fly has four pairs of chromosomes whereas a dog has 39 and a rice plant has 12. The first 22 pairs of chromosomes in humans are known as autosomes, whereas the twenty-third pair is known as the sex chromosomes. Typically, people with two X chromosomes (XX) are biologically female, whereas people with one X and one Y chromosome are naturally male (XY). There are, however, several exception to these laws.Chromosomes 12:
Each human cell typically has 23 pairs of the 46 chromosomes that make up the human genome. One of the pairings is made up of two copies of chromosome 12, one from each parent. Between 4% and 4.5 percent of all DNA in cells are found on chromosome 12, which covers almost 134 million DNA base pairs.Hence, Polyploid, Triploid and Euploid terms should not be used to describe chromosome 12
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a biopsy is a procedure in which a sample of cells is taken from the body and analyzed. if you were performing the analysis, what features would indicate to you that the patient has cancer? select all that apply.
The correct options are:
d). Cells undergo more mitosis than usual.
e). Cells divide even when there are no growth factor signals.
A biopsy can be done to look for abnormalities due to more mitosis than usual, which can be structural or functional, such as kidney or liver issues or swelling in a specific organ. A specific ailment can be diagnosed if aberrant cells are seen when the tissue sample is inspected under a microscope.
A biopsy can also be performed to evaluate the grade and severity of an illness that has already been diagnosed, such as the level of inflammation (such as the aggressiveness of cancer).
The complete question is:
A biopsy is a procedure in which a sample of cells is taken from the body and analyzed. If you were performing the analysis, what features would indicate to you that the patient has cancer? Select all that apply.
a. Cells are sending out signals for new blood vessels to grow.
b. Cells have contact inhibition.
c. Cells lack telomerase activity.
d. Cells undergo more mitosis than usual.
e. Cells divide even when there are no growth factor signals.
f. cells express high levels of tumor suppressor genes.
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