Regular bone density testing, a high-calcium diet, the use of fall prevention precautions, and weight-bearing exercise are what the client needs to do.
What is muscle wasting?
The shrinking and withering of muscle tissue is referred to as muscular atrophy. When a muscle's nerve supply is cut off, it might deteriorate and eventually die. As people get older, they may lose 20 to 40% of their muscle, and with it, their strength.
Corticosteroids have the potential to reduce bone density and increase the risk of fractures.
Hence, the answer is, Health promotion measures after an older adult's hip fracture are regular bone density testing, a high-calcium diet, the use of fall prevention precautions, and weight-bearing exercise are what the client needs to do.
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energy needs for for adolescents range from less than kcals/day for an inactive girl who has not entered her growth spurt to more than kcals/day for an active boy in his growth spurt.
Energy needs for adolescents range from 2200 - 2500 kcal/day for girls who are not active and have not yet entered a growth spurt. Boys who are active in accelerated growth, need 2500 - 3000 kcal/day.
What are calories?Calories are the amount of energy you get from food and drink. It is also the amount of energy that the body burns through daily activities. That is, calories are energy that the body needs to be able to move and carry out its functions properly.
There are several nutritional components that are very important to fulfill during adolescence, starting from protein, carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals, to fiber. In addition to providing energy, calories, and nutrients, the nutritional needs of school-age children and adolescents are also needed for the formation of muscles, bones, and brain development.
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in an effort to decrease complications for the infant right after birth, the nurse would expect to administer which medication for prophylaxis of potential eye conditions?
Tetracycline ophthalmic ointment would be the drug the nurse would expect to deliver as a prophylactic for any potential eye conditions.
What would the nurse do to aid in the early bonding of new parents?By fostering interaction between the mother and the newborn, nurses can encourage a healthy bonding and attachment experience, which will help to develop a good emotional state. One of the finest strategies to encourage mother-newborn bonding is to breastfeed for the first hour after delivery.
Following vitamin K administration to a baby, which side effect would the nurse watch for?The most typical side effects are a skin rash or urticaria, along with discomfort and erythema at the injection site. Additional possible side effects include hypersensitivity reactions and hyperbilirubinemia, which is more likely to happen in premature infants.
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the nurse is planning the comprehensive head-to-toe assessment of a client. what assessment should the nurse usually conduct last?
The nurse should typically undertake the examination of the genitalia and rectum last.
What does a thorough evaluation of a patient entail?
An instrument used by nurses to examine a patient's overall health status is a comprehensive health assessment. This encompasses the patient's socioeconomic status, lifestyle, and physical and mental health. Making an assessment is the first step in creating a care plan.
By performing a thorough examination, this evaluation aids in your understanding of the needs and issues of a patient. Typically, that entails a complete medical history and a full physical examination of all main body systems (this is where it gets its name).
Although the nurse should alert the doctor, she must first check the patient's vital signs.
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fluid transfers from the glomerulus to bowman's capsule and .a) is a result of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulusb) results from active transportc) transfers large molecules as easily as small onesd) results from passive transport
The correct option (D)is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus.
A fluid transfer system is the complete collection of components required to move a fluid — often oil or gasoline — from one location to another. These systems are widely employed in the manufacturing, shipping, automotive, and aerospace sectors, and their capabilities vary substantially depending on the application.
What is heat transfer fluid called?
Inhibited Antifreeze, Geothermal Fluid, Geothermal Antifreeze, Thermal Transfer Fluid, Glycol, and Brine are all components of geothermal heat pump systems. Inhibited Antifreeze, Heat Pump Fluid, Air Source Heat Pump Antifreeze, Thermal Transfer Fluid, Glycol, and Brine are all used in air source heat pump systems.
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Full Question :37) The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule
A) results from active transport.
B) transfers large molecules as easily as small ones.
C) is very selective as to which subprotein-sized molecules are transferred.
D) is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus.
E) usually includes the transfer of red blood cells into Bowman's capsule
the nurse is caring for new parents. during her education session, the nurse instructs the parents on a newborn's sleep patterns. which statement is accurate about a newborn's sleep patterns?
The nurse is telling to a first-time parent that newborns sleep for about 8 to 9 hours during the day and for about 8 hours at night.
What is a typical sleeping schedule?
A sleep cycle lasts on average 90 minutes. To feel refreshed and relaxed, you should have four to six cycles of sleep per 24 hours. There are four distinct stages in each cycle, three of which make up NREM sleep and one of which is REM sleep.
What sleep state is the most difficult to awaken from?
Non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) sleep is made up of these four stages, with stage IV's slow waves being its standout characteristic. Slow-wave sleep is said to be the most challenging type of sleep to awaken people from because it is the
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a patient is diagnosed with mild acute pancreatitis. what does the nurse understand is characteristic of this disorder?
The characteristic of mild acute pancreatitis in patient is edema and inflammation.
What is mild acute pancreatitis and what are its characteristic?Acute pancreatitis is a disorder when the pancreatic suddenly swells due to inflammation. Some of the characteristics of this disorder are:
Acute pancreatitis can sometimes manifest without stomach pain but with signs of disorientation, unconsciousness, or respiratory failure.Edema and inflammation that are limited to the pancreas are characteristics of mild acute pancreatitis.Return to normal organ function typically takes place within 6 months if there is just minor organ failure.Upper abdominal discomfort radiating back ache from the abdomen sensitivity to touch in the abdominal region.Know more about pancreatitis at:
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the nurse is evaluating the urinalysis results of a client presenting with polyuria and lower abdominal pain due to a suspected urinary tract infection (uti). which finding should the nurse report as evidence of a uti?
Finding should the nurse report as evidence of UTI is positive urine culture.
Urinary Tract InfectionUrinary tract infection is a condition in which viral, bacterial or fungal infections occur in the urinary tract, both the upper and lower urinary tract.
Symptoms of upper and lower urinary tract infections are different. Where an upper UTI besides local symptoms (symptoms only at the site of infection) there will be symptoms that include systemic symptoms (symptoms all over the body). Meanwhile, the symptoms of a lower UTI are usually only local.
Upper UTI:
Local
Back/Pelvic/Groin pain Urgency DysuriaSystemic
FeverChillMalaiseLower UTI :
Urgency DysuriaSuprapubic/ lower abdominal painIf there is a suspect of UTI, then a simple investigation that can be done is urinalysis. Urine will be checked using a dipstick and the color of the dipstick will be matched to the standard after being dipped in the urine. In addition to the dipstick, microscopic examination can also be carried out. Outcomes leading to a UTI are:
Dipstick:
Proteins (+)Nitrite (+)Leukocyte esterase (+)Microscopy:
WBCs > 5 per high power fieldBacteria (+)However, the gold standard for infection is culture, whereas the urine sample for a UTI is.
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the client asks the nurse about types of exercise that do not stress the joints. what exercise will the nurse include in the teaching plan?
The best workout for low actual or attempted is t'ai chi because it has a low impact. Exercises with such a high impact and high level of jarring include marathon, powerlifting, and treadmill running.
What does the exercise approach entail?
Exercise entails moving the body and raising your pulse rate above resting levels. It is essential to keep both psychological and physical wellness.
Which three basic types of exercise are there?
The three basic forms of exercise are aerobic, muscle-building, and bone-building. Associated with higher levels flexibility and balance are also advantageous. Your lungs and heart will benefit most from aerobic exercise.
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which strategy would the nurse recommend that is most effective for a client who has decided to stay sober after completing alcohol detoxification and rehabilitation treatment?
Alcoholism is the inability to regulate one's drinking, which can be brought on by both emotional and physical dependence. The person has a strong desire to drink alcohol.
What steps comprise the rehabilitation process?
A rehabilitation method helps the impaired individual function better and have a better surroundings. An illustration of such an upgrade is the addition of a ramp, elevator, or handrail to a disabled person's surroundings. Physical, occupational, and pain management therapy are additional components of the rehabilitation process.
What three sorts of rehabilitation are there?
Occupational, physical, and speech therapy are the three basic categories of rehabilitation. While each type of rehabilitation has a specific function in assisting a patient in achieving full recovery, they all ultimately aim to:.
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a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) is admitted to a surgical unit after an orthopedic procedure. the nurse realizes that hiv is transmissible through | which means? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse is aware that positive Western blot and protease immunosorbent assay (ELISA) tests can result in the transmission of HIV.
What causes immunodeficiency virus?A virus is the cause of HIV. Sexual contact, sharing needles for illegal drugs or injections, coming into with infected blood, and transfer from mother to baby during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding are all ways HIV might spread. White blood cells called CD4 T cells, which are crucial to your body's ability to fight infection, are destroyed by HIV.
What immunodeficiency is most prevalent?Low serum levels of immunoglobulins or antibodies, which enhance vulnerability to infection, characterize one of the most often identified primary immunodeficiencies, referred to as common variable autoimmune condition (CVID).
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3. a 24-year-old woman who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing aids. the nurse informs the patient that the best way to reduce the risk of hiv infection from drug use is to
The patient's nurse explains that the greatest way to reduce your chances of getting HIV from drug use is to stop injecting drugs.
What are 7 types of drugs?The seven categories of drugs that DREs classify include cannabis, inhalants, magic mushrooms, dissociative anaesthesia, synthetic opioids, central nervous (CNS) opiate, and CNS stimulants.
What is drugs and its types?Drugs like stimulant, depressants, antidepressant, ativan, antipsychotics, and hallucinogens are separated into separate categories. All around world, several psychoactive medications have been proven to be effective in treating a variety of medical ailments, including psychological illnesses.
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a nurse on the cardiovascular operating team has been asked to develop a policy for the use of a new drug-eluting stent. which aspects of the policy should the nurse consider to ensure quality?
Answer:
Availability of device and Ability to meet the needs of all patients
Explanation:
the nurse develops a teaching plan for a 77-year-old client who has been prescribed loperamide prn. the nurses priority teaching point is what?
After getting a prescription from a doctor, it is the nurse's obligation to deliver loperamide PRN drugs based on the patient's health.
What antidiarrheal medication will the nurse provide to a child who is older than 2 years old and has diarrhea?Use in medicine: The treatment of different types of diarrhea, such as traveler's diarrhea, irritable bowel syndrome linked to chronic diarrhea, and acute nonspecific diarrhea in patients two years of age and older, as well as for reducing ileostomy output, was approved by the FDA.
What antidiarrheal medication would the nurse give the patient to lessen the amount of discharge coming from their ileostomy?Patients with ileostomies can also useloperamide to lessen the amount of drainage. Loperamide capsules are only available with a prescription from your doctor.
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TRUE/FALSE. psychologists define personality as the reasonably stable patterns of emotions, motives, and behavior that distinguishes one person from another.
Psychologists define personality as the reasonably stable patterns of emotions, motives, and behavior that distinguishes one person from another. It is True.
What is Personality?Our personalities are shaped through the social interactions we have in social contexts. Every person in society has distinctive qualities including their skin tone, eye color, height, and weight. People have a variety of personalities since they are not all the same.Everybody has a personality, which can be positive or negative, strong or weak. It speaks to a person's behaviors, attitudes, and physical traits that vary depending on their community and civilisation. It develops as a result of socialization within the culture of a particular group or society.It differs from time to time and from culture to culture, making it tough to pin down exactly what it is that makes a person tick.To learn more about Personality refer to:
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a good example of a structural improvement to increase physical congruence in an older adult's home would be to
The competence-environment press model is a structural upgrade that would increase physical congruence in a home for older adults.
What exactly is person-environment compatibility?The Person Environment (P-E) Congruence model is a method for comprehending how the environment affects elderly people's adjustment and well-being. It may also be used to construct intervention programs at the person, group, and/or institutional levels.
What three kinds of person-environment congruence are there?Social congruence, often known as blending in with others, is the first subtype. Psychological congruence, or how you feel about a place and who you are there, is the second category. Being physically able to move about or perform work in a specific location comes in third.
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a patient has chronic arthritis. whoch questions would the nurse ask in order to assess the patient's pain?
A patient has chronic arthritis, then the questions that the nurse would ask in order to assess the patient's pain is : "What is the exact location of pain?"
What is chronic arthritis?A chronic inflammatory disorder affects many joints and including those in the hands and feet.
In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks its own tissue, including the joints.
Rheumatoid arthritis has many physical and social consequences and can also to lower quality of life. It causes pain, disability, and premature death and premature heart disease. People are also at a higher risk for developing other chronic diseases like heart disease and diabetes.
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a nurse is maintaining a client's continuous bladder irrigation. when appraising the effectiveness of this therapy, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?
Make an evaluation of your abdomen. If there is stomach soreness or bladder distention, the nurse may be able to tell by palpating the bladder.
What does nursing continuous bladder irrigation entail?Using sterile fluids to flush the bladder is a medical treatment known as continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). After surgery on the urinary system, it is used by medical professionals to prevent or dissolve blood clots. A tiny tube that delivers sterile solution then removes the bladder's contents and collects them in a bag.
Which conditions call for catheter irrigation?In general, doctors would advise bladder irrigation if blood is present in the urine and this causes it to seem black or if there are indications of a catheter obstruction. Reduced urine production is one indication when a catheter is clogged.
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a client arrives at the orthopedic clinic and reports suspecting a stress fracture of the right foot. the physician orders an x-ray with negative results. what does the nurse understand that these negative results can mean?
It can take a few weeks before the stress fracture is seen on an x-ray.
Customers are not clients.Since there are two different types of customers, a person who utilizes a company's goods or services is referred to as a user as opposed to a client. Customers buy solutions and advice instead of the typical things that consumers buy.
Would you mind giving an example of a particular kind of customer?A customer is somebody who makes a purchase of products or services. Customers might be companies or other institutions. Customers typically have a relationship or agreement with the seller, whereas clients do not.
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a client at 30-weeks gestation, complaining of pressure over the pubic area, is admitted for observation. she is contracting irregularly and demonstrates underlying uterine irritability. vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is closed, thick, and high. based on these data, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
First, the nurse asks the client to Obtain a specimen for urine analysis,to check Pregnancy.
What is Cervex?The bottom portion of the uterus (womb) of the human female reproductive system is called the cervix or cervix uteri (Latin for "neck of the uterus"). The cervix typically measures 2 to 3 cm (1 inch) in length and has a generally cylindrical form, however this can fluctuate throughout pregnancy. Along its entire length, the uterine cavity and vaginal lumen are connected by the small, central cervical canal. The external os is the opening into the vagina, and the internal os is the opening into the uterus. he vaginal portion of the cervix, also called the ectocervix, protrudes into the top of the vagina. Since Hippocrates, more than 2,000 years ago, the anatomy of the cervix has been recorded.To learn more about Cervex refer to:
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the nurse cares for a client with a chronic neurologic condition that decreases the peristalsis. what concern will the nurse use to plan care for this client's most likely risk?
A client with a persistent neurologic disease that reduces peristalsis receives therapy for constipation.
What triggers the stomach's peristalsis?
Through the myenteric plexus, the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) stimulates peristalsis. The myenteric plexus' afferent (sensory) nerves transmit data to interneurons inside the plexus. Interneurons interact with efferent nerves to cause smooth muscle cells to produce an action potential (spike-wave).
How is peristalsis controlled, and what is it?
Peristalsis is a specific, wave-like type of muscle contraction that is used to move solids or liquids inside the digestive and urinary systems' tube-like structures. Peristalsis cannot be consciously controlled because it is not a voluntary muscular activity
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the nurse is administering ear drops to a 2-year-old child. to follow the correct administration procedure, the nurse should perform which action?
For children under the age of 3, hold ear lobe and gently pull down and back. Place the correct number of drops into the ear canal so they will roll into the ear along the side of the ear canal.
Human ear is an organ of hearing and equilibrium that detects and analyzes sound by transduction (or the conversion of sound waves into electrochemical impulses) and maintains the sense of balance (equilibrium).
Chronic ear infections may lead to cholesteatoma or middle ear and mastoid infections, often requiring microsurgical management. Cochlear implants are FDA-approved, surgically implanted devices that provide access to speech stimuli and environmental sounds for individuals with severe hearing loss.
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the nurse is performing an initial admission assessment from a client. what subjective data gathered from the client will the nurse document? select all that apply.
Vital signs, the results of a physical examination, and laboratory findings are examples of subjective data.
What nursing intervention occurs first throughout the admissions process?The assessment phase is the first step in the nursing process. At this point, the nurse compiles and arranges patient-related information. Information that is pertinent to a patient's health and wellbeing may include details about the patient, his or her family, carers, or the patient's community or environment.
What was the patient's initial evaluation?3 Initial Evaluation for Within an hour of admission, an assessment of the patient is to be made by the RMO, the treating physician, or a member of their team (as appropriate) to evaluate the patient's immediate care needs and to choose a plan of treatment.
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which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? question 6 options: a) oral b) rectal c) inhalation d) sublingual
The slowest method of absorption for medications is by oral consumption. Since there aren't many blood arteries in subcutaneous tissue, the drugs that are injected are absorbed slowly and steadily.
The most typical method of medicine administration is oral (by mouth). Your oral medications may be eaten, chewed, or put absorption under your tongue to dissolve, depending on what your doctor ordered. The components absorption of oral medications typically oral medication enter the bloodstream only after they have reached the stomach or bowel. The most practical, economical, and popular method of pharmaceutical delivery is oral medications .
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a child has chickenpox. the parent asks how to care for the lesions. what should the nurse tell the parent?
When lesions crust over, the nurse should notify the parents that the child is no longer contagious.
What are the responsibilities of a nurse?Here are some examples of what nurses do on a regular day:
Perform physical examinations. Take comprehensive medical histories. Listen to patients and assess their physical and emotional requirements. Patients should receive counseling and health education. Care should be coordinated with other health care professionals and specialists. Registered nurses (RNs) offer and organize patient care, educate patients and the general public about various health concerns, and counsel patients and their families. Nurses treat injuries, dispense prescriptions, do routine medical exams, record complete medical histories, monitor heart rate, and so on.
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the nurse is planning interventions for a client who is having an acute gout attack. what is the priority nursing intervention for this client?
To ensure that their patients receive the best care possible, nurses adhere to a set of interventions. Some significant nursing interventions are explained in this piece.
What are some nursing priorities?Examples of nursing diagnoses falling within this first group include Deficient fluid volume and Ineffective airway clearance. Patient security and safety make up the second level. Risk for harm and Risk for suffocation are two examples of safety diagnoses that need to be given top priority.
What types of nursing interventions are examples?Nursing interventions can include things like discharge planning, education, emotional support, self-care and oral care, monitoring fluid intake and output, ambulation, meal preparation, and general condition monitoring.
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a client who is breastfeeding presents with a temperature of 102.4°f (39°c) and a pulse of 110 beats/min. the client reports general fatigue and achy joints, and the left breast is engorged, red, and tender. which instruction(s) will the nurse anticipate being given to this client? select all that apply.
The nurse must teach patients as follows:
If the baby is willing to latch on, carry on breastfeeding on the left side.Till all specified dosages have been taken, take the prescribed antibiotics.If the baby won't eat, pump the breast to keep the flow going.Mastitis refers to an infection of the breast that occurs when nursing. Mastitis can hinder lactation, and a newborn may occasionally refuse to nurse on the side that is affected. To begin antibiotic treatment, the women's doctor must be informed. If the infant would breastfeed from the injured side, mothers should be advised to keep nursing. Instruct the mother to pump her breasts to maintain flow (and prevent clogged ducts), if the infant still rejects, and then offer the affected breast 12 to 24 hours later. While a mother is receiving treatment for mastitis, it is safe for infants to continue breastfeeding; there is no need to offer alternative feeding options or wean due to maternal mastitis.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a moderate sedation procedure for closed reduction of a forearm fracture. the nurse includes what discharge instructions for this client?
Answer:
Contact the surgeon for clarification because this is not a complete order.
Explanation:
prednisone (deltasone) is prescribed for a patient with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. which laboratory result will the nurse monitor to determine whether the medication has been effective?
The nurse should monitor C-reactive protein level to determine whether the medication has been effective.
What is C-reactive protein ?A decline in the inflammatory marker C-reactive protein would indicate that the corticosteroid therapy was successful.
To look for prednisone side effects, blood glucose and serum electrolyte levels will also be checked. The liver function of people on corticosteroids is not frequently examined.
The amount of c-reactive protein (CRP) in a sample of your blood is measured by a c-reactive protein test. Your liver produces the protein known as CRP.
An elevated CRP test result indicates an acute inflammatory state. It could be brought on by a severe accident, prolonged illness, or infection.
When there is inflammation throughout the body, the level of CRP increases. It is one of a category of acute phase reactants of proteins that increase in response to inflammation.
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a 9-year-old boy has just been diagnosed with the nephritic syndrome. the first stage of his disease will result in:
kidney disorder that causes your body to pass too much protein in your urine.
What is the earliest sign of paediatric nephrotic syndrome?
In the morning, you can see puffiness around your child's eyes. That's frequently the first indication. You might notice swelling in your child's ankles, feet, or belly as the edoema progresses and lasts all day.
Nephritic syndrome frequently manifests as:
Urine with blood in it (urine appears dark, tea-colored, or cloudy)
reduced urine production (little or no urine may be produced)
swelling of the abdomen, hands, feet, legs, arms, cheeks, eye sockets, or other parts of the body.
elevated blood pressure
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a client being treated for a peptic ulcer seeks medical attention for vomiting blood. which statement indicates to the nurse the reason for the client developing hematemesis?
The symptoms of bleeding peptic ulcers might include abrupt, large upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage that is accompanied by hematemesis, melena, or rectal bleeding, as well as chronic, low-grade hemorrhage that is accompanied by guaiac-positive stool or iron deficiency anemia.
Which statement regarding the development of peptic ulcers is true?C. "Acid damages stomach mucosa that is not shielded, causing peptic ulcers. Because of this, pepsin is released, which prompts the parietal cells to release more pepsinogen and further erode the stomach lining.
What are the reasons for undergoing surgery for a bleeding peptic ulcer?One of the reasons for surgery in peptic ulcers that are bleeding is the failure of first endoscopic hemostasis procedures. Approximately 15-20% of patients will develop rebleeding from their ulcer despite the high success rates of initial endoscopic hemostasis.
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