Artificial rupture of membranes (AROM), often known as amniotomy or simply "breaking the water," is the deliberate rupture of the amniotic sac by an obstetrician.
This treatment is frequently carried out during labour management and has a variety of indications.
Risks associated with amniocentesis happen in about 1 in 900 procedures. They consist of: amniotic fluid leakage After amniocentesis, amniotic fluid occasionally escapes through the vagina. Most of the time, the fluid loss is minimal, stops after a week, and has no impact on pregnancy.
What is the purpose of an amnioscope?
The tool can be used to sample foetal blood or amniotic fluid as well as to see the foetus or amniotic fluid.
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which expected outcome about nutrition would be appropriate for a client who has had a total gastrectomy for gastric cancer? the client will:
The majority of dumping syndrome patients suffer signs and symptoms 10 to 30 minutes after eating, including abdominal cramping and diarrhea.
How long can someone live after having a gastectomy?
Overall five-year survival and disease-free survival rates for group A were 61% and 60%, compared to 50% and 43% for group B. Patients over the age of 70 should carefully consider having a gastrectomy if the procedure may be justified by a low mortality rate and favorable long-term results.
How does life change following a gastrectomy?
After undergoing a gastrectomy, you'll probably need to consume several small meals throughout the day rather than three large ones. Nevertheless, as time passes, your residual stomach and small intestine will expand, allowing you to progressively eat larger, less frequent meals.
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the nurse is caring for several clients in the home care setting. which client, when found deceased, will the nurse report as a case for the medical examiner?
The nurse would notify the medical examiner, the doctor, and other clinicians of the death, depending on where the event occurred.
What exactly is dysfunctional grief?Dysfunctional grieving is characterised by an inability to follow the typical path of normal grieving to resolution. The person becomes overwhelmed and turns to unhealthy coping mechanisms when the process deviates from the norm.
What nursing considerations arise during the stages of grief?Evaluate the specific loss, the significance of the loss, the coping mechanisms, and the availability of support. Accept the client; don't speak to them directly. Encourage resiliency and freedom of expression. Reassure the client that their defence mechanism, including their desire for solitude and denial, is normal.
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a nurse is caring for an infant who is to be administered an enema. what spiritually oriented interventions could the nurse follow with newborns and infants?
The ideal nursing intervention while providing care for infants and newborns is to urge the parents to be there when the child receives medical attention.
Enemas? Please explain.Enemas are fluid injections used to cleanse or speed up the emptying of the intestines.Constipation and other issues of a similar nature have long been addressed in this way. Your feces moves more slowly when you have a serious ailment called constipation. It also makes the stool firm and difficult to pass.
Why do babies get the name "infants"?The Latin word in-fans, which means "unable to speak," is the source of the English word "infant." Infantile development is not precisely defined. Infant also has the legal definition of "minor," which refers to any youngster who is not yet considered an adult in terms of the law.
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a 70-year-old woman is in the end stages of colorectal cancer and has tended to defer decision making to her oldest son, in accordance with the norms of her culture. the woman's health care provider has discussed the possibility of palliative radiotherapy with the patient and her family, and the patient has asked her son to make the decision whether to pursue or forego this treatment measure. how should the care team best respond?
Late-stage colorectal cancer patients sometimes put off choosing palliative radiation therapy. In order to respond, the care team must honor the patient's requests and solicit his son's input.
What are the definition and significance of decision-making?
Steps in the decision-making process include identifying decisions, gathering information, and considering potential solutions.
By putting pertinent facts in order and identifying options, a step-by-step decision-making process aids in the creation of more deliberate and meaningful conclusions.
The value of decision-making is found in how it aids in selecting one alternative over another. Before choosing a choice, it is crucial to acquire all the information available and consider the advantages and disadvantages. It's crucial to concentrate on the stages that guide you in making the best decisions.
What is wise choice-making?
Good decision-makers take activities that benefit both themselves and other people. Don't let your preconceptions cloud your judgment when making decisions; instead, approach the process with an open mind. After understanding the effects, weigh your options and make a sane choice.
Hence, Late-stage colorectal cancer patients sometimes put off choosing palliative radiation therapy.
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the nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child who has been having frequent diarrhea. what actions are appropriate? select all that apply.
When a 2-year-old is being cared for by the nurse, she regularly monitors the client's electrolyte levels.
What causes electrolyte abnormalities in toddlers?
Electrolyte imbalances can occur for a variety of causes. Dehydration, fever, other ailments like liver or renal disorders, some medicines, vomiting, and diarrhea are just a few of the many factors that can lead to an electrolyte imbalance.
What is two-year-old can consume electrolytes?moderate dehydration brought on by sickness in toddlers older than 2 years old You might also try giving your child some water or ice cubes. You should give your child electrolyte beverages like Pedialyte or Gatorade to replenish lost electrolytes and fluids.
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the nurse encourages a client with osteoporosis and intolerance to dairy products to consume calcium-containing foods. which source of calcium does the nurse encourage? fresh meats canned salmon with bones fortified cereal whole grain bread
A client with osteoporosis and intolerance to dairy products to consume calcium-containing foods should consume fortified cereal.
Osteoporosis causes bones to become weak and brittle — therefore brittle that a fall or perhaps delicate stresses like bending over or coughing will cause a fracture. Osteoporosis-related fractures most ordinarily occur within the hip, wrist joint or spine. Bone lives tissue that's perpetually being dampened and replaced.
When cereals are 'fortified', it means that they contain another vitamins and minerals to assist our brains work well, our bones grow, and to keep up the body's defences. Dry cereal and Bran Flakes, have heaps of calcium in one serving.
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the nurse is providing teaching to a client with acne who is using isotretinoin therapy. which statement should the nurse make?
Answer:
It is teratogenic in humans.
Explanation:
a group has asked the nurse to discuss how lifestyle factors affect heart health. which statements by members of the group would indicate that the teaching was effective? select all that apply.
Answer:
• "Gradually increasing my exercise levels will help enhance circulation through the heart."
• "As a borderline diabetic, if I lose weight and lessen my intake of simple carbohydrates, this should benefit my heart."
• "Walking is excellent exercise to strengthen my heart."
• "If I change my diet and lessen my intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, this may decrease my cholesterol levels."
Explanation:
you are in a shopping mall and a person is having a seizure. the seizure lasts only a few minutes, after which the victim is awake but disoriented. what care should you give to this victim after the seizure is over?
After the seizure victim is awake and disoriented, immediately check for any life-threatening conditions, make sure their airway is open, and call 911.
Seizures are sudden and uncontrolled electrical disturbances that happen in the brain. Its sign and symptoms generally include:
ConfusionA staring spellUncontrollable je.rking movements of the limbsConsciousness lossAnxietySeizures can be triggered by various things, such as flashing lights, lack of sleep, high fever, medication, stroke, and many more. When experiencing a seizure, the victim might be at risk of dangers, such as:
Falling (may end up injuring body parts).Drowning (if happen when swimming or bathing).Accidents (for example, car accidents when they happen during driving).When encountering someone that experiencing a seizure, don't try to move them. Don't give them anything to consume until they have fully recovered. Instead, support them gently and cushion their head to avoid injury. If it's happening in a long time or a life-threatening condition occurs, call 911.
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the nurse is admitting a 10-month-old infant who is being hospitalized for a respiratory infection. the nurse develops a plan of care for the infant and includes which most appropriate intervention?
The nurse develops a plan of care for the infant and includes : Providing a consistent routine with touching, rocking, and cuddling throughout hospitalization.
What are the plans of care for a patient with respiratory infection ?The next set of nurse assessments and actions for pneumonia work to maintain the patency of the airways, boost fluid intake, and instruct and support deep breathing and an efficient cough.
1. Evaluate the depth, rhythm, and rate of breathing as well as chest movement and auxiliary muscle use.
2. Evaluate the productivity and efficiency of coughing
3. Listen for crackles and wheezes as you auscultate the lung fields, looking for any locations where the airflow is diminished or nonexistent.
4. Pay attention to the sputum's color, viscosity, and smell. Provide updates.
Sputum changes could be a sign of an infection. Sputum that is discolored, persistent, or offensive may increase airway resistance and call for additional treatment.
5. Evaluate the patient's level of hydration.
Inadequate hydration and dehydration compromise airway clearance.
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the nurse is caring for an infant born to a mother with cocaine use disorder during her pregnancy. the nurse would likely notice that this infant:
The nurse would likely notice that this infant: cries when touched.
What happens to the baby whose mother is a cocaine consumer?Cocaine usage during pregnancy has been linked to the mother's headaches and seizures, early membrane rupture, and placental lining separation before delivery.
Cocaine usage exacerbates the natural cardiovascular changes that occur during pregnancy, which can occasionally result in major hypertensive crises, spontaneous miscarriage, premature labor, and challenging deliveries. To lessen these dangers, pregnant women who use cocaine must undergo the proper medical, psychiatric, and addiction treatment.
It is challenging to gauge the complete impact of maternal drug usage and to identify the precise risks that each medication poses to the developing fetus.
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which of the following statements about managing medical problems is false? group of answer choices most symptoms require treatment with otc drugs or professional assistance. an individual with a chronic condition such as diabetes should consult a physician before using an otc drug. professional medical advice is recommended for a symptom that is severe, unusual, persistent, or recurrent. self-evaluation of symptoms and self-treatment with nonprescription drugs is an important part of health care.
Self-evaluation of symptoms and self-treatment with non-prescription drugs is an important part of health care is the false statement about managing medical problems.
Self-medication could provide some short-term respite, but over time, it just makes your problems worse. Regular self-medication can result in addiction, a worsening of mood disorders, and an increase in health issues whether you use alcohol, illegal substances, prescription prescriptions, or over-the-counter foods and beverages (or even food or smokes).
What are two drawbacks to taking medications?
When you use a medication, there is a danger that something unpleasant or unexpected could happen to you. Risks might range from little inconveniences like an upset stomach to more serious issues like liver damage.
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during a blood transfusion, a client begins to have chills, back pain, and develops a fever. the nurse determines the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction. the nurse educates the client about transfusion reactions. which statement indicates the cause of the reaction?
If the immune system perceives the HLA types as foreign, a reaction occurs.
Each person has two HLA haplotypes that allow human cells to be identified. Blood typing entails identifying these haplotypes (ABO compatibility). The closer the HLA types match, the greater the likelihood of identical antigens and the lower the chance of rejection.
What are Antigens?
Any substance that causes your immune system to produce antibodies against it is referred to as an antigen. This indicates that your immune system does not recognise the substance and is attempting to combat it. An antigen can be a natural substance such as chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or pollen.
Your body contains three types of antigen-presenting cells: macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. One of their jobs is to act as a detective, showing other immune system cells suspects they believe are invading your body.
When an antigen enters the body, it activates the adaptive immune system, which includes specialised immune cells such as B and T lymphocytes (B cells and T cells).
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when evaluating a chest pain patient's 12-lead ecg, you note that lead avr is positively deflected. this is indicative of:
Positively deflected lead avr is indicative of atrial tachyarrhythmias while when evaluating a chest pain patient's 12-lead ECG.
What is ECG?
ECG stands for Echocardiography. Its is done for the patient having issues with heart related problems such as High BP, Cardiac arrest, etc.
Also it is the process or technique of creating a ecocardiodiagram.In it heart's electrical signals are recorded by placing electrodes on the body.What is atrial tachyarrhythmias ?Atrial tachyarrhythmias is condition where heartbeat rate increases to more than 100 beats per minute. It is also known as the type of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
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for which reasons are patients unlikely to introduce the topic of sex with health care providers? select all that apply. a. most patients have few, if any, questions or problems relating to this topic.
(b, e)Embarrassment to discuss a personal subject and fear of being judged can cause the patient to avoid introduction of the topic. Gender is not a consideration in this question, and it cannot be generalized that patients have few questions or problems on any topics. Health care professionals are generally considered to be knowledgeable in subject matters associated with health and illness.
Any individual who accepts medical treatments provided by medical experts is referred to as a patient. The patient typically need care from a doctor, nurse, optometrist, dentist, veterinarian, or other health care professional because they are ill or injured. Maintaining one's physical condition and practicing preventative measures can help lower the risk of contracting numerous diseases. The capacity of the body to adjust to physical and psychological changes to which it is exposed is referred to as health.
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the nurse is teaching a client about contact dermatitis. what type of contact dermatitis requires light exposure in addition to allergen contact?
The kind of contact dermatitis known as photoallergic contact dermatitis necessitates exposure to light in addition to allergen interaction.
What kind of contact dermatitis necessitates light exposure in addition to allergen contact?Sometimes people get photoallergic contact dermatitis. UV light may exacerbate allergic contact dermatitis, or patients may only experience an allergic reaction if a chemical is present on their skin and when their skin has had enough UV exposure (UV-A; 320-400 nm).
Which immunoglobulin subtype is most likely to be implicated in allergic reactions?Antibodies called immunoglobulin E (IgE) are created by the immune system. Your immune system produces antibodies called Immunoglobulin E when you have an allergy because it overreacts to an allergen.
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a nurse is administering vitamin k to an infant shortly after birth. the parents ask why their baby needs a shot. the nurse explains that vitamin k is
This aids in the prevention of a rare bleeding ailment known as haemorrhagic disease of the newborn. While you were pregnant, your midwife should have discussed the injection with you.
Why is vitamin K given intramuscularly after birth?At birth, babies have low quantities of vitamin K in their systems. Babies who do not obtain enough vitamin K are at risk of developing a rare bleeding disease. The most effective technique to prevent this is with a single vitamin K injection at birth.
Vitamin K is required for regular blood clotting. Babies are born with very low levels of vitamin K in their bodies, which can cause major bleeding issues. According to research, a single vitamin K injection at birth protects your kid from experiencing severe bleeding that can cause brain damage.
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Psychopathology includes illnesses or disorders that involve ______________ symptoms.
Diseases or conditions with psychological or psychiatric manifestations are considered psychopathologies.
Which four psychopathology models are there?The physiological, behavioural, cognitive, nor psychodynamic models are the four primary explanations for psychological disorder. They all make an effort to explain the causes et cures for all psychiatric diseases, but they all do so in a different way.
What contributes to psychopathology?Psychopathology has many causes, not just one. There are several elements that can raise the risk to mental disease, such as: DNA and the chemical makeup of the brain are biological factors. illnesses with a long course.
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nurse preparing to administer 40ml of 0.9% sodoim chloride to infuse over 20 mins. drop factor of the manual iv tubing is 15 gtt/ml. how many gtt/minnurse preparing to administer 40ml of 0.9% sodoim chloride to infuse over 20 mins. drop factor of the manual iv tubing is 15 gtt/ml. how many gtt/min
The answer is 30gtt/min to administer 40ml of 0.9% sodoim chloride to infuse over 20 mins.
What does gtt mean?
"gtt" is an abbreviation for "gutta", Latin meaning of which is "drop".
Since 1 ml consists of 15 gtt or drops, therefore 40 ml would consist 40x15=600 gtts or drops. These 600 drops need to be infused in 20 mins i.e. 600/20=30 ggts per min.
Therefore the answer is 30ggt/min.
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a 66-year-old man who originally sought care because of increasing pain in his great toe has subsequently been diagnosed with gout. in addition to pharmacological interventions, what dietary regimen should the nurse recommend to this patient?
The nurse should advise this patient to follow a diet high in fluids and low in protein.
How do proteins work?Almost all of the body's organs, tissues, and parts, including muscle, bone, clothing, and hair, include protein. It is a component of either the hemoglobin, which transports oxygen in the blood, and the enzymes, which power numerous chemical processes. You are constructed from at least 10,000 different proteins, all of which work together to create and preserve who you are.
How much protein is too much protein?Because many elevated foods you consume are heavy in both total and saturated fat, consuming too much protein can also cause blood lipid levels to rise and increase your risk of heart disease. For those who are prone to kidney illness, consuming more protein puts additional strain on the kidneys.
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which questions should the nurse ask the client when assessing for peripheral vascular deficits? select all that apply.
A blood circulation disorder called peripheral vascular disease (PVD) causes the blood arteries outside of your heart and brain to constrict, block, or spasm. A nurse should asses this condition by asking:
What is peripheral vascular deficits and what are the questions a nurse should ask while assessing it?It is a slow-moving circulatory illness known as peripheral vascular disease (PVD). PVD may result from a blood vessel spasm, obstruction, or narrowing. Any blood vessel, including arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels, that is not part of the heart may be impacted by PVD.
While assessing this condition, a nurse should ask the following questions to the client:
Have your hands or feet become numb?Do you have any leg sores that never heal?Which is worse for the agony, hanging your legs or elevating them?Know more about peripheral vascular assessment at:
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The complete question is-
Which questions should the nurse ask the client when assessing for peripheral vascular deficits? Select all that apply.
a. do you have numbness in your hands or feet?
b. are there any sores on your legs that never heal?
c. Do you experience any chest pain upon exertion?
d. do you feel dizzy when you change positions too fast?
e. what makes the pain worse, elevating your legs or dangling them?
a renal length discrepancy of more than 10 mm may indicate kidney disease. which type of section might allow a doctor to see both of a patient's kidneys simultaneously?
Your kidneys are harmed and unable to properly filter blood if you have renal disease. If you have diabetes or high blood pressure, you are more likely to develop renal disease.
How can I tell if my kidneys are unhealthy?Blood and urine testing can be used to determine CKD. These exams check for elevated levels of specific compounds in your blood and urine, which are symptoms of a functioning kidney.
How long may kidney illness go undiagnosed?About 90% of those who have this illness are completely ignorant of it. One in five persons with CKD is unaware that they have severe chronic renal disease.
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What is a contraindication for breastfeeding in the less developed parts of the world?.
assessment i suspect mr. luno is suffering from gastroesophageal reflux. other possibilities include gastritis, cholelithiasis, and pud. which is not part of the differential diagnosis?
The patient may have a stone in his pancreas. This is not a part of the differential diagnosis.
What is gastroesophageal reflux?
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a digestive disease wherein acid of the stomach or bile flows back repeatedly into the esophagus. It irritates the food pipe lining.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease or GERD is a chronic disease.
GERD is indicated when acid reflux and heartburn occur more than twice a week.
Symptoms include burning pain in chest that occurs usually after eating and often worsens after lying down.
If not treated, GERD can become a problem, because the tissue lining the esophagus gets damaged by the reflux of the stomach. This causes pain and inflammation.
Therefore, the patient may have a stone in his pancreas. This is not a part of the differential diagnosis.
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the nurse caring for clients admitted for infectious diseases understands what information about emerging global
The nurse learning about infection discovers that which factor is the best and most important.
When caring for a hospitalized client with influenza, which intervention would the nurse carry out to stop illness transmission?Droplet safety measures: When a patient carrying a virus, such influenza, is three to six feet away from the patient, droplet precautions are required. When someone coughs, sneezes, talks, or comes in close contact with the breathing of an infected person, air droplets from those actions can spread the infection.
What causes infections to spread most frequently among individuals who are institutionalized?Transmission over contact. In the healthcare environment, this is the most significant and frequent mode of transmission. Direct contact between an infected or colonized patient and a susceptible individual results in the spread of organisms.
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the nurse is providing education to a client with high triglyceride and cholesterol levels. which food should the client be cautioned to avoid?
These highly saturated fats include coconut oil, palm oil, and palm kernel oil.
What foods should you stay away from?Avoid eating frozen dinners that are high in salt and processed meats such lunch meats, sausages, hot dogs, and ham (sodium). Many packaged snacks and toddler foods sold in stores include a lot of salt. Check the nutrition information label to identify foods that have less salt.
What four foods should you avoid?Beverages with added sugar are just empty calories. Preservatives and too much salt are present in salty snacks like potato chips and cheese doodles. Candy, packaged cookies, and other packaged sweets: empty calories, preservatives, and additives. Processed meats (Bacon, sausage, and cold cuts) are associated with heart disease and cancer.
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the parents of a 3-year-old boy have just been informed that allergy testing suggests their son has multiple food allergies. when providing health education for this family, what subject should the nurse prioritize?
The nurse should highlight the Potential sources of food allergens and techniques for avoiding irritating foods after informing the parents of a 3-year-old boy's various food allergies based on allergy testing.
What are the food allergies?A bad or harmful immunological response brought on by eating a certain meal. Food allergies have no recognized cause. Allergies that were present as a child sometimes go away as adults. An allergic response may cause hives, stomach issues, or enlarged airways. A severe reaction may endanger life. Mild responses are treated with antihistamines. A severe reaction necessitates the medication epinephrine injection and emergency hospital treatment.
What are the major food allergens and what's the most popular allergy?Celery, gluten-containing grains (like wheat, barley, and oats), crustaceans (like prawns, crabs, and lobsters), eggs, fish, lupin, milk, mollusks (like mussels and oysters), mustard, peanuts, sesame, soybeans, sulfites, and sulfur dioxide are the allergens.
One of the most prevalent allergies in the world is a reaction to pollen. Pollen allergies affect tens of millions of people in the United States. In order to help plants reproduce, pollen—a fine, yellow powder—is dispersed from plant to plant by the wind, birds, insects, and other animals.
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the nurse is admitting a 28-week neonate to the nicu. which assessment would indicate an intraventricular hemorrhage (ivh)?
For the nurse who is admitting a 28-week neonate to the nicu, Hypotonia is assessment would indicate an intraventricular hemorrhage.
Hypotonia is the medical word for a lack of muscle tone. Normal muscular contractions continue to occur even when the muscle is completely relaxed, giving it a springy feel and some resistance to passive movement. Muscular weakness is not the same as the two disorders, despite the fact that they can coexist.
Treatment can help with hypotonia, a lifelong condition. After being given a hypotonia diagnosis, a baby's muscle tone typically improves markedly over time. If a genetic disorder is the underlying cause of your child's hypotonia, the problem may get worse with time.
Hypotonia, or low muscle tone, is typically found at birth or in the first few years of life. The illness is additionally known as floppy muscle syndrome.
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the nurse is assessing a client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. which statement made by the client indicates a need for further education on sick day management?
The statement made by the client is that "I need to stop taking my insulin when I am ill because I am not eating."
What three functions does insulin have?
The hormone insulin, which is secreted by your pancreas, regulates the amount of glucose in your bloodstream at any particular time. It also aids in the storage of glucose in your muscles, fat, and liver. Finally, it regulates how proteins, lipids, and carbs are metabolized by your body.
Does insulin treat diabetes?
Insulin aids in the transfer of glucose from the bloodstream to the cells when taken. The remainder of that sugar is then stored in your fat, muscles, and liver for later consumption by your cells. Your blood sugar level should return to normal as the sugar enters your cells.
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the nurse is administering tube feeding to a patient taking multiple medications. the nurse is most concerned about absorption of which medication when administered with tube feedings?
The absorption of phenytoin is what the nurse is concerned about.
Why should the nurse be concerned about the absorption of phenytoin?
Feeding through a tube can decrease phenytoin absorption, which could cause seizures. It is advised to delay tube feedings for at least two hours before and after phenytoin delivery. This can be troublesome since the patient might not get enough nutrition as a result of the feedings being skipped. Some claim that the contact is more theoretical than real in this somewhat contentious matter. Therefore, although some institutions have chosen to hold the tube feedings, others have chosen to overlook this potential interaction and instead monitor phenytoin levels and patient conditions. When the need for continuous tube feedings arises, the patient frequently needs intravenous phenytoin.
Hence, the answer is phenytoin.
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