Calculate the flow rate of blood (of density 0.846 g/cm3 ) in an aorta with a crosssectional area of 1.36 cm2 if the flow speed is 48.5 cm/s. Answer in units of g/s.

Answer:

If ur talking abkut hamstrings then it would be running that mimics them xplanation:

This was on a gym class quizz and I got it wrong but turned out this was the right answer

Answer:

In this activity, I exercised my hips, thighs, knees, calves, ankles, and legs. In some exercises, I specifically worked on only one type of muscle or on a combination of muscles. For example, the lunges mainly exercised the muscles of the inner thighs while the dead lift worked the muscles of the leg as well as the back and shoulders. I haven't consciously exercised my leg muscles before, but I have often noticed their tightening during my daily body movements, like when I climb the stairs or run to catch the school bus.

Explanation:

Hope this helped:)

Answer:

so the time taken will be 120 seconds

Explanation:

power=30W

work done=3600J

time=?

as we know that

[tex]power=\frac{work done}{time taken}[/tex]

evaluating the formula

power×time taken=work done

[tex]time taken=\frac{work done}{power}[/tex]

[tex]time taken=\frac{3600J}{30W}[/tex]

[tex]Time taken=120seconds[/tex]

i hope this will help you :)

Answer:

0.3376 mm

Explanation:

The computation of the spacing in mm between the slits is shown below:

As we know that

[tex]d = \frac{m\lambda L}{\Delta y}[/tex]

where,

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = wavelength

L = distance from the scrren

[tex]\Delta y[/tex] = spanning distance

As there are 11 bright fingers seen so m would be

= 11 - 1

= 10

Now placing these values to the above formula

So, the spacing is

[tex]= \frac{(10)(633 \times 10^{-9})(3.2m)}{60 \times 10^{-3}}[/tex]

= 0.3376 mm

We simply applied the above formula.

Answer:

Explanation:

Maximum occurs when the path difference is an integral multiple of wavelength

Here [tex]\lambda[/tex] - Wavelength, [tex]d-[/tex] slit separation and [tex]m-[/tex] Order of pattern

Rearrange the equation for

[tex]\begin{aligned}d &=\frac{m \lambda}{\sin \theta} \\

\text { Here, } \sin \theta &=\frac{y}{L} \quad\left(\begin{array}{l}

\text { Here, } L-\text { separation between slit and screen } \\

y-\text { Distance between respective fringe from center on screen }\end{array}\right)[/tex]

[tex]d=\frac{m \lambda}{\left(\frac{y}{L}\right)} \\

&=\frac{m \lambda L}{y}[/tex]

Here, order

Due to the fact that there are 11 bright fringes seen, you take [tex]11-1=10[/tex]

since starts from 0,1,2,3

Substitute given values

[tex]\begin{aligned}d &=\frac{(10)\left(633 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{m}\right)(3.2 \mathrm{m})}{60 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{m}} \\&=\left(3.376 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{m}\right)\left(\frac{1 \mathrm{mm}}{10^{-3} \mathrm{m}}\right) \\&=0.3376 \mathrm{mm}\end{aligned}[/tex]

Answer: If we have equilibrium, the magnitude must be zero.

Explanation:

If the charges are in equilibrium, this means that the total charge is equal to zero.

And as the charges must be homogeneously distributed in the rod, we can conclude that the electric field within the rod must be zero, so the magnitude of the electric field must be zero

Answer:

1.99*10-4sec

Explanation:

Signal propagation speed=0.82∗2.46∗108m/s

d=2000 m

Tp=20000/0.82∗2.46∗108 sec

ContentionPeriod=2Tp=2∗20000/0.82∗2.46∗10^8

= 1.99* 10^-4seconds

The correct answer is A.  AB+ CD + energy-> AD+ CB

Explanation:

In chemistry, a reaction is endothermic if the reaction involves absorption of heat or energy and this is necessary for the reaction to start. In terms of the chemical equation, this implies energy is part of the reactants or initial substances. Besides this, if the reaction is a double-replacement reaction this means two ions of the original substances are swapped or replaced, which means new substances in the products.

According to this, option A is the correct chemical equation because energy is part of the reactants, which shows the reaction is endothermic and the reactants AB + CD lead to the products AD + CB which shows two ions of the compounds were replaced (double replacement).

Answer:

The proper Answer is A) AB+CD + Energy --> AD + CB

Explanation:

Answer:

Effective resistance of two equal resistors in series is twice that of a single resistor and in essence will reduce the amount of current flowing in the circuit.

Explanation:

When two resistors are connected in series, their effective resistance is the sum of their individual resistances. For example, given two resistors of resistance values R₁ and R₂, their effective resistance, Rₓ is given by;

Rₓ = R₁ + R₂            --------------(1)

If these resistors have equal resistance values, say R, then equation 1 becomes;

Rₓ = R + R

Rₓ = 2R

This means that their effective resistance is twice of their individual resistances. In other words, when two equal resistors are in series, their effective resistance is twice the resistance of each single one of those resistors.

Now, according to Ohm's law, voltage(V) is the product of current (I) and resistance (R). i.e

V = IR

I = [tex]\frac{V}{R}[/tex]

We can deduce that current increases as resistance decreases and vice-versa.

So, if the two equal resistors described above are connected in series, the amount of current flowing will be reduced compared to having just a single resistor.

Answer:

μs = 0.30

μk = 0.24

Explanation:

In order to calculate the kinetic friction and static friction between the block and the surface, you take into account that the kinetic friction is important when the block is moving and the static friction when the block is at rest.

You use the following formula to find the coefficient of static friction:

[tex]F_1=\mu_s Mg[/tex]       (1)

F1 = 75N

μs: coefficient of static friction = ?

M: mass of the block = 25.0kg

g: gravitational acceleration = 9.8m/s^2

You solve for μs in the equation (1):

[tex]\mu_s=\frac{F_1}{Mg}=\frac{75N}{(25.0kg)(9.8m/s^2)}=0.30[/tex]

For the coefficient of kinetic friction you have:

[tex]F_2=\mu_k Mg[/tex]       (2)

F2 = 60N

μk: coefficient of kinetic friction = ?

You solve for μk in the equation (2):

[tex]\mu_k=\frac{F_2}{Mg}=\frac{60N}{(25.0kg)(9.8m/s^2)}=0.24[/tex]

Then, you have:

coefficient of static friction = 0.30

coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.24

Welllll, first of all, it would take incredible muscular development and control to be able to do that, and I don't believe it's actually humanly possible.

But for Math and Physics problems, that's OK.  We don't mind suspending our disbelief, accepting a temporary alternate reality, and working with the hand that is dealt.

The speed of a wave doesn't depend on how the wave is created.  A puppy wagging its tail, a fly batting its wings, or a person shaking her hand up and down, are moving the air.  The wave that travels away from the vibration is a sound wave in air.  Its speed depends only on the characteristics of the air it travels through.

For some typical combination of temperature, pressure, and humidity, this speed (of sound) is taken to be 343 meters per second.

Notice that the 'sound' of shaking her hand up and down will not be 'heard' by anyone, no matter how close she stands to them.  12 Hz (12 per second) is not a fast-enough wiggle to be sensed as sound by human ears.  If the person senses the wave at all, it will only be as some kind of pulsating breeze.

Answer: 479. 425 N

Explanation: the calculation of a body in an elevator obeys Newton law. When it is accelerating upward, the scale reading is greater than the true weight of the person.

It is given by N= m(g+a)

When it is accelerating downward, the scale reading is less than the true weight.

It so given by N = m(g-a)

The answer to the above questions is in the attached photo

Answer:

the scale will read 476.414 N

Explanation:

Weight = 635 N

mass = (weight) ÷ (acceleration due to gravity 9.81 m/^2)

mass m = 635 ÷ 9.81 = 64.729 kg

initial acceleration of the elevator a = 2.45 m/s^2

the force produced by the acceleration of the elevator downwards = ma

your body inertia force try to counteract this force, by a force equal and opposite to the direction of this force, leading to an apparent weight loss

apparent weight = weight - ma

apparent weight = 635 - (64.729 x 2.45)

apparent weight =  635 - 158.586  = 476.414 N

Answer:

T = 2.06h

Explanation:

In order to calculate the time that the Apollo takes to complete an orbit around the moon, you use the following formula, which is one of the Kepler's law:

[tex]T=\frac{2\pi r^{3/2}}{\sqrt{GM_m}}[/tex]         (1)

T: time for a complete orbit = ?

r: radius of the orbit

G: Cavendish's constant = 6.674*10^-11 m^3.kg^-1.s^-2

Mm: mass of the moon = 7.34*10^22 kg

The radius of the orbit is equal to the radius of the moon plus the distance from the surface to the Apollo:

[tex]r=R_m+160km\\\\[/tex]

Rm: radius of the moon = 1737.1 km

[tex]r=1737.1km+160km=1897.1km=1897.1*10^3 m[/tex]

Then, you replace all values of the parameters in the equation (1):

[tex]T=\frac{2\pi (1897.1*10^3m)^{3/2}}{\sqrt{(6.674*10^{-11}m^3/kgs^2)(7.34*10^22kg)}}\\\\T=7417.78s[/tex]

In hours you obtain:

[tex]T=7417.78s*\frac{1h}{3600s}=2.06h[/tex]

The time that the Apollo takes to complete an orbit around the moon is 2.06h

Answer:

in a free market system supply and demand forces affect the production and consumption decisions. There is little to no government control in such a system .

Explanation:

A free market is an economic system in which prices are based on competition between private actors and are not affected by other factors besides supply and demand, that is, where there are no external variables that condition the market.

Free market economy systems are characterized by limited government intervention, which characterizes democratic, liberal states and the modern global economy, in which the market in its private face makes most of the economic decisions, leaving the government a minimum amount of necessary regulations.

Answer:

Wavelength = 16 m

Frequency = 0.1 Hz

Period = 10 s^-1

speed of the wave = 1.6 m/s

Explanation:

The crests of the wave is 16.00 m apart

Also, 6 crests pass per minute

The wavelength of this wave is the distance between consecutive corresponding troughs or crests. This means that the wavelength λ is 16 m

Frequency is defined as a number of cycles per seconds.

A minute has 60 sec, therefore, the frequency of this wave is

==> f =  6/60 = 0.1 Hz

Period is the inverse of the frequency, therefore period of the wave is

==> T = 1/0.1 = 10 s^-1

Speed of the wave is the frequency times the wavelength

v = λf = 16 x 0.1 = 1.6 m/s

Answer:

0.045 J

Explanation:

From the question,

The elastic potential energy stored in a spring is given as,

E = 1/2ke²...................... Equation 1

Where E = elastic potential energy, k = spring constant, e = compression.

Given: k = 100 N/m, e = 0.05-0.02 = 0.03 m

Substitute these values into equation 1

E = 1/2(100)(0.03²)

E = 50(9×10⁻⁴)

E = 0.045 J

Hence the right option is 0.045 J

Two carts connected by a 0.05 m spring hit a wall, compressing the spring to 0.02 m.The spring constant k is 100 N/m.

What is the elastic potential energy stored from the spring’s compression?

Answer: 0.045 J

Answer:

*If the particles are deflected in opposite directions, it implies that their charges must be opposite

*the force is perpendicular to the speed, therefore it describes a circular movement, one in the clockwise direction and the other in the counterclockwise direction.

Explanation:

When a charged particle enters a magnetic field, it is subjected to a force given by

        F = q v x B

where bold letters indicate vectors

this expression can be written in the form of a module

        F = qv B sin θ

and the direction of the force is given by the right-hand rule.

In our case the magnetic field is perpendicular to the speed, therefore the angle is 90º and the sin 90 = 1

If the particles are deflected in opposite directions, it implies that their charges must be opposite, one positive and the other negative.

Furthermore, the force is perpendicular to the speed, therefore it describes a circular movement, one in the clockwise direction and the other in the counterclockwise direction.

Yes it does !  The so-called "boiling point" is the temperature at which Bromine liquid can change state and become Bromine vapor, if enough additional thermal energy is provided.  The boiling point is higher than room temperature.

Answer:

1089.74 Hz

Explanation:

Using Pythagoras theorem, we can find the distance from the point to the second speaker.

Thus;

d2 = √(3² + 2.3²)

d2 = √(9 + 5.29)

d2 = √14.29

d2 = 3.78 m

Then, the path distance which is the extra distance travelled would be;

Δd = d2 - d1

Δd = 3.78 - 3

Δd = 0.78 m

Now, the destructive interference condition is given by the formula;

Δd = (m + ½)λ

λ is the wavelength

m is a non - negative integer.

In this case, m = 2

Thus;

0.78 = (2 + ½)λ

λ = 0.78/(2½)

λ = 0.312 m

Now the formula for frequency of a wave is given by;

f = v/λ

Where v is speed of sound.

Thus;

f = 340/0.312

f = 1089.74 Hz

Answer:

A = A₀ ,   w = w₀/√2

Explanation:

This is a problem that we must solve with Newton's second law. They indicate that at the end of the initial movement where the speed is zero, add a mass to the block, we assume that it has the same mass, therefore the total mass is m_total = 2 m. Let's write Newton's second law at this point

                   [tex]F_{e}[/tex] = m_total a

the elastic force is

                   F_{e} = - k x

acceleration is

                   a = d²x / dt²

we substitute

                   - k x = m_total   d²x / dt²

                     d²x / dt² + (k / m_total) x = 0

we substitute

                     d²x / dt² + (k /2m) x = 0

the solution to this differential equation is

                    x = A cos (wt + Ф)

where

                  w = √ (k / 2m)

to find the constant Ф we use the velocity

                    v = dx / dt = - Aw sin (wt + Ф)

At the most extreme point and when the new movement begins (t = 0) they indicate that v = 0

                   0 = - A w sin Ф

for this expression to be zero the sine must be zero therefore Ф = 0

when replacing

                  x = A cos (wt)

                  w = 1 /√2  √ (k / m)

if we want to relate to the initial movement (before placing the block)

                 w₀ = √ (k / m)

                 w = w₀ /√ 2

The amplitude of the movement is the distance from the equilibrium point to where the movement begins, in this case it is the same as in the initial movement

                  A = A₀

the subscript is used to refer to the oscillations before placing the second block

we substitute to have the final equation

                 x = A₀ cos (w₀ t /√2)

                 A = A₀

                 w = w₀/√2

Answer:

Explanation:

In cyclotron charged particle moves in a circular path in a magnetic field .

for rotation  

mv² / R = Bqv where m is mass and q be charge of the particle which moves on circular path of radius R with velocity v .

v = BqR / m  

Time period of rotation  

T = 2πR / v  

= 2πR m / BqR

= 2π m / Bq

For electron  

T = 2π x 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ / (1 x 10⁻⁴ x 1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹)

= 35.67 x 10⁻⁸ s  

b )  

work done on the charged particle will be zero because force on charged particle is perpendicular to its movement so work done will be zero

Answer:

A. b) Directed towards center

B. [tex]v = 7.854\ m/s[/tex]

C. [tex]a_c = 12.337\ m/s^2[/tex]

D. [tex]w = 1.57\ rad/s[/tex]

Explanation:

The "force" that they feel pressing their backs against the wall is because the reaction to the  centripetal acceleration .

A.

This acceleration has its direction towards the center of the circle. (option b)

B.

Their linear speed can be calculated with the equation:

[tex]v = (\theta/t)*r[/tex]

Where [tex]\theta[/tex] is the total angular position moved in radians ([tex]1\ rev = 2\pi\ radians[/tex]), 't' is the time elapsed for the angular position moved and 'r' is the radius. So we have that:

[tex]v = (2\pi/4)*5 = 7.854\ m/s[/tex]

C.

The centripetal acceleration is given by the equation:

[tex]a_c = v^2/r[/tex]

[tex]a_c = 7.854^2/5[/tex]

[tex]a_c = 12.337\ m/s^2[/tex]

D.

Their angular speed is given by the equation:

[tex]w = \theta/t = 2\pi/4 = \pi/2 = 1.57 \ rad/s[/tex]

Answer:

at an advanced stage of social and cultural development. "a civilized society"

Explanation:

polite and well-mannered "I went to talk to them and we had a very civilized conversation" hope this helps you :)

Answer:

a) 3344 N

b) 3344 N

Explanation:

This is the complete question

1100 kg car pushes a 2200 kg truck that has a dead battery. When the driver steps on the accelerator, the drive wheels of the car push against the ground with a force of 5000 N. Rolling friction can be neglected.  A. What is the magnitude of the force of the car on the truck? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.  B. What is the magnitude of the force of the truck on the car?

Mass of the car = 1100 kg

Mass of the truck = 2200 kg

Force exerted on the ground by the car = 5000 N

The total mass in the system = 1100 + 2200 = 3300 Kg

Total force in the system = 5000 N

Recall that the force in the system = mass x acceleration

therefore,

5000 = 3300 x a

Total acceleration in the system = 5000/3300 = 1.52 m/s^2

The force on the truck individually fro the car, will be the product of this acceleration and its mass

Force on the truck = 2200 x 1.52 = 3344 N

b) Force on the car From the truck will be equal to this force but will act in the opposite direction.

Force on the car from the truck is 3344 N

Answer:

s= 8.28×10⁻¹⁶m

Explanation:

given

V= 2.25×10³V

from conservation of energy

mv²/2=qΔV

v=√(2qΔV/m)

v= √(2×1.6×10⁻¹⁹×2.25×10³/9.1×10⁻³¹)

=√7.9×10¹⁴m/s

=2.8×10⁷m/s

the deflection of electron beam is

S= gt²/2

recall t= d/v

s=g([tex]\frac{d}{v}[/tex])²/2

s= [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]×9.8×(0.364/2.8×10⁷)²

s= 8.28×10⁻¹⁶m

Answer:

[tex]P=3.25x10^{4}\frac{N}{m^2}[/tex]

Explanation:

Hello,

In this case, since pressure is defined as the force applied over a surface:

[tex]P=\frac{F}{A}[/tex]

We can associate the force with the weight of the needle computed by using the acceleration of the gravity:

[tex]F=0.600g*\frac{1kg}{1000g}*9.8\frac{m}{s^2} =5.88x10^{-3}N[/tex]

And the area of the the tip (circle) in meters:

[tex]A=\pi r^2=\pi (0.240mm)^2=\pi (0.240mm*\frac{1m}{1000mm} )^2\\\\A=1.81x10^{-7}m^2[/tex]

Thus, the pressure exerted on the record turns out:

[tex]P=\frac{5.88x10^{-3}N}{1.81x10^{-7}m^2} \\\\P=3.25x10^{4}\frac{N}{m^2}[/tex]

Which is truly a large value due to the tiny area on which the pressure is exerted.

Best regards.

Answer:

v = 1.7 m/s

Explanation:

By applying conservation of energy principle in this situation, we know that:

Loss in Potential Energy of Car = Gain in Kinetic Energy of Car

mgΔh = (1/2)mv²

2gΔh = v²

v = √(2gΔh)

where,

v = velocity of car at top of the loop = ?

g = 9.8 m/s²

Δh = change in height = 45 cm - Diameter of Loop

Δh = 45 cm - 30 cm = 15 cm = 0.15 m

Therefore,

v = √(2)(9.8 m/s²)(0.15 m)

v = 1.7 m/s

Answer:

By a factor of about 0.23

Explanation:

Pressure is force over an area: P=F/A

Let's call the pressure without the tip P₁ and the pressure with the rubber piece P₂.

-P₁ = F/A₁= F/(πr₁²)=F/(π0.95²)

-P₂=F/A₂=F/(πr₂²)=F/(π2²)

When they ask "by what factor" it signals that we should find a ratio between the two pressures. To do this, let's divide P₁ by P₂ (I'm going to mathematical step here):

P₁/P₂=[F/(π0.95²)]x[(π2²)/F]= 2²/0.95² = 4/0.9025

So with that we can say:

P₁=(4/0.9025)P₂=4.4P₂   or

P₂=(0.9025/4)P₁=0.23P₁

What this means is that the rubber tip reduced the pressure by almost one quarter, 0.25, of what it would have been without it. Note that because we took a ratio between the two pressures that the units reduce; meaning the ratio is unitless.

By a factor of about 0.23 the tip reduces the pressure exerted by the crutch.

Friction exists as the force resisting the relative motion of solid surfaces, fluid layers, and material elements sliding against each other. There exist several types of friction: Dry friction is a force that disagrees with the relative lateral motion of two solid surfaces in contact.

Pressure exists as force over an area: P=F/A

Let's name the pressure without the tip P₁ and the pressure with the rubber piece P₂.

-P₁ = F/A₁= F/(πr₁²)=F/(π0.95²)

-P₂=F/A₂=F/(πr₂²)=F/(π2²)

let's divide P₁ by P₂

P₁/P₂=[F/(π0.95²)]x[(π2²)/F]= 2²/0.95² = 4/0.9025

So with that, we can say:

P₁=(4/0.9025)P₂=4.4P₂ or

P₂=(0.9025/4)P₁=0.23P₁

Hence, By a factor of about 0.23 the tip reduces the pressure exerted by the crutch,

To learn more about Pressure refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/912155

#SPJ2

Answer:

E.true only when no charge is enclosed within the Gaussian surface.

Explanation:

Because Gauss’s law states that the net flux of an electric field in a closed surface is directly proportional to the enclosed electric charge.

Answer:

for the birds to be able to stay vertical in flight without falling down to earth, they must produce a lift that will counteract their weight

for the small bee humming bird,

mass = 1.6 g = 1.6 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex]  kg

weight of the bird under acceleration due to gravity = mg

where g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s^2

weight of the bird = 1.6 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex]  x 9.806 = 0.0156 ≅ 0.016 N

for this bird to maintain flight, the least lift upward, it must generate must be equal to its weight downwards, i.e

lift = weight

therefore,

lift = 0.016 N

For the bustard of Europe and Asia,

mass = 21 kg

weight of the bird under acceleration due to gravity = mg

weight of the bird = 21 x 9.806 = 205.9 N

lift = weight =  205.9 N

lift generated is proportional to the wing surface area according to the lift equation

L = Cs x p x [tex]\frac{v}{2}[/tex] x S

where L = lift

C = lift coefficient

p = density of air

v = relative velocity of bird and air

S = surface are of the wing.

The great bustard will have a proportionally larger wing area to hold its weight in flight

Answer:

7.13Hz

Explanation:pls see attached file