a client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 units of u-100 regular insulin and 25 units of u-100 isophane insulin suspension (nph) to be taken before breakfast. at about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. what is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?

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Answer 1

A client with diabetes mellitus experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness, these are due to serum glucose level less then 70.

Diabetes mellitus refers to a bunch of diseases that have an effect on however the body uses blood glucose (glucose). Glucose is a very important supply of energy for the cells that frame the muscles and tissues. It is also the brain's main supply of fuel. the most reason for diabetes varies by kind.

The glucose serum is that the simplest and most direct single check offered to check for diabetes. The check measures the number of glucose within the fluid portion of the blood. It's referred to as a “serum” check thanks to this fluid portion of the blood. There are multiple elements to the blood.

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the family asks the nurse what the usual treatment of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis entails. what is the nurse's best response?

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In the condition known as focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), scar tissue forms on the glomeruli, the tiny kidney structures responsible for removing waste from the blood.

A glomerulosclerosis: what is it?

Glomerulosclerosis is the scarring of the glomeruli, which are the tiniest blood arteries in the kidneys. These are the microscopic kidney organs that separate blood urine from the body.

What takes place when glomerulonephritis occurs?

Inflammation and damage to the kidneys' filtering system are symptoms of glomerulonephritis (glomerulus). It may develop gradually over time or suddenly. The urine is not effectively filtered to remove toxins, metabolic wastes, and excess moisture. Instead, they accumulate in the body, leading to weariness and edema.

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1.lulu sees a professional once a month to manage the medication she is taking to help alleviate the symptoms of her anxiety disorder. the type of therapy lulu is undergoing is called .

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Lullu is undergoing Biomedical Therapy.

What is Biomedical Therapy?

Physiological treatments, such as drugs, are used in biomedical therapy or biological psychiatry to treat psychological illnesses. Many individuals who struggle with addiction or substance abuse also struggle with another mental health condition, including depression or anxiety. This method of treatment aids in addressing some of the underlying problems that may be responsible for addiction.

Side effects from pharmacotherapy treatments could include drowsiness, constipation, and dry mouth. Treatment with antipsychotic drugs may result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological illness marked by uncontrollable writhing and tic-like movements of the mouth, tongue, face, hands, or feet.

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which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence? a client a. who is bedfast, with increased serum bun and creatinine levels

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When the bladder is abnormally swollen, which frequently happens in a bewildered client (B) who forgets to empty it, overflow incontinence ensues. who struggles with confusion but also frequently forgets to use the restroom

What are incontinence's initial warning signs?

difficulties passing pee, including a sluggish stream, straining to do so, or stopping and starting. issues after urinating, such as the impression that your bladder is still partially full or releasing just few amounts of urination after you think you're done.

Is there a natural remedy for incontinence?

Exercises for the kegels are among the most efficient at-home treatments for urine incontinence. The muscles utilized to stop urine flow are known to be flexed during these workouts. They are helpful for treating incontinence in its early stages.

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a young adult is going on vacation to a sunny climate and plans on using a tanning booth to build up a protective tan. which instructions should the nurse provide to the young adult?

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Tanning places should be avoided by the adult.

Why should tanning places be avoided?

Your skin cells are harmed by tanning, which also hastens the aging process. The worst outcome is that tanning can cause skin cancer. There is no such thing as a safe or healthy tan, it is a reality. Your risk of developing basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma is increased by tanning.

Squamous cell carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma, the two most frequent kinds of skin cancer, can both be increased by 58% and 24%, respectively, by indoor tanning. Before the age of 20, using a tanning bed can increase your risk of melanoma by 47%, and the risk rises with each use.

Hence, the answer is, the nurse should ask the young adult to prevent using tanning places.

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the patient reports grossly blood stool persistent for the past three days. he feels fatigued and mildly short of breath. on exam, he has pale conjunctiva and pallor to the skin. which lab will your doctor order to assess his condition?

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Complete blood count (CBC). A blood test called a complete blood count, or CBC, evaluates components and characteristics of your blood, such as: Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout your body from your lungs.

White blood cells, which fend against illnesses and infections. White blood cells may be divided into five main categories. A CBC test counts all of the white blood cells in your blood. The quantity counts of each of these white blood cells is counts during a separate examination known as a CBC with differential. Platelets, which help your blood clot to halt bleeding. Red blood cells contain the protein haemoglobin, which transports oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body. Hematocrit is a metric used to determine how many red blood cells are present in your blood. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV), a gauge of your red blood cells' typical size.

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which instructions would the nurse give to an overweight adolescent to promote weight loss? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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engage in regular physical activity,Eat small, regular meals during the day, and cut back on sugar and beverages with added sugar.

What six physical activities are there?

There are six components of fitness that take the entire body into account: strength, balance, muscular flexibility, and aerobic capability.

What physical activities occur every day?

Regular exercise, like walking, cycling, wheeling, playing sports, or engaging in active recreation, has a positive impact on health,It is preferable to engage in some exercise than none,People can easily increase their everyday activities in relatively simple ways to achieve the appropriate exercise levels.

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which interventions are appropriate for a client with increased intracranial pressure (icp)? select all that apply

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Administering prescription antipyretics, maintaining aseptic technique with an intraventricular catheter, and providing frequent dental care are all viable treatment options for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

What exactly is increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Growing pressure inside your skull can be caused by a brain injury or another medical problem. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a serious condition that can cause a headache. The pressure can also cause more damage to your brain or spinal cord. Increased ICP can be caused by brain bleeding, a tumor, stroke, aneurysm, high blood pressure, or a brain infection. The goal of treatment is to reduce the elevated intracranial pressure around the brain. Increased ICP has catastrophic consequences, including lasting brain damage and death. Changes in mental status, such as disorientation, restlessness, and mental confusion, are early indicators and symptoms. Movements with no purpose.

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a 42-year-old man with a past medical history of hypertension presents with intermittent fever of 6 weeks duration. he has an associated cough, dyspnea, anorexia, arthralgias, abdominal pain, diarrhea, a widespread rash throughout his body, and back pain. he has come to see you because he has experienced acute left upper and lower extremity weakness and painless hematuria since this morning. he denies chills, a history of travel, sick or confined contacts, exposure to animals, bites, stings, cigarette smoking, otalgia, sore throat, swollen glands, drug use, dysuria, preceding gi or gu infections, previous surgeries, or sexual contact in the past year. his physical exam is remarkable for fever, a generalized petechial rash and petechiae of the mucous membranes, dark red linear lesions of the nailbeds, tender subcutaneous nodules of the digital pads, and nontender maculae on the palms and soles. his heart is notable for a new harsh, medium pitched pansystolic murmur at the apex with radiation to axilla, reduced strengths to the left upper and lower extremities, and splenomegaly. question: what is the most likely diagnosis?

Answers

Failing the heart probably the right diagnosis. the apex, showing splenomegaly, diminished strength in the left upper and lower extremities, and radiation to the axilla.

What is covered under Medi-Cal?

Many medically required services are covered by Medi-Cal. Included in this are visits to the dentist and doctor, prescription medications, eye exams, family planning, mental health services, and alcohol and drug rehabilitation. The cost of getting to these treatments is covered by Medi-Cal as well.

Do you always get free Medi-Cal?

No premium, no co-payment, and no out-of-pocket expenses are required for many people who sign up for Medi-Cal. Budget-friendly prices, including a low monthly premium, will be seen by certain households. A family's monthly cost for Medi-Cal coverage for some children is $39, with a per-child cap of $13.

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legal safeguards are in place in the nursing practice to protect the nurse from exposure to legal risks as well as to protect the client from harm. what is an example(s) of legal safeguards for the nurse? select all that apply.

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Examples of legal safeguards for the nurses are:

A client provides informed consent for the nurse to perform a procedure.

The nurse explains The Patient Care Partnership to the client.

All client care is documented in a timely manner by the nurse.

What is a nursing home?

A nursing home is a residential care facility for the elderly or disabled. Nursing homes are also known as long-term care facilities, old people's homes, assisted living facilities, care homes, rest homes, convalescent homes, or convalescent care.

Nursing home facility nurses are responsible for caring for the medical needs of the patients as well as being in charge of other employees, depending on their rank. Nursing aides and skilled nurses are usually available 24 hours a day in most nursing homes.

In the United States, nearly one in ten residents aged 75 to 84 stays in a nursing home for five or more years, while nearly three in ten residents in that age group stay for less than five years.

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what are some actions the athlete may take before, during, and after exercise/competition to maintain and replenish fluid intake?

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If your workout lasts more than an hour, hydrate with sports drinks. Drink 2 cups of drink four hours before exercising. Consume fluids while exercise to avoid losing more than 2% of your body weight.

Why is exercise so crucial for athletes?

Athletes with strong physical fitness can not only improve the efficiency with which they learn sports skills, but also prevent the occurrence of injuries and accidents caused by movement. Physical training, particularly physical quality training, has a significant impact on track preservation. Training is critical, and it should be a part of every professional athlete's everyday regimen. Training allows the body to gradually increase its strength and endurance, enhance its skill levels, and increase drive, ambition, and confidence. Regular exercise can aid in the prevention of weight gain, type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and high blood pressure. Exercises that strengthen the bones, such as jumping, running, or lifting weights, can help maintain bones strong.

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What does edward kienholz use in the installation the state hospital to emphasize the complete isolation of the patient and to evoke a shocking impact on the viewer?.

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Actual institutional objects edward kienholz use in the installation the state hospital to emphasize the complete isolation of the patient.

How do patients describe who they are?

The Latin word "patiens," which means to endure or suffer, is translated as "patient" in English. This terminology describes the patient as being incredibly passive, going through the required pain, and enduring the actions of the outside expert.

Who or what is patient?

Since it takes learning to wait patiently in the face of annoyance or suffering, which is almost everywhere, we have the opportunity to develop patience. However, the secret to a contented existence may lie in having patience.

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the nurse manager is orienting a new nurse. which statement by the new nurse would indicate that the nurse manager should intervene?

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In the health clinic, the nurse is speaking with the infant's single mother while training a newly licensed nurse. After arriving 10 minutes late for the appointment, the mother is worried that the clinic won't let her bring her child.

What tasks does a nurse manager perform?

The duties of nurse managers include managing human and financial resources, ensuring patient and staff satisfaction, maintaining a safe work environment for all parties involved, ensuring that standards and quality of care are upheld, and coordinating the objectives of the unit with the hospital's strategic goals.

How do you handle a negative nurse manager?

Never go up to a toxic nursing management alone. Instead, go as a group to confront the manager and find protection in numbers (Lipman-Blumen, 2005). For effective support, they should team together with other nurse managers or executives. When working with a toxic nurse manager, keep your emotional intelligence under control.

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the nurse prepares to teach how to prevent back injuries for new colleagues attending orientation. what risk factors for back injuries should the nurse caution the colleagues against? select all that apply.

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Should the nurse warn the colleagues about the potential risks of back injuries when moving with a client's assistance

What portion of the back is hurt the most frequently?

Back pain and injuries most frequently occur in the lower back. Back injuries are frequently sustained: Stress and strain: The region around the muscles typically swells up when a ligament in your back is torn or a muscle is overstretched.

What is the recovery time for a strained back?

Back muscle strains normally get better with time, most often within 3 to 4 weeks and many within a few days. With mild or mild lumbar strains, the majority of patients heal completely and are symptom-free in a matter of days, weeks, or even months.

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what are some nutritional deficiencies and other health insults that pose risk to the organ systems of the fetus? multiple select question. maternal intake of artificial sweeteners maternal intake of excessive vitamin a adverse reaction to medications exposure to radiation

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Some nutritional deficiencies and health insults that pose risk to the organ systems of the fetus are:

1) Exposure to radiation

2) Adverse reaction to medications

3) Maternal intake of excessive vitamin A

What do you mean by Fetus?

Fetus is the term used to describe an unborn baby during the period of gestation, typically from the eighth week of development until birth. During this time, the fetus grows and develops in the mother's uterus. It is composed of various body parts, organs, and systems and is supplied with nutrients and oxygen through the umbilical cord.

What do you mean by the term Nutritional deficiencies?

Nutritional deficiencies occur when the body does not get enough of the nutrients it needs to function properly. This can occur due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or an underlying medical condition. Symptoms of nutritional deficiencies can include fatigue, nausea, weight loss, and skin problems.

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a client is diagnosed with choledocholithiasis and acute suppurative cholangitis and is being rushed to surgery to prevent which possible complication?

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The most often used biochemical marker for acute pancreatitis is serum amylase, however its sensitivity might be lowered by late presentation, hypertriglyceridaemia, and persistent drinking.

What is the nurse's primary concern while caring for a patient with chronic pancreatitis?

Chronic pancreatitis patients are at a significant risk of hyperglycemia due to damaged pancreatic cells and an inability to control glucose. The patient's glucose levels should be monitored by the nurse.

Acute pancreatitis is often diagnosed by the presence of stomach discomfort and high serum amylase and/or lipase levels.

Acute pancreatitis patients leak a substantial volume of fluids to the third spacing into the retroperitoneum and intra-abdominal tissues. As a result, patients require immediate intravenous (IV) hydration.

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when providing discharge teaching for a client with multiple sclerosis (ms), the nurse should include which instruction?

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The instructions that nurse should give while discharging a patient with multiple sclerosis are- Getting lots of sleep, Making a plan for your day's activities. Avoiding being too hot and avoid taking hot bath and showers.

What should be the instructions given to a patient with multiple sclerosis while discharging?

Myelin, the protective sheath that protects nerve fibers, is attacked by the immune system in multiple sclerosis, which impairs brain-to-body communication. While discharging, the instructions which should be given by the nurse to the patient are-

Stretching can relieve the signs of tense muscles in addition to taking medicine.Use a cane or another mobility aid, if necessary, to aid in movement and conserve energy.Aerobic exercise may improve your balance, coordination, muscle strength, and muscle tone. A physical therapist can help you select exercises that are risk-free for you.Overall, you should eat fewer fruits and vegetables, and you should limit your daily fluid intake to 1,500 ml.Avoiding being too hot and avoid taking hot bath and showers.

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the nurse is planning care for a patient with a t3 spinal cord injury. the nurse includes which intervention in the plan to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia?

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Nurse is planning care for patient with a t3 spinal cord injury, then  intervention that must be included to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia : assist patient to develop a daily bowel routine to prevent constipation.

How to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia when client has T3 spinal cord injury?

Autonomic hyperreflexia is that condition in which involuntary nervous system overreacts to external or bodily stimuli.

Autonomic hyperreflexia occurs when nerve messages that used to go up the spinal cord to the brain are blocked.

To reduce the risk of autonomic hyperreflexia: Care should be taken to not let the bladder become too full, pain should be controlled, practice proper bowel care, avoid bladder infections.

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the client is scheduled for a polysomnography to determine if the client has obstructive sleep apnea (osa). the nurse instructs the client to:

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To find out if the client has obstructive sleep apnea, a polysomnography is scheduled. The client is told to plan on spending the night at a medical facility by the nurse.

Which recommendation for promoting sleep would the nurse give to the patient?

The patient should be given instructions on how to improve the sleeping conditions in his home. Before going to bed, drink some milk or have a small snack to help you fall asleep. The patient should get out of bed and engage in some quiet activity until they feel sleepy if they are unable to fall asleep after 15 to 30 minutes in bed.

How would you describe your sleep hygiene?

Professionals can assess the quality of their sleep using sleep studies and tools like the Pittsburgh Quality Sleep Index.

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a client who visits a health care facility for a routine assessment reports to the nurse being unable to control urinary elimination. this has resulted in the client soiling clothes and has led to a lot of embarrassment. which nursing intervention will be appropriate to use with this client?

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Due to the client's inability to access the bathroom, functional incontinence develops. The nurse is informed by a patient who attends a medical facility for a normal evaluation that he is unable to regulate his urine elimination.

What is urinary elimination?

The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra must all work properly for urine to be eliminated through them. Urine is produced when the kidneys filter waste from the circulation. Urine is moved from the kidneys to the bladder by ureters. Urine is stored in the bladder until the need to urinate arises. Finding the nursing diagnosis of impaired urinary elimination, which is described as dysfunction of urine elimination, is one of the choices. The following signs and symptoms serve as the defining features for this clinical diagnosis: urgency, nocturia, incontinence, frequency, hesitation, and dysuria.

What causes urinary elimination?

Constipation, vaginal infections, urinary tract infections, and vaginal irritants are just a few of the many problems that can result in incontinence. Some medicines could momentarily impair bladder control. Incontinence that lasts longer may be caused by weak pelvic floor muscles or a weak bladder.

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a client presents to the clinic with severe edema. which type of deficiency should be suspected in this client?

Answers

Excess fluid in your tissues leads to this swelling (edema), which is frequently brought on by congestive heart failure or a blockage in a leg vein. These are edema symptoms.

How can you eliminate severe edema?

Treatment for edema entails a number of steps, including treating the underlying cause (if feasible), cutting back on salt (sodium) in their diet, and, in many situations, using a drug called a diuretic to get rid of extra fluid. Additionally suggested measures include elevating the legs and wearing compression stockings.

How can you tell whether an edema is severe?

If your edema suddenly gets worse, hurts, is new, or if it's accompanied by chest pain or breathing difficulties, seek medical attention right once. The latter could be an indication of pulmonary edema, a serious illness where fluid fills the lung cavities.

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the family of an older adult reports to the nurse manager that the primary nurse failed to obtain a signed consent before inserting an indwelling catheter. which rationale would the | nurse manager consider before responding?

Answers

For routine treatments, a separate signed informed consent is not necessary. A consent that was signed at the time of admission covers this routine procedure to address basic physiological needs.

What types of tasks are required of nurses?

Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and carry out medical treatments in addition to offering emotional support to patients' families and informing the public about various health issues. The majority of registered nurses work in tandem with physicians and other healthcare professionals in a variety of settings.

Would a nurse be suited for the position?

Several post-operative surgical therapeutic responsibilities are under their purview. Many surgical nursing professionals concentrate their work on cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.

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the nurse prepares thepatient for an abdomina assessment. which examination position would be the most appropriate for this patient?

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The nurse prepares the patient for an abdominal assessment, then the  examination position that would be most appropriate for this patient is : supine position .

Why is supine position best for the abdominal assessment of patient?

The patient in a supine position has the head relaxed and the arms on the side of the body. This is extremely necessary for relaxing the abdominal wall muscles completely.

The supine position helps to inspect, auscultate, percuss, and palpate whereas sitting upright on the examination table makes palpation and percussion very difficult.

A high-Fowler's and left lateral position position makes palpation and percussion difficult.

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what signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client diagnosed with late stage rheumatoid arthritis?

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The presence of more than one joint's discomfort, stiffness, swelling, and pain stiffness, particularly in the morning or after prolonged hours of sitting, the same joints on both sides of your body are painful and stiff, The nurse would anticipate seeing fatigue (severe exhaustion) in a patient with late-stage rheumatoid arthritis.

A chronic inflammatory condition known as rheumatoid arthritis affects numerous joints, including those in the hands and feet.

The immune system of the body destroys its own tissue, including joints, in rheumatoid arthritis. Internal organs are attacked in extreme instances.

Joint linings are impacted by rheumatoid arthritis, which results in painful swelling. End-stage rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an advanced stage of the illness without active inflammation, characterized by significant joint destruction and damage.

According to a study, those who have rheumatoid arthritis are almost twice as likely to pass away before the age of 75 and are more prone to have cardiovascular and immune system disease and respiratory issues.

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the nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) to assess for signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure. which sign or symptom should be included in the teaching plan?

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The signs and symptoms that should be included in the teaching plan are Peripheral edema.

Pulmonary hypertension leads to a COPD complication known as right-sided heart failure.

Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and weight gain as a result of an increase in fluid volume are indications of right-sided heart failure.

Chronic hypoxemia-related disorders are linked to clubbing of the nail beds. Left-sided cardiac failure and hypertension are related. Heart failure patients have diminished appetites.

Peripheral edema is the medical term for leg swelling brought on by fluid retention in the tissues of the leg. It may be brought on by an issue with the kidneys, the lymphatic system, or the venous circulation system.

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a heart-lung bypass machine used in some types of open heart surgery belongs to which fda device category?

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The class-II FDA device category includes a heart-lung bypass machine used in some forms of open heart surgery.

The FDA's device category for cardiovascular devices includes three different groups of equipment. The classes-I, class-II, and class-III. On the basis of these classifications, they categorised the cardiovascular devices. A control panel and the machine's electrical power and control circuits make up the console for a heart-lung machine used in cardiopulmonary bypass. The console may be used to control the pumps, oxygenator, and heat exchanger, among other essential parts of a gas exchange system. Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) is a surgical procedure in which a machine temporarily replaces the heart and lungs to keep the body's blood and oxygen supply flowing.

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. the nurse has just received an order to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for an assigned patient. approximately how long will the nurse need to stay with the patient to ensure that a transfusion reaction is not occurring?

Answers

An effective way to get the client interested in learning about transfusion treatment is to inquire about their personal experiences with it.

By "they themselves," what do they mean?

The Latin term "patiens," which meant to suffer with or endure, is where the English word "patient" comes from. This expression is used to describe a patient who is extremely cooperative, puts up with the required discomfort, and tolerates the interventions of the outside expert.

A patient individual is what?

We have the opportunity to acquire patience since it requires acquiring the ability to wait patiently in the face of discomfort or hardship, which is present practically everywhere. But perhaps the secret to a good life is patience.

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a(n) allergic reaction is when the allergic reaction spreads from a limited area of one organ to other organ systems in the body.

Answers

Sensibilities to compounds known as allergens that come into contact with the skin, nose, eyes, and respiratory system cause allergic reactions.

Which of the following 4 allergic reactions are they?

An allergic reaction can take one of four different forms when your body is overly sensitive to a stimulus: anaphylactic, cytotoxic, immunocomplex, or cell-mediated. Each one can manifest differently in each person and is triggered in various ways.

What is the term for the transfer of an allergy from one food to another?

Cross-contact happens when an allergy unintentionally spreads from a food that contains the allergen to a food that does not. The likelihood that a person with a food allergy would experience a reaction to the food is neither decreased or eliminated by cooking.

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a hospitalized client is scheduled to have a sigmoidoscopy. which action would the nurse perform before the procedure?

Answers

The lower colon must be emptied right before the procedure in order to make the rectum and sigmoidoscopy easier to see.

What are the two key methods for obtaining a stool sample?

How to Gather the Sample(s) Pass feces into a large, clean container—such as a milk jug with the top cut off—or onto newspaper put under the toilet seat, avoiding contact with urine. Pass your loose stools directly into a container rather than onto newspaper if they are loose.

Which approach would the nurse advocate for a pregnant client who was experiencing constipation?

Although increasing fiber intake, drinking more fluids, and exercising are the first-line treatments for constipation, they are not always successful. Consequently, laxatives such bulk-forming agents and lubricants

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injuries related to lifting or transferring clients occur in the health care setting and may be considered a work-related injury. which law was intended to reduce work-related injuries and illnesses?

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injuries related to lifting or transferring clients occur in the health care setting and may be considered a work-related injury. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970  law was intended to reduce work-related injuries and illnesses.

OSHA, which was established in 1970 as a result of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, has the responsibility of ensuring that employers provide their workers with a working environment free from known health and safety risks. Employers are required to adhere to specified occupational safety and health standards defined by Occupational Safety and Health Act. Injuries are a primary cause of premature death because they frequently kill young people and children who are otherwise healthy. Injuries predictability and avoidability are becoming more widely recognized.

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disturbed body image is a nursing diagnosis established for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder. which outcome indicator is most appropriate to monitor?

Answers

Body image disturbance, which is a frequent clinical illness, is described as a deformation of perception, behaviour, or cognition weight related or shape.

How should a patient with a problematic body image be treated?

Support the expression of thoughts regarding the real or perceived loss, whether they are positive or negative, Encourage patients to keep their sentiments of self-worth apart from their thoughts about changes to their body's shape or function ,The patient's coping mechanisms can be improved by expressing feelings.

Unhealthy body image: a psychosocial issue?

According to research, those with physical health issues who experience body image disruption have worse psychosocial results. People who report having the worse body image are those who have obvious physical alterations.

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Which organelles must be present within a cell of a geranium leaf for respiration and photosynthesis. psychiatrist martin goldberg points out six areas of marital interaction that underlie much of the conflict in a marriage. which of the following is not one of these? The first Christmas bell rings every six minutes. The second Christmas bell rings every seven minutes. The third Christmas bell rings every hour. If all the bells ring at 12 noon, at what time will they next all ring together? In looking at Figure 16.2, Stampede Pass and Bend both have elevations between 3500-4000 feet, but one receives many more inches of rain per year. Which of the following best explains the difference in precipitation? lc circuit, part h 0 points possible (ungraded) what is the current in the circuit when the magnetic energy stored in the coil is exactly equal to the electric energy stored in the capacitor? Double Replacement WorksheetIf an aqueous solution of lead(II) nitrate (Pb(NO3)2) is mixed with an aqueous solution of potassium chloride (KCl) the precipitate is?1. K(NO3)2.2. KNO3.3. No precipitate is formed.4. PbCl.5. PbCl2. Suzy Co. produces and sells three products (X, Y, and Z). The following data relate to the three products: X Y Z Demand in units 160 150 140 Selling price per unit $130 $160 $150 Raw materials costs per unit $65 $80 $90 Labor time in minutes per unit 10 20 15 Which is the most profitable product if there is a constraint on labor time, so that total demand for all products cannot be met? In a 30-60-90 triangle, what is the length of the longer leg when the length of the hypotenuse is 44 inches? the classical conditoning technique that treats anxiety through creative electronic stimutlatioun in which people can safely face their greatest fears is called How did trade benefit both Egypt and Kush? During the middle of the 19th century, hundreds of thousands of Irish immigrated to the U.S. to avoid the potato famine and find better opportunities. Many of the Irish immigrants found an unreceptive American society where it was difficult to find work. When searching for a job, an Irish person might find help wanted ads that included the phrase "Irish need not apply." According to the passage, why were many Americans most likely so unreceptive to Irish immigrants? A. The Irish, in their large numbers, were looked upon as a drain on society, as they took jobs away from Americans. B. Most Irish immigrants were less qualified for jobs than immigrants of other nationalities. C. Americans were afraid of catching diseases from Irish immigrants. D. Most of the people that were already in the U.S. were non-European people who were biased against the Irish. it does not define a relation because both 2 and 4 are related to z in b it properly defines a relation it does not define a relation because 3 is unrelated to any element of b it does not define a relation because y is unrelated to any element of a Cullumber Company reports the following information (in millions) during a recent year: net sales, $11,898.0; net earnings, $396.6; total assets, ending. $5,825.0, and total assets, beginning. $4,090.0.(a) Calculate the(1) return on assets. (2) asset turnover, and (3) profit margin. 3) Select 2 that apply.What are two consequences that the agricultural revolution has had on the environment?1.factories and machines making the production of goods much faster and cheaper than those thatwere handmade2.the destruction of ecosystems to make room for crops3.the ability to use mostly fossil fuels (coal and oil) for energy purposes4.the ability of human populations to settle down, build civilizations, and expand in vast numbersTar who gives the best example of friendship in the book? why? explain. write a quote from the book that helps explain, of mice and men Lin runs 5 laps in 6 minutesHow many minutes per lap is that. Tom bought a bag full of coal. After one week the bag was 2 3 full. During the next week he used 1 4 of the remaining coal. What fraction was left in the bag?. a 21-year-old client was diagnosed with hiv 4 years ago, which progressed to aids 1 year ago. now, the client presents with cytomegalovirus. the nurse explains to the client that the infection is caused by a common organism that normally does not cause infection in someone with a healthy immune system. this type of infection is called what? a study of 26 worldwide financial institutions showed the correlation between their assets and pretax profit to be 0.87. a. state the decision rule for 0.025 significance level: h0: rho 0; h1: rho > 0. (round your answer to 3 decimal places.) b. compute the value of the test statistic. (round your answer to 3 decimal places.) c. can we conclude that the correlation in the population is greater than zero? use the 0.025 significance level. A 1st degree burn is more serious than a 3rd degree burn. True False