a client is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and asks the nurse why the skin is so dry and itchy. what is the nurse's best response?

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse answers a customer's question on why the skin is so dry and itchy due to changes in lipid content after the client is given an atopic dermatitis diagnosis.

Atopic reaction: what is it?

Histamine is released as a result of atopic reactions, which are frequently brought on by animal dander, pollen, mold, or mite excrement.

What are the three ailments that an atopic person frequently has?

The most prevalent symptoms of atopy are allergic rhinitis, allergic bronchial asthma, and atopic dermatitis, with food allergy coming in third and fourth. An individual may experience one or more clinical disorders both concurrently and intermittently.

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in preparation for being discharged to home, the nurse is teaching a client with a chronic right ankle stasis ulcer about wound care. what statement by the client indicates a need further teaching?

Answers

The nurse will cover the use of graduated compression socks in client education prior to discharge.

What is chronic in the body?

an ailment or illness that often lasts for three months or more and has the potential to develop worse over time. Elderly persons are more likely to have chronic diseases, which can usually be treated but not cured. Leukemia, heart disease, strokes, diabetic, & rheumatism are the most prevalent chronic illness categories.

Does chronic mean permanent?

An chronic condition is defined by Wikipedia as a sickness that develops over time or a physical health condition that really is persistent or has long-lasting impacts. Whenever a disease has a longer than three-month duration, the word "chronic" is frequently used.

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a public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (stis). the nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what sti?

Answers

When a client is identified as having Chlamydia-related sexually transmitted infections (STI), the nurse should prepare for the client to take tetracycline.

What is sexually transmitted infections?

The majority of STI cases are associated with eight infections. Only four diseases are currently curable: syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomoniasis. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex virus (HSV), HIV, and human papillomavirus are the other 4 viral illnesses that cannot be cured (HPV). The virus that causes AIDS, known as HIV, is the most serious viral STD. The human papilloma virus (HPV), hepatitis B, and genital herpes are additional incurable viral STDs.

What STD Cannot be cured and can you heal from STD without antibiotics?

STDs/STIs that cannot be treated are brought on by viruses like HIV, genital herpes, human papillomavirus, hepatitis, and CMV. If a person has a virus-based STI, they are always at risk of infecting their sexual partners and remain permanently infected.

No, don't count on a STI to disappear by itself. Ignoring warning signs, refusing to comply, or rejecting could seriously harm your partner's health and result in long-term problems. Even if you don't experience any symptoms, you still run the risk of developing issues and passing the virus to your sexual partners.

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what should the nurse teach a client with generalized anxiety disorder to help the client cope with anxiety?

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Anxiety disorders are taught by nurses Be nonthreatening and composed. When interacting with the client, keep your cool and be non-threatening.

What anxiety intervention is the most successful?

The most successful type of psychotherapy for anxiety problems is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). CBT, which is typically a brief course of treatment, focuses on giving you the knowledge and skills you need to reduce your symptoms and gradually resume the activities you've put off due to anxiety.

Which diagnostic tool is best for determining whether a patient has anxiety?

An interview tool frequently used to measure anxiety is the Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A). It evaluates a number of the GAD-related symptoms even though it predates modern conceptualizations of the disorder. There are subscales for somatic and mental anxiety in the HAM-A.

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Drag each label into the appropriate to : Brachial, Lumbar, Sacral and coccygeal

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The Central Nervous System (CNS) consists of the brain and the spinal cord. The spinal cord is the continuation of the brain which lies protected within the bones of the spine.

The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consists of 12 cranial nerves, and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.  The PNS acts as the system of electrical wires that allows for communication between the CNS and the body’s muscles and sensory receptors. They also control the automatic functions of the bowel, bladder, respiratory (breathing), and heart function.

  Each spinal nerve is attached to the spinal cord by two roots: a dorsal (or posterior) root which relays sensory information and a ventral (or anterior) root which relays motor information. Therefore, once the two roots come together to form the spinal nerve, the nerve carries a combination of both sensory and motor information.

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the nurse is preparing a client for discharge who will receive a prescription for a hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme a (hmg-coa) inhibitor. what statement by the client demonstrates a clear understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?

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the nurse is preparing a client for discharge who will receive a prescription for a hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme a (hmg-coa) inhibitor contraindicated with liver or alcoholic disease

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are medications that are contraindicated with liver or alcoholic disease. The liver is more severely impacted by alcohol.The HMG-CoA inhibitor medication has resulted in the client's discharge. The client's declaration that he must only take the medication before bed. Since the patient's body only produces the majority of lipids at night. This will help you recover from the therapy more quickly.Discharge who will receive a prescription for a hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme a (hmg-coa) inhibitor,contraindicated with liver or alcoholic disease and chance to get liver cancer.

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how many grams of phenylephrine is needed to prepare 40. ml of a 14 % solution for a glaucoma patient?

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A 14% 10mL solution must contain ( 10 x 14) / 100 = 1.4 grams of the solute

so, 14 grams of phenylephrine is needed to prepare 40. ml of a 14 % solution for a glaucoma patient.

The brief relief of nasal congestion or stuffiness brought on by hay fever or other allergies, colds, or sinus issues is provided by phenylephrine. Congestion caused by ear infections may also be reduced using this phenylephrine. The optic nerve is harmed by a set of eye disorders known as glaucoma. Good eyesight depends on the optic nerve, which transmits visual data from the eye to your brain. High eye pressure is frequently associated with optic nerve damage. But even with normal eye pressure, glaucoma can develop.

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when teaching a group of nursing students about the liver, the nurse relates that kupffer cells function to remove harmful substances or cells from the portal blood and venous sinusoids through which process?

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The nurse explains to a group of student nurses about the liver that kupffer cells work through the Phagocytosis process to remove unwanted cells or chemicals from of the portal blood as well as venous sinusoids.

Phagocytosis is indeed a biological mechanism for ingestion or inhalation and expelling objects with a diameter of more than 0.5 m, such as bacteria, foreign objects, and apoptotic cells. Since phagocytosis occurs in a wide variety of cell types, it is crucial for maintaining tissue homeostasis. phagocytes, a kind of living cell, devour or engulf another cells or particles through a process known as phagocytosis. An amoeba or other free-living single cell might make up the phagocyte, or it could be one of the body's cells like a white blood cell. Phagocytic cells identify encroaching bacteria by the evolutionarily old and receptor-driven process of phagocytosis, which kills them following internalization. Eater, a phagocytosis receptor that is only expressed on phagocytes from Drosophila.

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a woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. during assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. what action should the nurse take?

Answers

The nurse should take apply ice to the breasts for comfort that is Option B.

What is the importance of applying ice on the breast?

Engorgement in a bottle-feeding mother can be treated by placing ice on the breasts for comfort.

Because she is not breastfeeding, ice packs and cabbage leaves can be used to treat this woman's engorgement.

A mother who is bottle-feeding should refrain from any breast stimulation, such as milk expression or pumping.

For at least the first 72 hours after giving birth, a mother who is bottle-feeding should wear a well fitted support bra or breast binder consistently. A baggy bra won't help to suppress lactation. Additionally, the movement of the bra against the breasts may stimulate the nipples, causing lactation to increase.

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the nurse is teaching breastfeeding to prospective parents in a childbirth education class. which instruction should the nurse include as content in the class?

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Feed your baby whenever they ask for food, which should be every two to three hours.

What are classes on birthing called?

Lamaze Method Lamaze classes view delivery as a natural and healthy process because it is the most popular childbirth technique in the U.S.Lamaze classes do not encourage or oppose the use of medications or other standard medical procedures during labor and delivery.

How can I become a better mother?

Classes on childbirth education are typically provided in hospitals, birthing facilities, doctor's offices, and private residences.You can also ask your doctor or a hospital for information on birthing education classes Friends and family .

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the nurse provides a cool glass of water to a client with inflamed throat tissue. what condition should the nurse caution the client to avoid when drinking very hot liquids while having an inflamed throat?

Answers

The client has the condition called Hyperalgesia due to which she gets  inflamed throat while drinking hot water.

What is Hyperalgesia ?

A sign of hyperalgesia is experiencing substantially more intense pain in circumstances where feeling pain is expected. Disruptions in your body's pain-processing mechanisms are the source of it. Burns and many other injuries and illnesses can frequently result in this.

Examples could be back discomfort, leg pain, neck pain, or headaches. Some people call the discomfort "diffuse" or "spreading," respectively. Some people may complain of aches and pains all throughout their bodies. The nature or experience of the pain has changed throughout time.

Opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH) is characterized as a nociceptive sensitization condition brought on by opioid exposure. A paradoxical reaction to the condition causes a patient taking opioids for pain management to actually become more sensitive.

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true or false? adding butter to all of paul's food and making sure to feed him as many calories as possible may cause health complications for paul, as it would for someone at any age.

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It is true that feeding Paul as many calories as possible while adding butter to everything he eats could lead to health issues, just as it would for anyone of any age.

Calories are a unit of measurement for the energy content of food and beverages. We frequently consume more calories from food and drink than we burn off, and our bodies store the extra as body fat. If this keeps happening, we may eventually start to gain weight. As a general rule, a strong guy needs about 2,500 kcal (10,500 kJ) every day to maintain a healthy weight.

Butter has a lot of calories and fat, especially saturated fat, which is linked to heart disease. If you have cardiovascular disease or are trying to cut calories, use this ingredient sparingly.

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in 2008, the fda approved a sweetener derived from a south american shrub called aspartame; you can purchase this sweetener as a dietary supplement called

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Aspartame, a sweetener derived from a South American shrub, received FDA approval in 2008; you can buy it as a dietary supplement called Sweet leaf.

 What is sweetener?

A sweetener is a substance that is added to food or beverages to give them the flavor of sweetness, either because it actually contains sugar or a sugar replacement with a sweet flavor. Artificial sweeteners are widely utilized in commercially produced food and beverages today.

Is sugar the only sweetener?

Artificial sweeteners are man-made alternatives to sugar. They could, however, be manufactured using substances that are found in nature, such as sugar or even herbs. Artificial sweeteners are also known as potent sweeteners since they are significantly sweeter than sugar.

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the nurse is conducting a vision assessment on a 2-year-old child. the nurse should assess for which visual ability in this child?

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For a 2-year-old child, the best vision assessment is accomplished by determining whether each eye can fixate on an object, maintain the fixation, and follow the object's movement.

Vision assessment is a procedure that's done to gather information about the health and function of the vision system. For a 2-year-old kid, the assessment is usually done by shining a penlight in the eye to measure the response of their pupil.

Using the penlight, the nurse can check whether the eye can fixate on the light as well as maintain the fixation. They also should check if the child is able to follow the penlight if it's moved around.

One can use something other that interest the child other than penlight, such as toys.

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which statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence?

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"I don't need to assess distal pulses on a client after a femoral arteriography." statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence

The blood flow via the arteries is examined using an arteriography. A damaged or obstructed artery may also be detected using this method. It can be used to spot bleeding or see malignancies in their natural setting. Typically, an arteriography is carried out concurrently with a therapy. Nursing care is defined as support given to sick or disabled people to meet their health care needs by or under the supervision of licensed nursing staff.They all contributed to the three Cs of improving patient experience in healthcare: communication, collaboration, and caring.

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a client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit. the nurse caring for the client would expect to see what included in the treatment regimen?

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A client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit and nurse caring for the client would expect  : IV gamma globulin administration.

What is ataxia-telangiectasia?

Ataxia-telangiectasia is a rare and childhood neurological disorder that causes degeneration in part of the brain that controls motor movements and also speech. First signs of the disease are unsteady walking and slurred speech, generally occurring during the first five years of life.

Treatment for ataxia-telangiectasia are: IV gamma globulin, antimicrobial therapy, and bone marrow transplantation.

Genetic mutation causes ataxia-telangiectasia and anyone can inherit ataxia-telangiectasia if both the parents carry a copy of the ATM gene mutation and pass that to their child.

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the healthcare team is planning health protection interventions for a client. which interventions would be considered primary prevention activities? select all that apply.

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Regulation of the use of potentially dangerous products and enforcement of laws requiring safe and healthy behaviors instruction on safe and healthy habits.

Which practices fall under the category of primary prevention? Check all that apply.

Activities for primary prevention are intended to stop or delay the beginning of disease. Primary-level interventions include practices like eating wholesome foods, working out, applying sunscreen, wearing seat belts, and getting immunized.

What practice is a patient's primary preventative intervention?

Interventions designed to stop the development of disease, injury, or disability are referred to as primary prevention. The population that does not already have the disease that an initiative is trying to prevent is the focus of primary prevention strategies. A well-known example of primary prevention is vaccinations.

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which neurological test should the nurse implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity?

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The neurological test that  the nurse should implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity is  Finger to nose.

What are  neurological test?

A neurological test is described as the assessment of sensory neuron and motor responses, especially reflexes, to determine whether the nervous system is impaired.

A neurological test typically includes a physical examination and a review of the patient's medical history, but not deeper investigation such as neuroimaging.

A neurological test assesses motor and sensory skills, hearing and speech, vision, coordination, and balance. It may also test mental status, mood, and behavior.

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hector wants to pay more attention to his diet, but he does not want to get hung up on sticking to a rigid program. which best summarizes a strategy for a healthy diet?

Answers

Option 1 is correct.

Count calories and be sure to measure every portion.

What is Diet?

In the realm of nutrition, a person's diet refers to the foods and beverages they regularly eat (or a group). The diet, or the one that satisfies a person's physical demands, may be regulated during a particular therapy for a disease or during the management of a certain health condition.

For example, a diabetic person's diet could be restricted to a certain list of foods and drinks that might help regulate blood sugar levels. The diabetic diet that is suggested for patients includes a variety of fibre-rich, non-starchy fruits and vegetables. When ingested in large quantities, starchy foods, which are high in carbs, have the potential to increase blood sugar levels.

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nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? select all that apply.

Answers

Option A, B, and D are correct when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas.

Two primary tasks are carried out by the pancreas: Produces chemicals (enzymes) that aid in digesting as part of its exocrine function. Function of the endocrine system: Releases hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. Glands in the pancreas secrete chemicals that aid in digestion and regulate blood sugar. Diabetes types 1 and 2 affect the pancreas often. Pancreatitis and pancreatic cancer are two more pancreas disorders. This tells us that option A, B, and D are correct.

Along with other hormones, pancreas creates glucagon and insulin. Diabetes results from inadequate insulin production by the pancreas or improper insulin utilisation by the body.

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Complete question is:

A nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. Which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? Select all that apply.

• "Internal secretion of hormones is the function of the endocrine pancreas."

• "The endocrine pancreas secretes hormones through a ductless gland."

• "The exocrine pancreas secretes hormones from excretory ducts."

• "The exocrine pancreas secretes pancreatic enzymes into the GI tract."

the nurse note a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and noncommunicative during the past two weeks. which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client? a. encourage the client's family to visit more often b. schedule a daily conference with the social worker

Answers

Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation.

What is depression ?

Depression is a mood disorder that results in a constant sense of sadness and boredom. It affects how you feel, think, and behave and can cause a variety of emotional and physical issues. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression.

Consistent attempts to draw the client into conversations which focuson non-threatening subjects can be an effective means of eliciting a response, thereby decreasing isolation behaviors. There is not sufficient data to support the effectiveness of A as an intervention for this client. Although B may be indicated, nursing interventions can also be used to treat this client. C is too threatening to this client.

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a nurse is caring for a client who has had extensive abdominal surgery and is in critical condition. the nurse notes that the complete blood count shows an 8 g/dl hemoglobin and a 30% hematocrit. dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution is infusing through a triple lumen central catheter at 125 ml/hr. the physician orders include the following: gentamicin 80 mg iv piggyback in 50 ml d5w over 30 minutes zantac 50 mg iv piggyback in 50 ml d5w over 30 minutes one unit of 250 ml of prbcs (packed red blood cells) over 3 hours flush the nasogastric tube with 30 ml normal saline every 2 hours. how many milliliters should the nurse record as the intake for the 8-hour shift? enter the correct number only.

Answers

The nurse record as the intake for the 8-hour shift is 1470 mL.

Explanation:

Regular IV at 125 mL x 8 hours = 1000 mL. Gentanicin = 50 mL. Zantac = 50 mL. PRBCs = 250 mL. NG flushes 30 mL x 4 = 120 mL. TOTAL = 1470 mL.

What is Hemoglobin?

Hemoglobin is a protein that is found in red blood cells. Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout your body. Your haemoglobin levels may fall if you have a condition that impairs your body's ability to produce red blood cells. Low haemoglobin levels can be a sign of a variety of conditions, including anaemia and cancer.

Hemoglobin is a protein that is found in red blood cells. Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout your body. Oxygen fuels your cells and provides energy. A low haemoglobin level can indicate a number of conditions, including anaemia and cancer.

Your haemoglobin levels may fall if a disease or condition impairs your body's ability to produce red blood cells. When your haemoglobin level is low, your body isn't getting enough oxygen, which causes you to feel tired and weak.

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the registered nurse (rn) teaches the nursing student about the implementation process of | nursing. which example will the rn use to describe indirect care interventions?

Answers

The example given to illustrate indirect care interventions is the dispensing of drugs.

What kind of nurse involvement falls under indirect care?

When a nurse helps someone else without directly interacting with the patient, this is known as an indirect care intervention. Attending care conferences, documenting, and talking with other physicians about patient care are a few examples of indirect care interventions.

In this quiz, you'll learn which intervention a nurse would recognize as an indirect nursing intervention.

Other members of the healthcare team can be consulted, referrals can be made, advocacy can be done, and the environment can be managed as indirect care interventions. Implementation is the phase that entails action, doing, and actually carrying out the nursing interventions specified in the care plan.

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what is the condition in which the heart does not pump blood as well as it should and blood and fluid back up into the lungs? multiple choice rheumatic heart disease congenital heart disease cardiomyopathy congestive heart failure

Answers

Congestive heart failure. Congestive heart failure, often known as heart failure, happens when the heart muscle is unable to pump blood and blood pressure as well as it should.

This commonly causes blood to pool and fluid to build up in the lungs, which can lead to shortness of breath. Some cardiac conditions, such as coronary artery disease (coronary artery disease) or high blood pressure, cause the heart to eventually become too weak or stiff to fill and pump blood effectively. With the right treatment, heart failure symptoms and signs can be reduced, and some patients also might survive longer. Making lifestyle changes, such as decreasing weight, exercising more, eating less salt, and managing stress, can enhance your quality of life. Nevertheless, heart failure puts your life at danger. One way to achieve this is to prevent and treat conditions like coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, insulin, and overweight that can result in heart failure.

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which of the following may be beneficial in staving off dementia but for which research into effectiveness has proved mixed?

Answers

There is no option provided, but most likely, staying engaged with social networks may be beneficial in staving off dementia, although research into their effectiveness has proven mixed.

Social engagement is linked to lower rates of disability and death, as well as a lower risk of depression. Maintaining a social life may benefit brain function and maybe even prevent the development of dementia. According to recent research, social isolation greatly increases a person's chance of dying prematurely from any cause, a danger that may rival physical inactivity, obesity, and smoking. Social isolation was also linked to a 50% increase in the risk of dementia.

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when planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, what does the nurse understand is the primary treatment goal?

Answers

While planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, the nurse should understand as  the primary treatment goal that the treatment of oxygenation needs of heart muscles should be priorly done.

What is cardiogenic shock?Meaning:Also known as Cardiac ShockThe condition when heart is not able to pump out blood in abundance to the brain and to all other vital organs.Symptoms Pressure and squeegeeing pain in the  center of your chest.shortness of breadth.Chest pain episode increases.4 Stages of shockinitialcompensatoryprogressiverefractoryMedication:Treating  oxygenation needs of heart muscles.intravenous fluids to support BP and Functioning of heart.

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what is meant by the term etiology?likely future path of an illnessthe different symptoms of a given condition the cause of a disorder frequency with which a given illness occurs

Answers

Etiology means - 1. a disease or disorder's origins and progression. 2. the area of medical and psychological science dedicated to the methodical investigation of the root causes of physical and psychological disorders.

What medical term is used to describe a condition that can spread from one person to another?

A communicable illness is one that can be spread from one person to another through a variety of different routes, such as coming into contact with blood or other bodily fluids, breathing in an airborne virus, or getting bitten by an insect.

The term "etiology" refers to the illness's root cause. One etiology can cause more than one disease entity, and more than one disease can result from the same etiology. A sequence of mechanistic chemical and cellular steps underlies the development of each disease entity.

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a client is newly diagnosed with diabetes. the nurse would instruct the client to monitor for which indication of hypoglycemia?

Answers

A client has just received a diabetes diagnosis. The client would be given instructions from the nurse to watch for Kussmaul respirations, which are a sign of hypoglycemia.

How should a patient with hypoglycemia be monitored?

If you experience any of the warning signs or symptoms of low blood sugar, use a blood glucose meter to measure and show your blood sugar level. When your blood sugar level falls below 70 mg/dL, you have hypoglycemia.

Which symptom should the nurse point out as being the most typical indicator of hypoglycemia when training a diabetic client?

Looking pale is one of the initial symptoms of diabetic hypoglycemia (pallor) Shakiness. a feeling of faintness or dizziness.

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communicable diseases are exempt or are not exempt from the privileged communication standard

Answers

Communicable diseases are exempt from the privileged communication standard.

What are privileged communication standard?

Privileged communication safeguards the secrecy of contacts between two people who are entitled to a private, protected connection under the law.

Attorney-client, doctor-patient, priest-parishioner, two spouses, and (in certain states) reporter-source ties are examples of relationships that afford the protection of privileged communication.

When persons are harmed or threatened with harm, the privileged communication protection is lost.

Examples of exempt privileged communication standard

Exempt by law and MUST be reported: births and deaths, injuries caused by violence, drug abuse, communicable diseases and STD's

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the nurse is assessing with a head injury a client for decerebrate posturing. which position indicates the client has decerebrate posturing?

Answers

The nurse is examining a client who has a head injury for decerebrate posture. which posture suggests that the client has adopted a decerebrate stance

When should you visit a doctor after striking your head?

When an individual or group has a brain injury and exhibits the following signs and symptoms: nausea or vomiting that occurs frequently. a longer-than-30-second period of unconsciousness a persistent headache

What should you do if you bump your head?

You can provide a cold pack for their head by using an ice bag or a bag of frozen beans wrapped in such a tea towel. If symptoms like moderate vertigo and a headache worsen, obtain medical help right away.

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An example of a dangerous bacterial infection that is resistant to several widely used antibiotics is.

Answers

Most methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or MRSA, infections contracted outside of a hospital are skin infections. In medical centers, MRSA causes life-threatening bloodstream and surgical-site infections, as well as pneumonia. MRSA is one of the most common antibiotic-resistant bacteria
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Crisha is configuring File History for the first time on her computer. She attaches an external hard drive and onfigures it as the drive for File History. Vhich of the following is most likely to occur in this scenario? a. Trisha will have to specify a folder that is not at the root of the drive for backup. b. Backup data will be added to the free space on the hard drive. c. The hard drive will be formatted before being used by File History d. Any files on the hard drive will be overwritten by backup files and folders. zelda describes herself as shy, hardworking, compassionate, and organized. zelda's analysis of her own personality is most similar to which perspective on personality? an ongoing process that considers the risk to electronic information and the data itself to determine if there is adequate security for the system to keep exposure to loss or alteration of phi to a minimum. Given a bag of 20 m&m's with 5 red, 4 blue, 2 green, 4 brown and rest are yellow. What is the probability of pulling a green one and then, without replacing it, pulling a blue? Answer in decimal form two charged particles 1 m apart exert a 1-n force on each other. if the magnitude of each charge is doubled, the force on each particle will be The need to extend the model A. The circuit at right contains three identical bulbs and an ideal battery. Assume that the resistance of the switch, when closed, is negligible. Use the model we have developed to Ope Sw * predict the relative brightness of the bulbs in the circuit with the switch closed. Explain. predict how the brightness of bulb A changes when the switch is opened. Explain in Show that a simple application of the model for current that we have developed thus far is inadequate for determining how the brightness of bulb B changes when the switch is opened B If you are parking with your vehicle facing uphill on a road with a curb, you should turn your wheels in what direction?. Under ASC Topic 606 for revenue recognition, which of the following factors is not an indicator of the principal/agent determination?Multiple ChoiceInventory risk.Control of prices of the goods or services.Shipping terms.Credit risk. joseph is working on his personal brand. after asking himself questions about his strengths, he's determined that his selling points are his facility with social media and his strong communication skills. he's now ready to write his tagline. which tagline would be best for joseph? a woman who is positive for hepatitis b has just given birth to a newborn. what precaution(s) will the nurse take in caring for the mother and newborn? select all that apply. if the work done by a battery to move a unit charge through the battery from one terminal to the other is doubled, what is the effect on the battery's emf? ____ computing means the organization owns their it infrastructure and maintains it in their data centers. write a mixed number and a fraction greater than 1 for each point on the number line describe various types of selective adaptation effects that have been found, and how they can be explained in terms of altering the distribution of neural responses You have an idea for a company that sources fruits from local farms to make fresh juices that will be sold on a subscription-based service to households within a 100-mile radius. How will you know if your company has a sustainable advantage?. what is the reason that coasts such as those in canada, north britain, and scandinavia have been uplifted? Listed below are selected transactions of Schultz Department Store for the current year ending December 31.1. On December 5, the store received a deposit from the Selig Players to be returned after certain furniture to be used in stage production was returned on January 15. $ 5002. During December, cash sales were received, which include the 5% sales tax that must be remitted to the state by the fifteenth day of the following month. $ 798,0003. On December 10, the store purchased for cash three delivery trucks. The trucks were purchased in a state that applies a 5% sales tax. $ 120,0004. The store sold 25 gift cards for $100 per card. At year-end, 20 of the giftcards are redeemed. Schultz expects three of the cards to expire unused.Number of gift cards sold 25Value of each gift card $ 100Number of cards unredeemed at year-end 20Number of cards expected to expire unused 3InstructionsPrepare all the journal entries necessary to record the transactions noted above as they occurred and any adjusting entries relative to the transactions that would be required to present fair financial statements at December 31. Date each entry. For simplicity, assume that adjusting entries are recorded only once a year on December 31.NOTE: Enter a formula, a cell reference, or a value (if you are unable to reference a cell), into the yellow shaded input cells. Debit Credit1. Dec.52. Dec. 1 - 313. Dec. 104. Dec. 31Dec. 31 The number of representatives and senators are determined by population.a. True b. False Donnie, Karim, and Shawn run on the cross-country team. At yesterdays practice, Donnie ran 200% as far as Karim. The ratio of the distance that Karim ran to the distance that Shawn ran is 4 : 3. If you add the distance that all three boys ran, you get a sum of 45 miles. How far did each boy run individually? this is ratio problem The speaker's primary purpose in the passage is toA) describe a series of unprecedented eventsB) characterize an idyllic eraC) portray an unusual characterD) depict an inequitable situationE) comment on a popular assumption