a 42-year-old man with a past medical history of hypertension presents with intermittent fever of 6 weeks duration. he has an associated cough, dyspnea, anorexia, arthralgias, abdominal pain, diarrhea, a widespread rash throughout his body, and back pain. he has come to see you because he has experienced acute left upper and lower extremity weakness and painless hematuria since this morning. he denies chills, a history of travel, sick or confined contacts, exposure to animals, bites, stings, cigarette smoking, otalgia, sore throat, swollen glands, drug use, dysuria, preceding gi or gu infections, previous surgeries, or sexual contact in the past year. his physical exam is remarkable for fever, a generalized petechial rash and petechiae of the mucous membranes, dark red linear lesions of the nailbeds, tender subcutaneous nodules of the digital pads, and nontender maculae on the palms and soles. his heart is notable for a new harsh, medium pitched pansystolic murmur at the apex with radiation to axilla, reduced strengths to the left upper and lower extremities, and splenomegaly. question: what is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer 1

Failing the heart probably the right diagnosis. the apex, showing splenomegaly, diminished strength in the left upper and lower extremities, and radiation to the axilla.

What is covered under Medi-Cal?

Many medically required services are covered by Medi-Cal. Included in this are visits to the dentist and doctor, prescription medications, eye exams, family planning, mental health services, and alcohol and drug rehabilitation. The cost of getting to these treatments is covered by Medi-Cal as well.

Do you always get free Medi-Cal?

No premium, no co-payment, and no out-of-pocket expenses are required for many people who sign up for Medi-Cal. Budget-friendly prices, including a low monthly premium, will be seen by certain households. A family's monthly cost for Medi-Cal coverage for some children is $39, with a per-child cap of $13.

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16. the nurse has just received a unit of packed red blood cells from the blood bank for transfusion to an assigned patient. the nurse is careful to select tubing especially made for blood products, knowing that this tubing is manufactured with which item?

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Standard blood transfusion tubing sets can be used. These will include an in-line microaggregate filter

What is blood transfusion ?

A blood transfusion is a common medical procedure in which you receive donated blood through a tiny tube inserted into a vein in your arm. This potentially life-saving procedure can assist in replacing blood that has been lost as a result of surgery or an injury.

It typically takes 2 to 3 hours to administer a unit (bag) of red blood cells. If necessary, a unit can be administered more quickly, for instance to treat severe bleeding. A unit of plasma or platelets is administered every 30 to 60 minutes.

When administering a blood transfusion, medical professionals insert a thin needle into a vein, typically in the arm or hand, through which blood flows from a bag through a rubber tube and into the patient's vein.

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the nurse is caring for a client with hepatitis and jaundice. the nurse recognizes that without sufficient circulating bile salts the client will have intolerance to which ingested substance?

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The client will have intolerance to fats.

What causes hepatitis?

Hepatitis A is caused dues to hepatitis A virus (HAV). A person gets infected by hepatitis A virus when they consume contaminated food or drinks or they come in contact with a person who is infected with the disease. Mild cases don’t often require treatment.

Symptoms of hepatitis A include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tiredness/ weakness, intense itching, yellow eyes or skin, fever, loss of appetite.

These symptoms can be mild, however, and go away within a few weeks. Sometimes, it gets very intense and last for months.

Therefore, the client will have intolerance to fats.

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a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) is diagnosed with the early stage of cutaneous kaposi's sarcoma. based on this diagnosis, the nurse would expect which assessment finding?

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Punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions is assessment finding.

Which clinical symptoms in the client with AIDS would the nurse link to the onset of histoplasmosis?

Fever, exhaustion, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly are frequent clinical signs of progressing disseminated histoplasmosis in HIV-positive patients. In about 50% of patients, coughing, chest pain, and dyspnea occur.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a persistent, potentially fatal illness that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) (HIV). HIV impairs your body's capacity to fight disease and infection by compromising your immune system.

HIV can cause pneumonia from the common cold, and a minor gastrointestinal infection can cause severe diarrhoea. HIV is referred to as a syndrome rather than a disease because a person with HIV won't have any particular symptoms, but rather a series of infections.

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a client diagnosed with bladder cancer wants to avoid surgery. for which intravesical treatment will the nurse prepare teaching for this client?

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To treat some disorders of the urinary tract, surgical instruments can be passed through the cystoscope. Methods and examinations used to diagnose bladder

Which of the following procedures does not rule out bladder cancer?

Because hematuria might indicate a number of illnesses other than cancer, such as an infection or kidney stones, general urine tests are not utilized to make a definitive diagnosis of bladder cancer.

Which of the following describes the typical initial sign of bladder cancer?

Blood in the urine, commonly known as hematuria, is the majority of people's first indication that they have bladder cancer. When the blood is visible, the patient is sometimes prompted to see a doctor.

The bladder wall, which is made up of four separate tissues, is where bladder cancer first invades when it progresses.

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a. endurance training develops the energy production systems. b. endurance training includes aerobic and anaerobic endurance. c. endurance training includes strength conditioning. d. endurance training develops hand-eye coordination.

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The incorrect statement is:

(D) Endurance training develops hand-eye coordination.

What is endurance training?

Exercises designed to increase endurance are referred to as endurance training. Exercise of the aerobic rather than the anaerobic system is frequently referred to as endurance training. The need for cardiovascular and basic muscular endurance is typically the basis for the desire for endurance in sports.

Because endurance training includes working the aerobic system, the claim that it enhances hand-eye coordination is untrue. Exercises for endurance help people maintain their health and fitness while improving their respiratory and circulatory systems.

The American Heart Association also stresses the value of consistent endurance training, as well as strength, balance, and flexibility, to reduce the risk of a number of diseases like diabetes, heart disease, and stroke.

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Three days after delivering her baby a 30 year old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect?
Pulmonary embolism

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The answer is Pulmonary Embolism.

A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that blocks and stops blood flow to an artery in the lung. In most cases, the blood clot starts in a deep vein in the leg and travels to the lung. Rarely, the clot forms in a vein in another part of the body. When a blood clot forms in one or more of the deep veins in the body, it's called a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Because one or more clots block blood flow to the lungs, pulmonary embolism can be life-threatening. However, prompt treatment greatly reduces the risk of death. Taking measures to prevent blood clots in your legs will help protect you against pulmonary embolism.

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The nurse is conducting a neuromuscular assessment on a toddler. What assessment technique(s) is important for the nurse to include in this assessment? select all that apply

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Four methods—inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation—are used in physical assessment.

What methods is the nurse able to utilize to gather information on patient assessment?

Observing, interviewing, and examining are the main techniques used to get data. When a nurse interacts with a client or their support system, observation takes place. When taking the nursing health history, interviews are primarily used. In order to determine physical health, the main technique is examination.

How would you define evaluation techniques?

The term "classroom assessment techniques," or "CATs," refers to a set of techniques that teachers employ to determine how well their pupils are understanding important concepts throughout a lesson or a course. The strategies are intended to function as a kind of formative evaluation that also enables teachers to modify a session based on the requirements of their pupils.

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a client who had a roux-en-y bypass procedure for morbid obesity ate a chocolate chip cookie after a meal. after ingestion of the cookie, the client reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation. after having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved. what should the nurse educate the client about regarding this event? bile reflux

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Client who had a roux-en-y bypass procedure for morbid obesity reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation and after having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved so nurse should educate the client about bile reflux.

Roux-en-y bypass procedure is often done as a laparoscopic surgery, with little incisions within the abdomen. This surgery reduces the scale of your higher abdomen to a little pouch concerning the scale of associate degree egg. The physician will this by stapling off the higher section of the abdomen. This reduces the number of food you'll be able to eat.

Bile reflux happens once digestive fluid — a organic process liquid created in your liver — backs up (refluxes) into your abdomen and, in some cases, into the tube that connects your mouth and abdomen (esophagus).

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a number of patients have been admitted to a particular hospital with similar symptoms and the cause of the illness is unknown. which type of study design would be most helpful in determining the cause of the illness?

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The best method for identifying the illness's etiology is a case-series research design.

How would they characterize themselves?

"Patient" is an English translation of the Latin word "patiens," which meaning to endure or suffer. Through the use of this statement, the patient is portrayed as being immensely submissive, experiencing the necessary discomfort, and accepting the interventions of the outside expert.

Patients can be nouns or verbs.

We have the chance to acquire patience since it requires us to learn to wait calmly despite irritation or discomfort, which is almost always present. However, patience may be the key to a happy existence.

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Silicone implant augmentation rhinoplasty is used to correct congenital nose deformities. The success of the procedure depends on various biomechanical properties of the human nasal periosteum and fascia. An article reported that for a sample of 20 (newly deceased) adults, the mean failure strain (%) was 24.0, and the standard deviation was 3.3.(a) Assuming a normal distribution for failure strain, estimate true average strain in a way that conveys information about precision and reliability. (Use a 95% confidence interval. Round your answers to two decimal places.)( , )(b) Predict the strain for a single adult in a way that conveys information about precision and reliability. (Use a 95% prediction interval. Round your answers to two decimal places.)( , )(c)How does the prediction compare to the estimate calculated in part (a)? (Select the answer from 1~3)1.The prediction interval is much wider than the confidence interval in part (a).2.The prediction interval is the same as the confidence interval in part (a).3.The prediction interval is much narrower than the confidence interval in part (a).

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The solution to this question is given below:

From the information given:

n=15

x bar=25.0

s=3.5

(a) I'll suppose that calculating a 95% confidence interval is necessary; other confidence intervals can be calculated in a similar way.

c=0.95 or 95%

In the table with the critical values for tt distributions in the appendix, locate the row beginning with degrees of freedom.

The maximum number of logically independent values—that is, values with the freedom to change—in the data sample is referred to as the degree of freedom.

df=n-1

=15-1

=14

and the column with alpha=(1-c)/2=0.025 =(1c)/2 =0.025 to find the t-value:

t α/2 =2.145

Therefore, the error margin is:

E=t α/2 × s/√n​

=2.145× 3.5/√15​

≈1.9384

The confidence interval's outer limits are thus:

xbar-E=25.0-1.9384 =23.0616

xbar+E=25.0+1.9384 = 26.9384

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ems arrives with the intoxicated driver of a car involved in a motor vehicle crash. ems reports significant damage to the driver's side of the car. the patient is asking to have the cervical collar removed. when is it appropriate to remove the cervical collar?

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After a negative high quality cervical spine (C-spine)  It is appropriate to remove the cervical collar

What is C-spine?

The cervical spine (neck area) is made up of seven bones (C1-C7) that are joined together by intervertebral discs. These discs provide the spine with mobility and serve as shock absorbers while people are moving about.

Removal of the cervical collar should follow a poor, high-quality cervical spine examination (C-spine). outcomes of a negative high-quality cervical spine obtained by computed tomography (CT) alone or later. CT findings paired with neighbouring imaging to prevent pre-clearance events including new neurological alteration and unstable c-spine damage.

Following a negative high quality cervical spine in trauma patients, doctors advised cervical collar removal.

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a client with diabetes mellitus calls the clinic and reports being nauseated during the night. the client asks the nurse if the morning insulin would be administered. which is the most appropriate nursing response?

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A client with diabetes mellitus calls the clinic and reports being nauseated during the night. The client asks the nurse if the morning insulin would be administered. The most appropriate nursing responses are-

Hypoglycemia may be experienced before dinnertime.

The insulin should be administered at room temperature.

What is insulin?

Insulin, a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets, is encoded by the INS gene in humans. It is thought to be the main anabolic hormone in the body. It encourages the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into the cells of the liver, fat, and skeletal muscle, which regulates how proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates are metabolized. Through the processes of glycogenesis and lipogenesis, the ingested glucose is converted in these tissues into either glycogen or lipids, or, in the case of the liver, both. The liver's capacity to generate and secrete glucose is severely constrained by high blood insulin levels. The movement of insulin also has an effect on how many different organs produce proteins.

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vancouver bio-tech company was hired by the us military to develop a cure for ebola. they successfully developed a vaccine to treat the symptoms of the virus and lowered the mortality rate for infected patients. discuss the implications of this on a global scale.

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They were effective in creating a vaccine to combat the virus' symptoms and reduced its mortality rate for those who had been exposed.

What do you mean by symptoms?

Any physical or mental issue that a person has that could be a sign of an illness or condition. Signs were invisible and do not appear on diagnostics. Nausea, fatigue, nausea, and soreness are a few symptoms.

What are symptoms vs signs?

Only one person who can accurately detect a symptom is the one who is experiencing it. Signs are quantifiable, measurable, and objective results. Developing a diagnosis requires consideration of both an underlying health condition's indications and symptoms.

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the nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated-blow breathing. the client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. what action should the nurse take?

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Inhale into her cupped hands as the customer does so. Dizziness and tingling in the fingers are symptoms of hyperventilation (blowing off too much carbon dioxide). Retaining carbon dioxide is used to treat hyperventilation. Breathing into cupped hands or a paper bag can help with this c

What is hyperventilation ?

Hyperventilation is rapid or deep breathing, usually caused by anxiety or panic. This overbreathing, as it is sometimes called, may actually leave you feeling breathless. When you breathe, you inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide.

What triggers hyperventilation?

Low levels of carbon dioxide are produced by excessive breathing in the blood. Many hyperventilation symptoms are brought on by this. You might experience emotional hyperventilation, such as during a panic attack. Or, it might be brought on by a health issue like bleeding or an infection.

Can you get brain damage from hyperventilating?

Hyperventilation lengthens seizures and raises neuronal excitability, both of which harm brain metabolism. Additionally, cerebral fluid alkalinization, pH elevation, and decreased oxygen delivery are also effects of hyperventilation.

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A client has been diagnosed with cancer that was a result of dysfunctional apoptosis. The health care provider explains the process to the multidisciplinary client care team. Select the best explanation.
It allows for DNA-damaged cells to survive.
Explanation: Apoptosis is considered a normal cellular response to DNA damage; loss of normal apoptotic pathways may contribute to cancer by enabling DNA-damaged cells to survive.

Answers

It allows for DNA-damaged cells to survive.

How does cancer affect apoptosis?

Loss of apoptosis control prolongs cancer cell survival and allows for the accumulation of mutations that can promote angiogenesis, promote cell proliferation, disrupt differentiation, and increase invasiveness throughout tumor progression.

How do cancer cells overcome apoptosis?

The tumor cells may employ one of several molecular strategies, such as the production of antiapoptotic proteins like Bcl-2 or the downregulation or mutation of proapoptotic proteins like BAX, to suppress apoptosis and develop resistance to apoptotic agents.

What events occur during apoptosis?

Blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, and DNA fragmentation are all signs that a cell is going through apoptosis. Unlike necrosis, which results in the release of cellular contents, apoptotic cells generate apoptotic bodies that are phagocytized by nearby cells.

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a client receives a diagnosis of lower urinary tract obstruction. what intervention should the nurse choose to be the immediate treatment for this problem? correcting the problem causing the obstruction bladder training pain medication relief of bladder distention

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A client receives a diagnosis of lower urinary tract obstruction and the nurse should prevent bladder distention by frequent voiding to empty the bladder.

A lower urinary tract obstruction (LUTO) could be a rare craniate condition that happens once there's a blockage within the urinary tract of a developing foetus. The tract: The urinary tract consists of the organs that manufacture and store urine: 2 kidneys.

Bladder distention is that the stretching of the bladder with water. If you have got long improvement, the procedure is also perennial. neurolysin A (Botox) is also injected into the bladder wall throughout bladder distention. Bladder pressure feels a lot of like constant ache instead of a shortening.

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a client develops peritonitis and sepsis after the surgical repair of a ruptured diverticulum. which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect when assessing the client?

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Tachycardia and tachypnea can be expected while assessing the patient.

Diverticula are small, bulging pouches that can form in the lining of your digestive system. They are found most often in the lower part of the large intestine (colon). Diverticula are common, especially after age 40, and seldom cause problems.

The presence of diverticula is known as diverticulosis. When one or more of the pouches become inflamed, and in some cases infected, that condition is known as diverticulitis. Diverticulitis can cause severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea and a marked change in your bowel habits.

Mild diverticulitis can be treated with rest, changes in your diet and antibiotics. Severe or recurring diverticulitis may require surgery.

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eugene, an alcohol abuser, is given the drug naltrexone. which of the following is eugene most likely to experience after taking this medication?

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Eugene is most likely to have one of the following urges to drink less after taking this medicine.

By medicine, what do you mean?

Drugs are substances that are employed in the treatment, halting, or prevention of disease, the symptomatic relief of disorders, or to help in their diagnosis. The advancements in medicine have made it possible for doctors to treat a wide range of illnesses and save lives. Today, there are many different sources for medicines.

Is a medicine a drug?

In pharmacology, a drug is just a chemical molecule with a typically well-known structure that, when given to a living thing, causes a biological reaction. A pharmaceutical drug, often known as a medication or medication, is a chemical that is used to treat, prevent, diagnose, or treat a disease. It can also be used to improve wellbeing.

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which of the following are signs of alcohol poisoning? group of answer choices a. breathing rate is slow or irregular b. skin is cold and clammy c. vomiting and then loss of consciousness d. all of the above

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Alcohol poisoning includes Confusion, Vomiting, Seizures, Slow breathing, Pale skin, Passing out/Unconsciousness

d. all of the above.

What is alcohol poisoning?

A change in behavior or mental function caused by alcohol usage.

An individual's judgment may be affected by alcohol intoxication.

Speech slurring, clumsiness, changes in mood and behavior, and incoordination are all signs of intoxication. Comas can occur occasionally.

Rest, hydration, and quitting drinking are methods for treating alcohol intoxication. Hospitalization, intravenous fluids, observation, and supportive treatment are necessary for severe instances. Alcohol poisoning is a serious, and occasionally fatal, a side effect of consuming a lot of alcohol quickly. Drinking excessive amounts too soon might cause problems with your respiration, heart rate, body temperature, and gag reflex, which could put you in a coma and cause your death.

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provide a quiet, low-stimulus environment. administer aspirin as prescribed for any sign of hyperthermia. keep the client npo. observe the client carefully for signs of hypocalcemia.

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The measures that the nurse should include in the client's plan of care to prevent a thyroid crisis are to "provide a quiet, low-stimulus environment". The correct answer is A.

This question only provides answer choices with no conditions to analyze. Here is the complete question:

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. The client reports a weight loss of 12 pounds in the past two months, despite an increased appetite. The additional symptoms include increased perceptions, menstrual irregularities, and restlessness. Which of the following measures should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to prevent a thyroid crisis?

As mentioned above, the actions the nurse should take to prevent a thyroid crisis are to "provide a quiet, low-stimulus environment". Although stress does not cause hyperthyroidism, the two are not unrelated. Physical or emotional stress can worsen hyperthyroidism symptoms in people who already have them. Hence, providing a quiet, low-stimulus environment is an important measure that the nurse must include to avoid a thyroid crisis.

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the nurse is caring for a woman with a previously diagnosed heart disease who is in the second stage of labor. which assessment findings are of greatest concern?

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Pregnancy is a common goal for many women with complicated congenital heart disease. The fetus's pelvic descent during the second stage of labor is the most concerning discovery.

Which position might a patient who has experienced congenital heart disease during labor assume?

The left lateral recumbent position is the best one for a laboring lady with compromised heart function. Compared to the supine position, when the pulse pressure rises by 26%, this position causes an increase in the pulse pressure of only 6%.

What posture causes the obstetrical patient with heart illness to have an increase in cardiac output?

Between contractions, shifting from the supine to the lateral recumbent posture (basal circumstances) causes a 22% rise in maternal cardiac output and a 6% decrease in heart rate.

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a client's low serum t4 level has led to a diagnosis of hypothyroidism. when planning this client's care, the nurse should:

Answers

Answer:

teach the client about the safe and effective use of synthetic thyroid hormones.

Explanation:

a client with crohn's disease is experiencing acute pain, and the nurse provides information about measures to alleviate the pain. which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Answers

The correct option are (4.) "The best position for me is to lie supine with my legs straight.

It is not advisable to sleep with your legs extended since it may raise muscular tension in your abdomen. when the abdominal muscles are stretched, inflamed intestinal tissue is stretchedCrohn's disease is also known as IBD (Inflammatory Bowel Disease).In general, Crohn's disease causes inflammation of the digestive tract, which can result in severe diarrhea, stomach discomfort, and malnutrition in the human body.

Pain associated with Crohn's disease is alleviated by the use of analgesics and antispasmodics and also by practicing relaxation techniques, applying local cold or heat to the abdomen, massaging the abdomen, and lying with the legs flexed. Lying with the legs extended is not useful because it increases the muscle tension in the abdomen, which could aggravate inflamed intestinal tissues as the abdominal muscles are stretched.

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Full question: A client with Crohn's disease is experiencing acute pain, and the nurse provides information about measures to alleviate the pain. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

1. "I know I can massage my abdomen."

2. "I will continue using antispasmodic medication."

3. "One of the best things I can do is use relaxation techniques."

4. "The best position for me is to lie supine with my legs straight.

the nurse teaches the mother of a child newly diagnosed with insulin dependent diabetes about the principles of a healthy eating plan. which statement by the mother indicates effective teaching?

Answers

During periods when your insulin level peaks, snacks are used to maintain acceptable blood glucose levels.

What is the function of insulin?

The body's cells can utilise blood sugar as energy with the aid of insulin. Furthermore, insulin instructs the liver to store blood sugar for later use. As blood sugar levels drop in the bloodstream as a result of entry into cells, insulin production is also signaled to decline.

Do high blood sugar levels require insulin?

By assisting in the transfer of glucose from the bloodstream to the cells, insulin aids you when you take it. Your body's fat, muscles, and liver serve as storage spaces for any excess sugar after your cells use some of it for energy. Once the sugar enters your cells, your blood glucose level ought to return to normal.

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a client with leukemia undergoes a bone marrow biopsy. the client's laboratory values indicate the client has thrombocytopenia. based on this data, which nursing assessment is most important following the procedure?

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A client with leukemia whose laboratory values indicate thrombocytopenia. The most important nursing assessments follow the procedure, namely administering medication and performing blood transfusions.

What is thrombocytopenia?

Thrombocytopenia is the medical term used to describe a decrease in the number of blood platelets below a minimum threshold. The normal number of platelets ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter.

While leukemia is a health condition when the body produces too many abnormal white blood cells or also called leukocytes. White blood cells or leukocytes play a role in protecting the body from bacteria, viruses, fungi, and foreign substances. White blood cells are produced in the spinal cord.

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A leukemia patient whose test results show thrombocytopenia. The operation is followed by the two most crucial nursing assessments: giving medicines and doing blood transfusions.

Thrombocytopenia: What is it?

The medical word for a drop in blood platelet levels below a specific threshold is thrombocytopenia. Per microliter, there are typically between 150,000 and 450,000 platelets.

While leukemia is a disease that develops when the body makes an excessive amount of abnormal white blood cells, also known as leukocytes. Leukocytes, often known as white blood cells, are important in defending the body against pathogens such bacteria, viruses, fungus, and foreign objects. The spinal cord produces white blood cells.

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a patient is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain. an electrocardiogram shows changes consistent with an evolving myocardial infarction. the patient's cardiac enzymes are pending. the nurse caring for this patient will expect to:

Answers

The nurse caring for this patient will expect to give alteplase [Activase] within 2 hours. Tenecteplase may be administered after the first couple of hours of symptoms. Getting a request for an INR is not advised.

The fatality rate for MI has been reported to be 5.4% when alteplase is administered within 2 hours of the beginning of symptoms, as opposed to 9.4% when it is administered 4 to 6 hours after the onset of symptoms. It is not required to wait for the results of the cardiac enzyme tests before administering ASA at the first symptom of MI.

Heparin and aspirin may also be used with alteplase to treat myocardial infarction. Providers can choose from the following dose plans when using them for this indication: IV bolus accompanied by a 90-minute infusion or a 180-minute infusion.

Patients who weigh more than 67 kg should get a 15 mg IV bolus, followed by a 90 minute infusion of 50 mg over 30 minutes, and then a 60 minute infusion of 35 mg. Patients who weigh less than or equal to 67 kg should get a 15 mg bolus, then a weight-based 0.75 mg/kg infusion over 30 minutes to Patients, and then a 0.5 mg/kg infusion over 60 minutes. No more than 100 mg should be given in total.

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the nurse is assessing a client suspected of having developed acute glomerulonephritis. the nurse should expect to address what clinical manifestation that is characteristic of this health problem?

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The nurse is assessing a client suspected of having developed acute glomerulonephritis. the nurse should expect to address what clinical manifestation that is characteristic of Hematuria.

Hematuria results in the presence of blood in the urine. Microscopic hematuria is the medical term for when there is blood in the urine but the patient cannot see it and the doctor can see it under a microscope. Gross hematuria is the medical term for pee that clearly contains blood.

Hematuria, a condition where blood cells end up in the urine, can occur in the kidneys or other parts of the urinary system. This leaking could be caused by a variety of illnesses, such as urinary tract infections. These take place when bacteria that have already entered your body through the urethra multiply in your bladder.

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twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. what action will the nurse take?

Answers

In order to deflect the uterus, the nurse should immediately turn the client to a lateral position or place a pillow or wedge under one hip.

What steps ought to be taken by the nurse to stop conductive heat loss in a newborn?

A newborn who is placed on an unwarmed surface right after birth will cause that surface to gain heat. A pre-warmed blanket should always be placed between the infant and the surface of a scale or resuscitation bed to prevent conductive heat loss.

If the fetal head is visible or you feel the urge to push, the baby is at the +2 station, the fetal head is facing the occiput anterior, and you should begin pushing. Encourage all women to push after the first two hours of waiting. Before determining whether an assisted birth is necessary, allow 2 hours of continuous active pushing.

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the nurse is gathering objective data for a client at the clinic reporting arthritic pain in the hands. the nurse observes that the fingers are hyperextended at the proximal interphalangeal joint with fixed flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint. what does the nurse recognize this deformity as?

Answers

The nurse recognize this deformity as Swan neck deformity

What is Swan neck deformity ?

When a person has a swan-neck deformity, the finger's base joint flexes, the middle joint extends, and the outermost joint flexes. In the boutonnière deformity, the outermost finger joint is bent outward and the middle finger joint is bent inward (towards the palm).

Normal causes of a swan neck deformity include ligament weakness or tearing on the palm side of the finger's middle joint. The tendon that flexes the middle joint can sometimes tear, which is the reason why it happens. In some instances, damage to the tendon that straightens the end joint is the root of the problem.

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the nurse is teaching a group of school-age children about diet and nutrition. what recommendations should the nurse make about the usda dietary guidelines? select all that apply.

Answers

After each meal, wash your hands. Eat an equal amount of dairy, grains, fruits, and veggies. Prevent high-calorie snacks. Consume six meals per day. Don't overeat; just eat till you are satisfied.

What are the top three recommendations from the USDA for a healthy diet?

Don't forget to exercise every day. Let the food pyramid be your guide. s Make sure to include whole grains in your regular diet. Select a range of fruits and vegetables every day.

How can you make sure that kids in school age are eating well?

Achieving optimal nutrition entails eating three meals per day as well as two healthy snacks made up of a variety of fruits, vegetables, lean meats, and low-fat dairy foods. Energy for growth, exercise, and protein-rich diets comes from carbohydrates and lipids.

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