you are playing soccer when a player breaks his fall with an outstretched hand. she is holding it against his body and is clearly in pain. what should you do initially to care for this injury?

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Answer 1

Ice or an ice pack wrapped in a thin towel can be used as cold therapy to relieve pain and swelling from an acute injury. A vaso-constrictor, ice. It reduces inflammation at the location of the injury and makes the blood vessels to constrict.

First Aid for Acute Sports Injuries

By age, different acute sports-related injuries are more common. Younger athletes, for instance, are more susceptible to fractures and dislocations. Younger athletes are also more likely to experience concussions, particularly those who engage in contact sports like football, rugby, ice hockey, and wrestling (for men), as well as soccer and basketball (for females).

Stopping the exercise and avoiding further injury or damage are the main objectives of sports injury first aid. Additionally, you might have to control some symptoms up until help arrives. Acute injury symptoms frequently include:

a bone or joint that is clearly misaligned

slashes and scrapes

extremity of arm or leg weakness

Having trouble moving a joint or having weak joints

an ankle, foot, knee, or leg that cannot support weight

Acute discomfort and edema.

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a nurse comes to the employee health center for evaluation and is diagnosed with allergic contact dermatitis related to latex. what manifestation would the nurse most likely exhibit?

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The manifestation that the nurse would most likely exhibit for evaluation and diagnosis of a client with allergic contact dermatitis related to latex is Blistering (Option b).

What is Blistering medical condition?

Blistering medical condition is an uncommon problem associated with complications in the skin, which also may occur in the internal parts of organs in the human body, which is generally treated with dry sterile dressing.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that Blistering medical condition is a non frequent complication associated with health problems in the skin and internal organs.

Complete question:

A nurse comes to the employee health center for evaluation and is diagnosed with allergic contact dermatitis related to latex. What manifestation would the nurse most likely exhibit?

Angioedema

Blistering

Rhinitis

Laryngeal edema

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a 7-year-old child must remain quietly in bed while undergoing peritoneal dialysis. which activity is most appropriate for the nurse to plan for this child?

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The most appropriate activity for the nurse to plan is : Working multiple-piece puzzles with another child.

What is peritoneal dialysis?

When your kidneys are no longer able to adequately complete the job, peritoneal dialysis is a treatment option.

Compared to hemodialysis, which is a more popular blood-filtering method, this process filters the blood in a different way.

Dialysate (dialysis fluid) is steadily injected through the catheter into the abdominal cavity, also known as the peritoneal cavity, during the course of the procedure.

Blood remains in the peritoneal cavity's arteries and veins (blood vessels).

The dialysate is filled with extra fluid and waste items that are taken from the blood.

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cpco which screening exam does not require an order, in any setting, but frequently is still requested by the radiology center? a. mammogram b. mri c. lab work d. ct scan

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In any situation, a cpco screening exam is not required; yet, the radiology center ct scan commonly requests one nonetheless.

How lengthy is an abdominal CT scan?

It will take the test between 30 and 60 minutes getting ready for the scan takes up much of this time.

What organs can be detected on an abdomen-contrast CT scan?

The liver, spleen, kidneys, bladder, stomach, intestines, pancreas, adrenal glands, blood vessels, and lymph nodes are all photographed during an abdominal CT scan using a specialized X-ray scanner.

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the nurse is assessing a 3-day old infant with a cephalohematoma in the newborn nursery. which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Answers

Skin with a yellowish tint.

What is the cephalohematoma treatment?

Cephalohematoma typically resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention, so your newborn won't typically require any therapy. After a few weeks or months, the bulge disappears. A doctor might try to drain it occasionally, though it's not usually necessary.

What is a baby who has a cephalohematoma at danger for?

Cephalohematomas do raise a baby's risk of anemia, infections, and jaundice. Rarely, a newborn may also have a skull fracture that will naturally mend. If your infant is overly fussy, exhibiting symptoms of jaundice, or refusing to eat or sleep, you should get in touch with your child's healthcare provider.

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a client has experienced a stroke affecting the reticular formation of the medulla and lower pons. the nurse tells the client's wife that care must be taken with eating to prevent:

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The nurse warns the client's wife that aspiration pneumonia must be avoided when eating.

Please check all that apply. Which of the following would be regarded the role of the gastrointestinal tract's secretory glands?

The mucosal layer of the GI tract wall is lubricated and protected by mucus, which is produced by the secretory glands. True statement: The mucosal layer of the GI tract wall is lubricated and protected by mucus, which is produced by the secretory glands.

The lower GI tract contains which anatomical structures?

The anus and the large intestine make up the lower GI tract. Stool exits your body through a 1-inch orifice at the end of your digestive system called the anus.

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the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (egd). what action would the nurse take to prepare the client for this procedure?

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As per protocol, make sure the client fasts between six and twelve hours before the exam. this action would the nurse take to prepare the client for this procedure.

What steps should a nurse take in order to appropriately collect a feces sample?

Put on clean gloves, gather a feces sample, and immediately place it inside a leak-proof container with a tight-fitting lid. If the patient is bedridden, gather the sample in a dry, clean bedpan.

Which nursing practice has the biggest influence on reducing risk when taking a stool sample?

The use of disposable gloves has the biggest impact because they act as a barrier against direct skin contamination by the stool itself. While all precautions help prevent contact with the stool and thereby help minimize the risk for injury to the staff, they have the biggest impact in preventing contact with the stool itself.

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How can a woman who is planning to get pregnant prevent lifelong intellectual disabilities and other tragedies associated with fetal alcohol syndrome in her child?.

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Answer: She can abstain/stop from drinking alcohol.

Explanation:

a client reports mild tenderness and swelling near the ankle while running. which nursing instruction would help the client prevent future injury?

Answers

Warm up your muscles before engaging in an activity is the nursing instruction would help the client prevent future injury.

What is the ideal pressure injury intervention?

The body should be moved around and repositioned frequently to prevent persistent pressure on the body's bony structures. When turned in bed, pressure is relieved on bony parts of the body by using pillows and foam wedges. maintaining a healthy diet to prevent undernourishment and to speed up the healing of wounds.

Edema is a term used to describe an abnormal fluid buildup in the body. Edema frequently affects the feet and ankles; as a result of gravity, swelling is more obvious in these areas. Edema is frequently brought on by prolonged standing or sitting, pregnancy, being overweight, and aging.

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the nurse administers a bolus tube feeding to a client with cancer. to decrease the risk of aspiration, what should the nurse do?

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To lessen the chance of aspiration, the nurse should always elevate the head of the bed by 30 degrees.

What can the nurse do to lessen the chance that an enteral nutrition patient will aspirate?

To lessen the risk of aspiration, the head of the bed should be elevated 30-45 degrees during feeding and for at least 30 minutes following the feed if the patient is unable to sit up for a bolus feed or is receiving continuous feeding.

What does bolus feeding accomplish?

Without using a feeding pump, bolus feeding allows you to administer a predetermined amount of food as needed. This is administered using an enteral feeding syringe over a period of time as recommended by your healthcare provider.

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the nutrition label for a can of soup states that each serving contains 2.3 g of fat, 7.8 g of carbohydrates, and 3.1 g of protein. how many calories are in each serving of the soup?

Answers

Calories from food sources (Cals are the same as kcals) In a Cal or kc, there are 64.3 calories.

How do you determine the number of calories in fat, carbohydrates, and protein?

65 grams of protein times 4 calories per gram results in 260 calories from protein in total.

400 calories per gram divided by 2=200 grams of carbohydrates results in 800 total calories from carbohydrates.

9 calories per gram divided by 60 grams of fat results in 540 calories from fat overall.

Add the Cal/g of each macro to the total grams of each:

Corn:  (3.1 g Protein)(4 Cal/g P) + (2.3g fat)(9Cal/gF) + (7.8g Carbs)(4Cal/gC)=  64.3 Cal.

Nutritional calories (Cals are the same as kcals)  There are 64.3 cal in a Cal or kc.

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which condition causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (

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A patient who has diabetes mellitus and a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops hypoventilation.

Which condition results in hypoxia because the chest wall moves less slowly?

Additionally, profound drowsiness can decrease respiratory drive, which can lead to hypoventilation, and ankylosing spondylitis or obese hypoventilation syndrome can restrict chest wall motion.

. In the presence of pulmonary hyper-inflation and consequent reduced diaphragmatic efficiency, this can lead to pronounced hypoventilation.

What causes hypoventilation most frequently?

Hypoventilation is a condition of diminished or insufficient ventilation. Hypoventilation can be brought on by a variety of reasons. However, abnormalities of the respiratory muscles, neurological diseases, and central nervous system depression are the main causes of hypoventilation.

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a client with a t4 spinal cord injury has a severe throbbing headache and appears flushed and diaphoretic. which priority interventions should the nurse perform? select all that apply.

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Autonomic dysreflexia is a danger for patients with high-level spinal cord injuries (T6 or higher) (autonomic hyperreflexia). It is a sympathetic nervous system activation without compensation.

Which tasks may a patient with a spinal cord injury level 4 undertake on their own?

Routine tasks: possesses the ability to live freely without the use of assistance aids for food, bathing, grooming, oral and face hygiene, dressing, bladder control, and bowel control.

For a patient with a spinal cord injury who is having autonomic symptoms, which action would the nurse undertake first?

Since most spinal cord injured patients have low blood pressure, it is important to take a blood pressure reading right once and begin corrective treatment if the patient's reading is much higher than baseline.

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a patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. his head and chin are thrust forward. this position indicates that he:

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A patient is seated in a chair and leans forward with his arms extended. He leans forward with his chin and head. He appears to be in this position because of abdominal muscular contractions.

Which of the following irregular breath sounds is indicative of upper airway obstruction?

Stridor, a high-pitched, turbulent sound that can be made when a youngster inhales or exhales, is less melodic than a wheeze. Stridor typically denotes a blockage or narrowing of the upper airway, which is external to the chest cavity.

What is a sign of a patent airway in your patient?

The presence or absence of obstructive symptoms (stridor, secretions, snoring, etc.) or signs of a potentially blocked airway (singed nasal/facial hair, carbonaceous sputum, stab to the neck with risk of expanding hematoma) are used to determine the patency of a patient.

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which concept is most important for a nurse to communicate to a client preparing to sign an informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy (ect)?

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Another crucial step in the procedure is informed consent. Before receiving ECT therapy, a patient must sign a written form of informed permission.

What is the purpose of electroconvulsive therapy?

ECT is used to treat severe depression, especially when it's accompanied by psychosis, a desire to harm oneself, or an inability to eat. Depression that is treatment-resistant is extreme depression that doesn't get better with drugs or other therapies.

Exists today's electroconvulsive therapy?

ECT is frequently still an option for people who are unable to take drugs for mental health issues for whatever reason. This can significantly alter a person's quality of life if they have issues with organ function or are pregnant. When used in conjunction with medication, it is particularly effective.

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while taking a client history, which assessment findings lead the nurse to suspect the client may have polycystic kidney disease? select all that apply.

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Your blood pressure will be measured by your doctor to see whether it is higher than usual.

They could also perform further tests, such urine examinations to look for blood or protein. blood tests to evaluate how quickly your kidneys are filtering your blood.

What is a contributing factor to polycystic kidney disease?

Polycystic kidney disease is brought on by abnormal genes, which implies that it typically runs in families. Sometimes a gene will change spontaneously, leaving neither parent with a copy of the altered gene.

The most prevalent PKD symptom is high blood pressure. Patients may have headaches linked to high blood pressure, or clinicians may notice high blood pressure when doing normal procedures.

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what actions by a nurse identify an understanding of the nursing responsibility to treat the patient with consideration to the ethical component of beneficence? select all that apply

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One of the cornerstones of nursing ethics is beneficence, which refers to the belief that a nurse's actions should advance good.

One of the cornerstones of nursing ethics is beneficence, which refers to the belief that a nurse's actions should advance good. Doing good is described as consistently putting the needs of the patient first, and this principle underpins all aspects of nursing practice.

Examples of beneficence include the use of vaccines, offering people health advice and counseling, and offering emergency care.

All healthcare professionals, especially nurses, who frequently face ethical challenges resulting from dealing with people's lives, must adhere to the ethical principles of beneficence and others.

These difficulties can overlap with the Code of Ethics.

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a client reporting bone pain has sought care. diagnostic testing reveals that the client has developed osteonecrosis. when addressing the most likely cause of this complication, the nurse should focus on:

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The nurse should concentrate on the type and amount of blood flow to the site when addressing particular most likely cause of this complication.

How does blood flow?

Blood is pumped into the arterial system in the lungs after entering the right atrium from the body and moving into the right ventricle. The blood returns to the heart using the pulmonary veins after taking up oxygen, passing through the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta before leaving the body through the tissues.

What happens during blood circulation?

Blood is pumped into the arterial system in the lungs after entering the aorta from the body and moving into the right ventricle. The blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins, the left atrium, the left ventricle, and the aorta after sucking in oxygen. The aorta then carries the blood to the body's tissues.

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in a client with a dislocation, the nurse should initially perform neurovascular assessments a minimum of every 15 minutes until stable. which complication does the assessments help the nurse to monitor in the client?

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Storage-related disorder, A patient with a dislocation should initially have neurovascular assessments done at least once every 15 minutes until stable to check for compartment syndrome.

Describe compartment syndrome.

Compartment syndrome develops when pressure inside a compartment rises, limiting blood supply to the area and perhaps harming the muscles and adjacent nerves. As long as there is an enclosed space inside the body, it can happen anywhere. It typically happens in the legs, feet, arms, or hands.

How may compartment syndrome be cured?

The best treatment for chronic exertional compartment syndrome is surgery, specifically a procedure known as fasciotomy. It entails slicing apart the rigid tissue that surrounds each compartment of the damaged muscles. Thus, the pressure is reduced.

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which percentage of his or her adult weight does an individual gain during the adolescent years

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Because they gain at least 40% of their adult weight and 15% of their adult height during this time, adolescents require more nutrition than adults do.

What changes do young adolescents go through?

Growth spurts and changes brought on by puberty occur during adolescence. An adolescent may gain several inches in a few months, then experience very slow development for a while before experiencing another growth spurt. Puberty (sexual maturation) changes can occur suddenly or gradually, depending on the individual.

Which factor has the biggest impact on adolescent obesity?

One of the main factors being researched as an obesity cause is genetics. According to some studies, BMI has a 25–40% heritability.

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a client with small cell carcinoma lung cancer may secrete an excess of which hormone, causing an ectopic form of cushing syndrome due to a nonpituitary tumor?

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Because ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone is improperly secreted, small cell lung cancer (SCLC), which arises from neuroendocrine tissue, can lead to paraneoplastic endocrine disorders including Cushing syndrome (ACTH).

Cushing's is caused by small cell lung carcinoma in what way?

In the neuroendocrine cells of your lungs, SCLC begins. These cells behave somewhat similarly to nerve cells. But they are also capable of producing hormones, such as glucocorticoids. You can get Cushing syndrome when a tumour that began in your lungs continuously exposes your body to the hormones it produces.

What triggers ectopic ACTH release?

Usually, a hidden, slowly expanding bronchial carcinoid tumour causes ectopic ACTH output. Conventional imaging techniques, such as computerised tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging, might make it challenging to diagnose these very small tumours (MRI).

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the nursing leaders at a county hospital are aware of the need for rigor during the implementation of an ebqi project that will address emergency department triage. how should the leaders apply rigor to this project?

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The nursing leaders at the county hospital should apply rigor to the eBQI project by "ensuring resources will not be wasted and clients will not be placed at risk". The correct answer is D.

Triage includes deciding in which someone should go and allocating resources. This would provide rigor while still ensuring fairness.

What exactly is triage in the emergency room?

In the medical community, triage is used to classify patients depending on the severity of their illnesses and, by extension, the order in which numerous patients need care and monitoring. Emergency triage began in the military for use by field doctors.

This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:

A. By ensuring that instruments for measuring effectiveness have face and content validityB. By justifying their choice of methodology in terms of the clinical question and the characteristics of the siteC. By seeking ethical approval and client consent prior to beginning the projectD. By ensuring resources will not be wasted and clients will not be placed at risk

The correct answer is D.

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what to do with a patient who just delivered 2 hours ago and has a history of thromboembolic disease.

Answers

Working with your doctor will help you lower your risk of blood clots, especially if you're on bed rest or had a C-section. Exactly how much exercise your doctor recommends. thromboembolic disease Spending a lot of time sitting down Stand up and stretch every hour to two hours. Drink plenty of liquids.

What is thrombosis management?

clotting agents.

These medications, which are often referred to as anticoagulants, help to stop blood clots from spreading. Blood thinners reduce the possibility of developing new clots. Blood thinners can be given intravenously, subcutaneously, or orally

Are your legs elevated to avoid thromboembolism?

In the evenings, while unwinding and sleeping, keeping your feet elevated can help to promote healthy circulation.

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the nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (ngt) which is connected to suction. after ensuring correct tube placement, which action should the nurse take next?

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Through a suction-connected nasogastric tube (NGT), the nurse is giving patients their meds. The nurse should B) flush the tube with water once she has made sure it is in the proper position.

Before, after, and in between each medicine provided, the NGT should be flushed (B). The NGT should be clamped for 20 minutes following the administration of all drugs (A). Only when the tubing has been flushed may (C and D) be used. A thin, soft tube called a nasogastric (NG) tube is inserted through the nose, down the throat, and into the stomach.  Children occasionally receive medicine through a tube. The typical duration of use for NGT is a few weeks to months.

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the medical crew member knows when suction has been prescribed using a dry suction drainage system, the wall or transport suction should be dialed to:

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To provide consistent suction for the patient, a dry suction system employs a self-controlled regulator that regulates the amount of suction and responds to air leakage.

Is it necessary to link the chest drainage system to suction?

The drainage unit's suction should be set to the recommended level, as shown below. Suction is not always necessary since it might cause tissue damage and prolong an air leak in some individuals.

Dry suction control systems have several advantages: they can attain greater suction pressure levels, they are simple to set up, and there is no fluid to evaporate, which would reduce the amount of suction administered to the patient.

In principle, suctioning a chest tube aids in pleural apposition and hence aids in sealing.

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which statement by the student nurse requires further teaching about which action would be provided for a client who survived an earthquake and presents with abdominal trauma to the emergency department?

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"I should remove an impaled object immediately." by the student nurse requires further teaching about which action would be provided for a client who survived an earthquake and presents with abdominal trauma to the emergency department.

Trauma is an emotional reaction to a traumatic incident, such as an accident, , or natural disaster. Shock and denial are frequent feelings right after an incident. For a longer period of time, reactions can include erratic emotions, flashbacks, strained relationships, and even physical complaints like headaches or nausea. A person experiencing trauma may initially experience fatigue, disorientation, melancholy, worry, agitation, numbness, and detachment. The Latin word nutire, which means to suckle, is the source of the word nurse. This is because it originally solely referred to a wet-nurse and didn't change to refer to someone who looks after the sick until the late 16th century.

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juanita, who is 85, drives every morning to baby-sit her great-granddaughter, allowing her granddaughter, evelyn, to work full-time. juanita's neighbor, sandra, is 65 and suffering from dementia so her children are preparing to put her in a nursing home. both juanita and sandra are examples that

Answers

Both Juanita and Sandra are examples of that how society should avoid using chronological age divisions because people have functional ages.

What are functional age and chronological age?

The major descriptor of aging is chronological age. The term "chronological age" refers to one's calendar age, and it is significantly associated with decreased work ability and early retirement. Functional age is a concept that holds that a metric other than chronological age can better reflect one's position in the aging process. The term "functional age" refers to a worker's performance and acknowledges that individuals' abilities and functioning vary with age.

What is an example of functional age and chronological age?

Chronological age and functional age are related, but age had no impact on whether a person had a chronic health condition. According to a study, workers who were older in terms of their chronological age, particularly those between the ages of 50 and 59, had more age-related issues, fewer opportunities to continue working, and frequently reported needing more support to continue working in the future. The work ability scores also dropped with age. Workplace obstacles encountered had nothing to do with chronological age. The findings of this study may indicate that employers can take much more proactive steps to support older workers in maintaining a productive working life.

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a new mother who is a lacto-ovo vegetarian plans to breast feed her infant. which information should the nurse provide prior to discharge

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continue taking B12-fortified prenatal vitamins while nursing.

What b12 supplements should I take?

A long time ago, it was believed that vitamin B-12, folic acid (vitamin B-9), and vitamin B-6 could protect against heart and blood vessel diseases by reducing the levels of the an amino acid in the body (homocysteine).

Do all multivitamins contain B12?

Between 5 and 25 mcg of vitamin B12 are typically found in multivitamin/mineral pills [22].The levels of vitamin B12 for supplements which also contain other B-complex vitamins are typically 50–500 mcg higher, while in supplements that just contain vitamin B12, the levels are 500–1,000 mcg higher.

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after teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease about nutrition. the nurse determines that the teaching was effective when the parents identify which of the foods as appropriate for their child? select all that apply

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The nurse recommends to include Fruit juice in the teaching plan.

Foods containing gluten, such as rye bread, frozen yogurt, and creamed vegetables should be avoided by children who have celiac disease. Fruit juice is a suitable recommendation for a gluten-free diet.

An immunological response to consuming the protein gluten, which is present in wheat, barley, and rye.

The immunological response to ingesting gluten causes inflammation over time, which harms the lining of the small intestine and can result in health issues. Additionally, it hinders the absorption of some nutrients.

The typical sign is diarrhea. Bloating, flatulence, exhaustion, a low blood count, and osteoporosis are other symptoms. Many individuals have no symptoms.

A strict gluten-free diet that can help manage symptoms and encourage intestinal healing is the cornerstone of treatment.

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a nurse is caring for a postoperative client after knee arthroplasty. the nurse plans to help the client ambulate but is aware that the client may feel threatened by physical closeness because the client is from a culture that tends to prefer more personal space when interacting with others. using the principles of culturally competent care, what would be the most appropriate nursing action?

Answers

The most appropriate nursing action would be that the nurse should listen to patient's customs and beliefs while assessing and make him comfortable,

Culturally competent care  in health care describes the flexibility of systems to supply care to patients with various values, beliefs and behaviors, as well as the craft of health care delivery to fulfill patients' social, cultural and linguistic desires.

Knee replacement, conjointly referred to as knee arthroplasty, is a operation to interchange the weight-bearing surfaces of the  joint to alleviate pain and incapacity, most typically offered once joint pain isn't diminished by conservative sources and conjointly for different knee diseases like  psoriatic arthritis.

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an older adult client has developed pneumonia. what initial assessment finding would most concern the nurse?

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A nursing care plan for pneumonia will prioritise making sure the patient gets enough oxygen. If there are no other issues, the oxygen is delivered using a nasal cannula.

The patient's medical management makes up the majority of a nursing care plan for a patient with pneumonia.

Describe pneumonia

The air sacs in one or both lungs become inflamed when someone has pneumonia. The air sacs may become blocked with liquid or pus (purulent material), causing breathing problems, a fever, chills, and a cough that produces pus or phlegm.

A step-by-step process that focuses on treating the condition by identifying the source and culturing blood is required for the management of pneumonia.

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an influential intellectual literary and artistic movement of the early 20th cantury the publication of their eyes were watching god sometimes cited as its booked use the en-roads dashboard to answer this question. the en-roads tutorial may also be helpful. match each slider category to its role in greenhouse gas emissions and climate change. click on the slider title for more information. group of answer choices natural gas [ choose ] renewables [ choose ] transport energy efficiency [ choose ] transport energy electrification [ choose ] buildings energy efficiency [ choose ] building electrification [ choose ] Kathryn invests $1000 in one account and $2200 in an account paying 3 % higher interest. At the end of one year she had earned $130 in interest. At what rates did she invest? which statement does not describe fission? a very heavy nucleus splits into several medium-weight nuclei. stable, lightweight nuclei start the process. several neutrons are emitted. a fast neutron starts the process. The parking garage at the airport has 625 parking spaces. 92% of the spaces are empty. Howmany empty spaces are there in the parking garage? Purple colored pattern results when Ninhydrin binds with.....................................within fingerprint residue which allows for fingerprint ................................ .enzymes, developmentsweat, removalamino acids, removalwater, developmentamino acids, developmentoils, developmentenzymes, removalsalts, development quizlet cpco which of the following is not a purpose of the requisition lab slip? a. ensure the physician or other authorized individual has made an independent medical necessity decision with regard to each test the organization will bill b. encourage physicians or other authorized individuals to submit the diagnosis information for all tests ordered c. capture the correct program information d. contain a statement that indicates medicare generally covers all routine screening tests A random sample of 121 automobiles traveling on an interstate showed an average speed of 65 mph. From past information, it is known that the standard deviation of the population is 22 mph. A 95% confidence interval for population mean is determined. If we are to reduce the sample size to 100 (other factors remain unchanged), the 95% confidence interval would:. anets job as a corporate attorney is extremely stressful. part of her stress comes from having to meet aggressive deadlines for her work. the stressors that arise from these deadlines are known as . hich of the following enhances phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages? i) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes ii) antibody-mediated opsonization of microbes iii) the release of cytokines by activated b cells a farmer crosses a yellow feathered hen with a red feathered rooster and observed that all their offspring have both yellow and red feathers. if the feather color is determined by both dominant gene, then what is the likely explanation for these results? how would you evaluate the courts claim that giving a gift of trading information is the same thing as trading by the tipper followed by a gift of the proceeds? tion for y: 2x + 3y = -6. Then, answer the questions that follow.formed equation, what is the slope of the linear equation 2x + 3y = -6?to find solutions to the linear equation.xLesson 17 Problem SeTransformed Linear Equation:y find the probability if two dice are rolled. (enter the value of probability in decimals. round the answer to three decimal places.) ou have the following time and cost information for use in a time-cost cpm scheduling model. activity normal time crash time normal cost crash cost a 3 2 $400 $ 600 b 5 3 $600 $ 1200 c 4 1 $300 $ 1500 what are the three costs per unit of time to expedite each activity? The _____ is the amount that was actually spent to accomplish the work that was scheduled to be performed up to that point in time.c.cumulative actual cost (CAC) griffith's experiments with s. pneumoniae were significant because they showed that traits could be transferred from one organism to another. what else did he find that was significant? see concept 16.1 (page) let $s$ be the set of the 2005 smallest positive multiples of 4, and let $t$ be the set of the 2005 smallest positive multiples of 6. how many elements are common to $s$ and $t$? (a) 166 (b) 333 (c) 500 (d) 668 (e) 1001 you are considering purchasing an annuity that would pay you $1,000 per year for 1 years. the interest rate is 5%. out of the choices below, what would be a reasonable price to pay for thatannuity? the client has been taking levofloxacin iv since admission 12 hours ago for a urinary tract infection. the nurse assesses the client's temperature at 99.8f. what is the nurse's best response?