Yes, AA
Yes, SAS
Not similar
Yes, SSS

Answer:

by Alternate Intererior Angles Theorem

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Line L || Line M

1. Given

2. ∠4≅∠6

2. Alternate Interior Angles Theorem

Answer:

52 cards:

26 red and 26 black

P(R) = probability of picking a red card

P(B) = probability of picking a black card

P(R) = P(B) = ¹/₂

If with replacement:

P(R∩B) = (¹/₂)(¹/₂) = ¹/₄

If without replacement:

P(R∩B) = (¹/₂)(²⁶/₅₁) = ¹³/₅₁

8 Balls:

3 red and 5 white

P(R) = probability of picking a red ball

P(W) = probability of picking a white ball

P(R) = ³/₈

P(W) = ⁵/₈

If with replacement:

P(R∩W) ∪ P(W∩R) = (³/₈)(⁵/₈) + (⁵/₈)(³/₈)

= ¹⁵/₆₄ + ¹⁵/₆₄

= ³⁰/₆₄

= ¹⁵/₃₂

If without replacement:

P(R∩W) ∪ P(W∩R) = (³/₈)(⁵/₇) + (⁵/₈)(³/₇)

= ¹⁵/₄₂ + ¹⁵/₄₂

= ³⁰/₄₂

= ⁵/₇

Answer:

y = -[tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] x - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The general form of the equation of the line (linear equation) is:

y = ax + b

The line passes through (-3, -1) and (6, -7), i.e:

(1) (x=-3, y=-1) is a point that verifies the equation of the line, and

(2) (x=6, y=-7) also verifies the equation.

So we can put up a system of 2 equations to obtain a and b:

y = ax + b

(1) -1 = a (-3) + b

(2) -7 = a (6) + b

______________

substracting (1) - (2) we can obtain a:

-1 - (-7) = a (-3-6) ⇒ 6 = -9 a  ⇒ a = -2/3

by replacing a in (1) we can obtain b:

-1 = -2/3 (-3) + b ⇒ -1 -2 = b ⇒ b = -3

so, the equation is:  y = ax + b ⇒ y = -2/3 x - 3

Verification: (2) giving x= 6, let's see if y=-7 is obtained:

y = -2/3 6 - 3 ⇒  y = -4 - 3 = 7 ⇒ RIGHT!

Answer:

a)37

b)10

c)0 beacuse if there 11 then they would be speeding and also if it wrond try 10

d)28.571428571429%Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

25% of 80 is 20

I hope this helps!!!

Answer:

25% of 80 is 20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\mathrm{The\:solutions\:to\:the\:system\:of\:equations\:are:}[/tex]

[tex]x=9,\:y=13[/tex]

the option 'd' is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the system of the equations

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}5x-3y=6\\ 6x-4y=2\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Multiply\:}5x-3y=6\mathrm{\:by\:}6\:\mathrm{:}\:\quad \:30x-18y=36[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Multiply\:}6x-4y=2\mathrm{\:by\:}5\:\mathrm{:}\:\quad \:30x-20y=10[/tex]

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}30x-18y=36\\ 30x-20y=10\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]30x-20y=10[/tex]

[tex]-[/tex]

[tex]\underline{30x-18y=36}[/tex]

[tex]-2y=-26[/tex]

[tex]\begin{bmatrix}30x-18y=36\\ -2y=-26\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

solve for y

[tex]-2y=-26[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Divide\:both\:sides\:by\:}-2[/tex]

[tex]\frac{-2y}{-2}=\frac{-26}{-2}[/tex]

[tex]y=13[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{For\:}30x-18y=36\mathrm{\:plug\:in\:}y=13[/tex]

[tex]30x-18\cdot \:13=36[/tex]

[tex]30x-234=36[/tex]

[tex]30x=270[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Divide\:both\:sides\:by\:}30[/tex]

[tex]\frac{30x}{30}=\frac{270}{30}[/tex]

[tex]x=9[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{The\:solutions\:to\:the\:system\:of\:equations\:are:}[/tex]

[tex]x=9,\:y=13[/tex]

Therefore, the option 'd' is correct.

Answer: Option E is the correct answer; (1 + p⁴) / (1 + p³)

Step-by-step explanation:

P (3 head) = P(first and 3 heads) + P(second coin and 3 heads)

= (1/2)×1³ + (1/2)× p³ = (1/2) × (1 + p³)

therefore P(first coin given 3 heads) = (1/2)×1³/ ((1/2)×(1 + p³))

= 1 / (1 + p³)

Also P( second coin given 3 heads) = p³ /(1 + p³)

therefore P(4th toss in heads given first 3 are heads)  will be;

= P(first and 4th toss heads) + P(second and 4th toss heads)

=(1/( 1 + p³ )) × 1 + p³ / (1+p³) × p

= (1 + p⁴) / (1 + p³)

Therefore Option E is the correct answer

Answer:

2 3/4 or 2.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 7.25

Step-by-step explanation:

I suggest you search for, "khan academy slope."

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm answering this silly thing only because it seems to have an expected answer

B: is about the only answer you cannot give.

C and D are Both open ended at 15 which doesn't allow you to say that the first acceptable answer is 16

The only answer you can pick is A. The amount starts at 15 and you keep going until you hit 70. That doesn't mean you have to stop. It just means that it represents what he desires to make.

Answer:

82%

Step-by-step explanation:

0.82x100=82

=82%

Hope this helps

Answer:

B. 82%

Step-by-step explanation:

.82 can also be written as 82/100 and 82/100 can be turned into 82% because they are all based on 100

Answer:

?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Earnest money is typically in the form of a check.

Step-by-step explanation:

Not everyone writes checks. Can be paid in any form.

Answer:

In units of measurement of length we use centimeter (cm) to measure. We can use this unit for measuring the length of a pencil, the width of a book etc. but this unit is too big to measure the thicken of a pencil. So we use another unit called millimeter (mm).

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It stays true because it stays the same amount so B would be the correct answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

dependent care FSA

Health FSA

IRA

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Adjacent angles are two angles in the same plane with a common  VERTEX and a common  SIDE but no common interior points.

Step-by-step explanation:

Adjacent angles share a common side on the same vertes, but they do not overlap each other.

In the attached image, ∠ABD is adjacent to ∠DBC, but ∠ABC is not adjacent to any of them.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is D because the 45 would represent his songs, and 180 would represent the total.

Answer:

The slides is 36 and the angle is 180.

Step-by-step explanation:

14.4m+15.6m+6m=36

90+30+50=180  

If they ask why it is 180 because when adding all the angles it has to give you a total of 180.

Answer:

0.3 or 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

add 4/5 + 3/15=1

then 1-2/3 = 1/3

Answer: 1/3

[tex]\frac{4}{5}+\frac{3}{15}-\frac{2}{3}\\\\=\frac{4}{5}+\frac{3}{3.5}-\frac{2}{3}\\\\=\frac{4}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{2}{3}\\\\=1-\frac{2}{3}\\\\=\frac{3}{3}-\frac{2}{3}\\\\=1/3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2:3

Step-by-step explanation:

4:6, you would have to divide both sides by 2 to get the simplest answer which is 2:3, hope this helps

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{15}{1}[/tex] multiplied by [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

which makes: [tex]\frac{15}{3}[/tex]

simplify: 5

Answer:

Break-even point in units= 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Fixed cost= $100

Unitary variable cost= $20

Selling price per unit= $24

To calculate the break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula:

Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit

Break-even point in units= 100 / (24 - 20)

Break-even point in units= 25

Answer:

64

Step-by-step explanation:

1024÷16=64

hope this helps

Answer a is 14.40 the discount price is 14.40