Wildlife biologists are using a method which anesthetize the snakes with acetaminophen in rats in order to control the brown tree snake population on Guam. (B)
Food chainIn an ecosystem, there are interactions between living things which then produce energy flows and material cycles. Every living thing also needs nutrition (food) and energy that varies depending on the place and conditions. Living things also need air, soil, and sun to then be able to support their lives.
For example, humans need animals, and plants and vice versa. Interactions between living things can also be divided into coexisting or crossing life, although of course living things can also prey on each other.
The relationship between what eats and is eaten is what is called the understanding of the food chain.
Trophic level
Producers: Producers are organisms capable of producing their own food, including autotrophic organisms or green plants. Producers also occupy the first trophic level.Consumer I: In consumer I Organisms that occupy the second trophic level are also known as primary consumers. Among these primary consumers are herbivorous animals.Consumers II: Organisms that occupy the second trophic level are also known as secondary consumers, and are occupied by meat-eating animals (carnivores) and so on.Top consumers: The organisms occupying the highest trophic level are the top consumers.Decomposers: Decomposers which then form the final link in a food chain will break down plants and animals which then die and return various essential nutrients to the soil.Learn more about the Food Chain at: https://brainly.com/question/16504883
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Mara lives in st. Louis, which is close to sea level. She decides to spend a month of her summer vacation working in the mountains outside of denver. After a week in the mountains, what kinds of changes would you expect to see as mara adapts to the higher altitude?.
After a week in the mountains, we would expect Mara adapts to the higher altitude by decreasing PO₂ in her alveoli. the correct answer is D.
Mara resides in St. Louis, which is not far from the sea. She plans to work in the mountains outside of Denver for a month during her summer break. We would anticipate that Mara will adjust to the greater altitude by having lower PO2 in her alveoli after a week in the mountains.
It results After a month, Mara typically exhibits regular oxygen absorption, increased ventilation, more basic hypoxic ventilation, larger lung volumes, greater diffusing capacities, and increased blood pressure as he adjusts to the higher altitude.
The human body experiences difficulties at altitude as the barometric pressure steadily drops, which causes a number of significant physiological reactions that help people control and ensure tissue oxygenation.
It results in the physiological reactions of the body, including a rise in hematocrit. Altitude with relatively low oxygen content, which has a significant impact on the cardiovascular system and blood pressure management, also affects the development of systemic hypertension. Hyperventilation intended to achieve adequate tissue oxygenation is another component of the pulmonary response to acute altitude exposure.
The complete question is:
Mara lives in st. Louis, which is close to sea level. She decides to spend a month of her summer vacation working in the mountains outside of Denver. After a week in the mountains, what kinds of changes would you expect to see as mara adapts to the higher altitude?
A) decreased hematocrit
B) decreased blood pressure
C) decreased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased PO2 in the alveoli
E) All of the answers are correct.
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Fungi a. typically reproduce sexually when environmental conditions are poOr: b. typically reproduce sexually when environmental conditions are good. c. always reproduce sexually: d. always reproduce asexually
Fungi typically reproduce sexually when environmental conditions are poor. Sexual reproduction is frequently observed in fungus in response to poor environmental circumstances.
There are two sorts of mating. When two forms of mating are present in the same mycelium, it is referred to be homothallic, or self-fertile. To reproduce sexually, heterothallic mycelia require two distinct yet compatible mycelia.
However, historical accumulations of fungal spores are an important component of palynological records that are otherwise dominated by spores produced by seedless plants and pollen from seed plants.
Changes in the proportions of different types of fungal spores can reveal important details about the biological communities and climatic conditions that supported these fungi.
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ocean producers such as phytoplankton are an important part of food webs, but they need a specific temperature to survive. how might increased water temperatures affect these ocean food webs?
The low temperature of the ocean would allow for the phytoplanktons to bloom or reproduce. Therefore, high temperatures would slow down growth.
The process of photosynthesis is used by phytoplankton and other microscopic marine plants to generate energy for them. Two things are required for this process to occur: carbon dioxide and sunlight. Although some of the carbon dioxide that has been eaten is wasted, it is not entirely wasted. The oxygen itself is the trash. Once released, the oxygen returns to the atmosphere. Since oxygen is essential for the survival of all life on Earth, especially mammals, it is imperative that the environment of phytoplankton and microscopic marine plants, which are the ones that release the most oxygen into the atmosphere, is preserved.
Modifications would have an impact on a phytoplankton community by boosting the phytoplankton population. The ocean's cool temperature would enable phytoplanktons to flourish or proliferate. Therefore, growth would be slowed by high temperatures. This is due to the fact that warm water would mix less with the water that is nutrient-rich layers.
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the population projection technique that allocates a projected population expansion to subregional areas is called:
The population projection technique that allocates a projected population expansion to subregional areas is called shift share approach.
What is population?
A community's inhabitants who belong to the same species. A population's makeup is influenced by things like density, sex ratios, birth and death rates, immigration, and emigration.
What is sub region?
A biogeographic region's major division. subregional.
Therefore, the population projection technique that allocates a projected population expansion to subregional areas is called shift share approach.
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would you expect any difference in the mutation rates of the control region sequence in the mt genome versus the chromosome 11 insertion?
Yes, you can expect a difference in the mutation rates of the mt genome's control region sequence versus the chromosome 11 insertion.
A mutation rate is an estimate of the likelihood of a mutation occurring per cell division, which corresponds to the likelihood of a mutation occurring during the lifetime of a bacterial cell. The proportion of mutant bacteria in a culture is simply referred to as the mutation frequency.
Tobacco smoke, UV light, and aristolochic acid have all been linked to increased mutation rates in cancer genomes. Variability in the activity of certain cellular processes also influences mutation rates across individuals.
Any of the following methods can be used to identify single base pair mutations: Direct sequencing entails identifying each individual base pair in sequence and comparing it to the normal gene's sequence.
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when a cell is hypoxic (deprived of oxygen), what prevents atp synthase from operating in reverse, hydrolyzing atp made by glycolysis?
when a cell is hypoxic, the protein inhibitor IF1 prevents atp synthase from operating in reverse, hydrolyzing atp made by glycolysis.
hypoxic is a condition where there is insufficient oxygen at the tissue level to maintain adequate homeostasis. This can be brought on by insufficient oxygen delivery to the tissues because of insufficient blood flow or insufficient oxygen levels in the blood. Lung injury from trauma can also result in hypoxia. Other factors that can result in hypoxic include lung conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
The method by which glucose is metabolised to produce energy is known as glycolysis. It generates water, ATP, NADH, and two pyruvate molecules. It doesn't need oxygen to happen because it happens in a cell's cytoplasm. In both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, it occurs. The metabolic process known as glycolysis is what turns glucose into pyruvate.
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for this question, unless they are clearly affected with the disease (like individual ii-5), assume that the disease allele is rare in the population and that people marrying in do not carry the disease allele.
According to the status of the query, the condition is sickle cell anemia. Sickle cell anemia is one of the inherited illnesses referred to as sickle cell disease. The structure of red blood cells, which carry oxygen to every part of the body, is impacted.
Typically rounded and flexible, red blood cells may flow through blood veins with ease. Red blood cells with disease sickle or crescent shapes are characteristic of sickle cell anemia. Additionally, these sickle cells develop a hard and sticky coating that can hinder or delay blood flow. disease Sickle cells readily disintegrate and expire. About 120 days should pass before red blood cells need to be replaced. However, sickle cells, which ordinarily die in 10 to 20 days, lead to a deficiency of red blood cells (anemia).
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the concentration of solutes in a red blood cell is about a third that of seawater – about 0.3 m. if red blood cells are immersed in pure water, they swell. calculate the osmotic pressure at 25 °c of red blood cells across the cell membrane from pure water. (include units with your answer, in atm)
The osmotic pressure at 25 °c of red blood cells across the cell membrane from pure water is 7.34atm
Given: Concentration of Red blood cell C=0.30M, R=0.0821, T=298k
Osmotic pressure =CRT
Osmotic pressure=0.3 × 0.0821 × 298
Osmotic pressure =7.33979 ≃ 7.34atm
What is osmotic pressure?
Osmotic pressure is defined as the pressure that must be applied to the solution side to stop fluid movement when a semipermeable membrane separates a solution from pure water.
What would happen if red blood cells were placed in seawater?
Seawater is hypertonic to the cytoplasm in vertebrate cells and in plant cells. If a red blood cell and a plant cell were placed in seawater, the red blood cell would burst, and the plant cell would shrink.
What is the solute concentration of red blood cells?
Red blood cells have a solute concentration of around 0.9%.
Thus, the osmotic pressure of red blood cells is 7.34atm
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a population of insects increases at a rate 180 6t 0.6t2 insects per day (t in days). find the insects population after 4 days assuming that there are 70 insects at t
The insects population after four days is 1002.
The speed at which a variable changes over a predetermined amount of time is known as the rate of change.
Your function is changing at the same rate as the change. If your function is a function of position, then the velocity, which denotes how quickly your location is changing, will be the rate of change.
By dividing the difference between two points by the difference between the independent variable, you may calculate the average rate of change without using mathematics. You can use the derivative in calculus to get the current rate of change at any given moment.
Given,
rate = 180 + 6t+0.6t
dp/dt =180+6t+0.6t²
=(300 +61 +0.6t^2)dt
=p(3)-p(0)=180+3t^2+0.6*t^3/3
p(3)-70=180*3+3*3^2 +0.2×*^3
p(3)=1002.4
p(3)=1002
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which structures associated with locomotion in protists can be described as short, hair-like structures that extend from the surface of the cell?
Answer:flagellum, plural flagella, hairlike structure that acts primarily as an organelle of locomotion in the cells of many living organisms. Flagella, characteristic of the protozoan group Mastigophora, also occur on the gametes of algae, fungi, mosses, slime molds, and animals
Explanation:
what is the role of the ventral respiratory group (vrg) in the reticular formation of the medulla oblongata?
Answer: They maintain the basic ventilatory rhythm
Explanation:
Crossing over plays a critical role in increasing the genetic variation among offspring of sexual reproduction. Crossing over is unique to meiosis. Its occurrence depends on specific events early in prophase I, and it has important consequences for the rest of meiosis and beyond.Consider the following statements about crossing over.Drag "True" or "False" to the end of each statement.Crossing over occurs at the ends of chromosomes, rather than near the centromeres.As a result of crossing over, sister chromatids are no longer identical to each other.For crossing over to occur, homologous chromosomes must align precisely early in prophase I so that nonsister chromatids can exchange corresponding segments of DNA.Crossing over prevents homologous chromosomes from separating during meiosis I.
Crossing over is essential for increasing genetic variety among sexually reproduced offspring.
Meiosis is the only process in which cells cross across. Its presence is dependent on particular processes early in prophase I, and it has significant implications for the remainder of meiosis and beyond.
Crossing over happens at the ends of chromosomes, not around the centromeres. True, since segments near the centromere are difficult to split and reattach.True, because there is genetic material interchange between non-sister chromatids, sister chromatids are no longer similar to each other as a result of crossing over.Crossing over occurs when homologous chromosomes exactly align early in Prophase I, allowing non-sister chromatids to swap matching lengths of DNA TrueFalse, since homologous chromosomes split during meiosis I.Learn more about to Crossing over plays visit here:
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which disease is caused by calcified scar tissue that develops between the visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium?
The calcified scar tissue that forms between the visceral and parietal layers of the serous pericardium is the root cause of fibrous pericarditis.
The heart is held in place and shielded from external infections by the fibrous pericardium, which is the outer layer. It is made up of dense connective tissue. The parietal and visceral layers make up the serous pericardium's two layers. The visceral pericardium reduces friction, and the parietal pericardium adds extra protection. This activity discusses the pathophysiology, presentation, and causes of fibrinous pericarditis and emphasises the need of the interprofessional team in managing the condition. The heart is held in place and shielded from external infections by the fibrous pericardium, which is the outer layer.
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A student formulated a hypothesis that water-soluble pollutant damage living organisms by increasing the permeability of cellular membranes. To test the hypothesis, the student investigated the effect of isopropanol and acetone on beet root cells. The vacuoles of beet root cells contain large amounts of betacyanin, a water-soluble pigment that is released into the extracellular environment as a result of increased membrane permeability. The student prepared identical samples of beet root tissue and incubated each sample for 15 minutes in the specific solution for that group. At the end of the incubation period, the student measured the absorbance of 460 nm light for each sample. greater concentration of betacyanin in the solution surrounding the beet root cells results in a greater absorbance of 460 nm light. The results of the experiment are shown in the table Which of the following is the dependent variable in the experiment? (1 Point) EFFECT OF WATER-SOLUBLE POLLUTANTS ON MEMBRANE PERMEABILITY Mean Absorbance of 460 nm Light (n = 5) 0.164 0.125 0.215 0.274 0.095 2xStandard Error of the Mean (2xSEM) 0.032 0.100 0.034 Treatment Group Treatment Solution 70% isopropanol: 30% water 90% isopropanol: 10% water 50% acetone: 50% water 70% acetone: 30% water 100% water IV 0.004 Concentrations are reported as percent by volume O The percent by volumn of isopropanol in the treatment solutions O The percent by volume of water in the treatement solutions The length of time each sample was incubated in the treatment solutions The absorbance of 460 nm light by the treatment solutions
The absorbance of 460nm light by the treatment solutions was the test performed by the student.
Cell membranes are phospholipid bilayers which are mostly displayed by the 'fluid mosaic model' which consists of proteins, carbohydrate polymers and glycoproteins making them able to move around quite freely amongst the phospholipids.
A normal membrane permeability test involves investigating the effects of a named variable on the membrane permeability of any vegetable such as beetroot whose biological name is Beta Vulgaris. The variables to investigate are the influence of solvents and temperature because these factors can change the fluidity of the membrane. Beetroot is an important item for this test because of the distinctive betalains pigment that its stem tuber contains.
These pigments form an important signal indicating membrane fluidity as they are usually contained in the vacuole of intact beetroot cells. An instant or constant increase in membrane fluidity will cause the pigment to spill out of the cell, and the amount of pigment can be measured simply by using a colorimeter.
The above description is performed under the test of The absorbance of 460nm light by the treatment solutions.
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which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva? which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva? passive agglutination reaction neutralization reaction precipitation reaction direct agglutination reaction immunofluorescence
A test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva is C)precipitation reaction. So, correct option is C.
Solvent Liver Antigen is a test that targets deciding, the degree of antibodies present in the blood of an individual. This test is performed by taking blood tests of the individual. To affirm the presence of immune system liver infection, as well as hepatitis this test is finished.
It especially identifies quality alongside amount of antibodies that are available in human serum against dissolvable liver antigen (SLA). Patients who have enemies of SLA are particularly comparable, from those with exemplary kind 1 immune system hepatitis it very well may be by age or recurrence or nature of different antibodies or probably sex dispersion. Consequently, it just recognizes those patients who are experiencing tremendous sicknesses and immune system hepatitis.
Hence, option C is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva?
a)passive agglutination reaction
b)neutralization reaction
c)precipitation reaction
d)direct agglutination reaction immunofluorescence
Was your prediction correct? How did you arrive at your predictions? What differences were there between your predictions and the simulator?
My prediction was correct for most of its part because I relied on inclusion of all the organisms in the ecosystem.
Because I based my prediction on including every organism in the ecosystem, it was mostly accurate.
The environment receives its energy from the producers. Top predators, herbivores, and omnivores would all perish if they were to perish. Because I based my prediction on including every organism in the ecosystem, it was mostly accurate.The Herbivore Both a Omnivore A had an excellent habitat there since the food supply was steady. Consequently, they multiplied. Plants A and B first started to decline, but eventually a balance was reached. I did a few straightforward actions that made it feasible for each organisms to live in this ecosystem. For instance, it was insured that Plant C, Omnivore A, and B would not be consumed in the simulator, ensuring their existence.
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If you were traveling from Monterey on the California Coast to visit Yosemite National Park, on the eastern side of the state, what three major land forms would you pass through? (in order)
A) The Klamath Mountains, the Cascade Range and the Modoc Plateau.
B) The Transverse Ranges, the Mojave Desert and the Great Basin.
C) The Coast Ranges, the Central Valley and the Sierra Nevadas.
D) The Central Valley, the Sierra Nevadas and the Great Basin.
The Sierra Nevada and Coast Mountain Ranges fall and elevate by a few millimeters each year. As a result of winter rains and summer groundwater pumping in California's Central Valley. Thus, option C is correct.
What three major land forms in California?According to calculations by a group of geophysicists, gradual depletion of the Central Valley aquifer caused by groundwater pumping also raises these mountain ranges by a comparable amount each year.
Roughly the thickness of a dime—with a cumulative rise over the past 150 years of up to 15 centimeters (ca. 6 inch).
Therefore, The Coast Ranges, the Central Valley and the Sierra Nevadas. putting stress on the state's faults and raising the possibility of an earthquake.
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after reading the paragraph, answer the question(s) that follow. mr. and mrs. smith have three sons in elementary school. two of their children are progressing normally, but their last son, charles, has been much slower than his siblings at developing speech and language skills. his parents are concerned that he has a learning disability and decide to investigate further. since some learning disabilities can be genetically based, their pediatrician recommends a chromosomal analysis. the results show that charles has a trisomy of the sex chromosomes, diagnosed as xyy, which is caused by nondisjunction in the formation of the father's sperm. the nondisjunction resulted in an extra copy of the y chromosome. the extra copy was passed on to charles during fertilization. most often, this chromosomal change causes no unusual physical features or medical problems, but those with trisomy of the sex chromosomes do have a higher than normal risk of delays in learning development. during which stage of meiosis could this nondisjunction have occurred?
The nondisjunction took place during the Anaphase II stage of meiosis.
We must first understand that nondisjunction during meiosis might happen during either anaphase I or anaphase II in order to comprehend the following scenario. Homologous chromosomes don't split when they do so in anaphase I. The cells then undergo meiosis II properly, producing a maximum of four cells. These haploid cells are known as gametes because meiosis is taking place in them. The afflicted daughter cells are all. The chromosome will be duplicated in two additional gametes, and it won't be duplicated in the remaining two gametes.
Now, the YY chromosome is not disjunct, as stated in the description in the paragraph. If all goes accordingly, the XX and YY bivalent coils will appropriately split during meiosis I, and one cell will obtain the Y-chromosome. To ensure that each cell had a Y, the disjunction of YY was intended to take place during meiosis II.
The non-disjunction happened paternally in meiosis II during separation; this occurs in anaphase II.
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which statement is most consistent with the one gene, one enzyme hypothesis originally proposed by beadle and tatum? every gene encodes a separate enzyme. each gene makes one enzyme but not one protein. every enzyme makes one gene. genes and enzymes are important. a gene can only make one enzyme in a cell cycle.
The correct option is C : Every gene encodes a separate enzyme. One enzyme, one gene The theory holds that each gene encodes a single enzyme.
We now know that this concept is typically (but not entirely) right. Sir Archibald Garrod, a British medical practitioner, was the first to propose that genes and enzymes were linked.
According to Beadle and Tatum, each gene drives the synthesis of one (and only one) enzyme. Beadle and Tatum shared the 1958 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine with J. Lederberg.
They identified a set of mutations known to disrupt the production of arginine, an amino acid required for mould development. Individual mutations, according to their idea, hindered specific steps in the process utilized by the mould to manufacture arginine from precursors in its surrounding media.
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Full Question :
Which statement is most consistent with the one gene, one enzyme hypothesis originally proposed by Beadle and Tatum?
A Every enzyme makes one gene.
B Genes and enzymes are important.
C Every gene encodes a separate enzyme.
D A gene can only make one enzyme in a cell cycle.
E Each gene makes one enzyme but not one protein.
when sea otters were hunted nearly to extinction in california coastal communities, sea urchin populations increased, kelp beds decreased in size, and fish reproduced at far lower levels. what does this reflect?
When sea otters hunted nearly to extinction in California coastal communities, sea urchin populations increased, kelp beds decreased in size : this reflects that otters must have ordinarily eaten sea urchins.
What is a symbiotic relationship?Symbiosis is type of a close and long-term biological interaction between two different biological organisms. It can be parasitic, mutualistic, and commensalistic.
Parasitism is where one species benefits and the other is harmed and commensalism is when one organism benefits and the other is left unharmed. Mutualism is when both the organisms benefit from that interaction.
When two animals have a symbiotic relationship, it clearly means that they rely on each other for survival. In nature, this codependence can be beneficial.
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A client who tells the nurse thatshe would like to use the basalbody temperature method forfamilyplanningreceivesinstructions about the method.Which of the following clientstatements indicates to the nursethat the teaching has beensuccessful?A. "When my temperature remainselevated for 7 days, ovulation hasoccurred."B. "Taking my temperature in theevening just after dinner or beforeI go to bed is best."C."Because this method is not veryeffective, I should use other formsof contraception too."D. "It's important to take mytemperature at about the sametimeeverymorningbeforearising."
Large biomolecular and macromolecular objects known as proteins are composed of one or more extended chains of amino acid residues. As a result, the right answer is 14 g.
The conventional suggestion for bodybuilders is one gram of protein per pound of bodyweight to assist muscle building, however the research behind this advise differs based on age, exercise level, and overall body composition objectives.
What is the daily protein recommendation in grams per kilogram for a 14-18 year old?
Protein consumption of 0.9 g/kg/day for boys aged 3 to 18 years old and 0.9 g/kg/day for girls aged 3 to 15 years old is recommended by the World Health Organization/Food and Agriculture Organization (WHO/FAO) (24). Females aged 15 to 18 had a somewhat lower quantity of 0.8 g/kg/day.
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Full Question :How much additional protein is needed per day to support the growth of one pound of muscle?
14 g
40 g
58 g
65 g
use the following information to answer the next few questions. a group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the dna, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest. their next two steps, in order, should be
Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments by size and charge.
DNA fragments can be divided via gel electrophoresis based on their size and charge. The process of electrophoresis includes running a current through a gel that contains the targeted molecules. The molecules will migrate through the gel in various directions or at various rates to separate from one another depending on their size and load. The charge per mass of every DNA molecule is the same. Gel electrophoresis can only distinguish between DNA fragments of different sizes as a result. We can count the number of different DNA fragments in a sample and estimate their relative sizes by using electrophoresis. By comparing a DNA fragment's size to a "scale" of known-size DNA pieces, its exact size can be ascertained. This study may be carried out to determine which students have specific alleles.
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when educating students about the differences between brown fat versus white fat, the instructor will share that brown fat has iron in its mitochondria that will facilitate:
The brown fat has iron in its mitochondria that will facilitate production of a protein that releases the energy generated from metabolism as heat.
Your body produces the hormone norepinephrine when it becomes cold. Norepinephrine receptors are present in brown fat. These receptors alert the many mitochondria to begin producing energy when they detect the hormone. You will feel warm as a result, which will aid in regulating your body temperature. It basically produces proteins that releases the energy generated from metabolism as heat.
Brown fat converts fat molecules and blood sugar (glucose) into heat and contributes to the regulation of body temperature. Brown fat is activated by cold temperatures, which causes a number of metabolic changes in the body. But the majority of our fat is white fat, which can store extra energy. In obesity, too much white fat accumulates.
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due to rna processing, a primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is the functional (or mature) mrna, while a primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell is the functional mrna. the same size as; smaller than larger than; the same size as larger than; smaller than the same size as; larger than
The correct option is B ; Larger than; the same size as. A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is Larger than the functional mRNA, while a primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell is the same size the functional mRNA.
Because of the existence of introns in the main transcript, it is significantly longer than mature mRNA.
In contrast to eukaryotic cells, where pre M. RNA must be spliced to eliminate all introns, RNA transcripts are functional as soon as they are generated.
Eukaryotic transcription occurs within the nucleus, whereas Prokaryotic transcription occurs in the cytoplasm. Transcriptional factors are proteins that are required in Eukaryotic Transcription but not in Prokaryotic Transcription.
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Full Question :
A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is _____ the functional mRNA, while a primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell is _____ the functional mRNA.
a) the same size as; the same size as
b) larger than; the same size as
c) larger than; smaller than
d) the same size as; larger than
Which of the following statements is true about the phases of mitosis? Select all that apply
Which of the following statements is true about the phases of mitosis?
Chromosomes form 2 separate nuclei in telophase.
Chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell during anaphase.
Chromosomes move apart during metaphase.
Chromosomes thicken in prophase.
Answer: A and D
Explanation:
Answer:
I believe
Chromosomes form 2 separate nuclei in telophase.
Chromosomes thicken in prophase.
Explanation:
A few examples include nucleus and chloroplasts (plant cells), and golgi bodies and mitochondria (animal cells).
A few examples include nucleus and chloroplasts (plant cells), and golgi bodies and mitochondria (animal cells).
Other eukaryotes lack a number of features that are present in plant cells. In particular, organelles called chloroplasts enable plants to store solar energy in molecules with high energy, while cell walls enable plants to have a variety of hard structures, such as woody trunks and flexible leaves, and vacuoles enable plant cells to enlarge and contract. What Caused Chloroplasts to Form? Chloroplasts, like mitochondria, probably started out as a symbiotic relationship between a nucleated cell and a photosynthetic prokaryote. Chloroplasts do, in fact, resemble contemporary cyanobacteria, which are still related to those that existed 3 million years ago. The origin of photosynthesis, however, may be traced back to the earliest cells that developed the capacity to absorb light energy and utilise it to create molecules rich in energy.
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Judging and evaluating advertisements requires critical thinking because _______. a. advertisements can contain confusing, misleading information b. all advertisements contain false information c. advertisers always want to convince consumers to buy unnecessary items d. truth in advertising laws ensure the accuracy of information in advertisementsAnswer: Option A) advertisements can contain confusing, misleading information - is the correct answer.Reason for the answer: Many advertisement contains many misleading information or statement which should be judged properly.
Judging and evaluating advertisements requires critical thinking because advertisements can contain confusing as well as misleading information.
So, the correct option is A.
To judge and evaluate commercials, one must use critical thought. The main goals of advertisers are to educate the public and persuade them as effectively as they can about their goods. They offer unclear and inaccurate information with this goal in mind.
A thorough analysis of the product is needed in order to make an informed decision regarding whether to purchase it or not. To judge and evaluate ads, one must use critical thinking. Which aspects of advertisements are true and defensible requires critical thinking. One application of critical thinking is the scientific method. To correct incorrect information, they have an editorial process.
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if you were traveling from the outside of a prokaryotic cell to the inside, in what order would you encounter the following structures?
The prokaryotic cell's exterior features include a plasma membrane, cell wall, and capsule (or slime layer).
What do prokaryotic cells' internal and structural components look like?There are both exterior and interior structures in a prokaryotic cell. Outside of the cell wall, the bacterial cell has a capsule, flagella, axial filaments, fimbriae, and pili. Cytoplasm makes up the majority of the bacterial cell's interior.
What elements define the line separating each cell's inside and exterior?Each and every cell in the body is enclosed by a cell membrane (plasma). The cell membrane distinguishes between the internal and external components of the cell.
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what explains why small scale ecological systems are less complex than large-scale? nutrients space
They usually contain more interacting parts, but also because those parts interact over a greater range of spatial and temporal scales.
What ecological level of organization is the least complicated?A single organelle, which is made up of aggregates of macromolecules, is the simplest unit of organization for living beings. The biosphere, which includes all other levels, is the greatest level of organization for living things.
What do evolutionary changes on a local and large scale mean?This concept includes both macroevolution (the descent of various species from a common ancestor through many generations) and small-scale evolution (changes in gene frequency, or more accurately and technically, allele frequency, in a population from one generation to the next).
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describe four factors that affect population size
identify factors that limit population growth
explain the difference between primary and secondary succession
differentiate between habitat and niche
evaluate claims, evidence, and reasoning about interactions in ecosystems
use mathematical representations and simulations to support explanations
A population is any kind of complete group with at least one characteristic of t in common. Populations means are not just people. Populations may consist of but are not limited to people, animals, businesses, buildings, motor vehicles, farms, objects, or events.
When demographers an attempt to forecast changes in the size of a population, they typically focus on four of the main factors: fertility rates, mortality rates (life expectancy), the initial age profile of the population, and the (whether it is relatively old or relatively young, to begin with ) and migration.
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