Whispering Winds Service, which provides primarily two lines of service: oil changes and brake repair, has over 200 auto-maintenance service outlets across the United States. Oil change-related services represent 75% of its sales and provide a contribution margin ratio of 20%. Brake repair represents 25% of its sales and provides a 60% contribution margin ratio. It is critical to note that contribution margin represents the amount left after variable costs are deducted from the revenue. In this case, contribution margin is used to pay for fixed costs, with the remaining amount being profit.
If the company's fixed costs are $12,480,000 (or $84,000 per service outlet), we may use the contribution margin formula to compute its break-even point in dollar sales. In essence, the formula can be represented as follows:
Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit.
To begin, we need to calculate the contribution margin per unit for both oil changes and brake repair services, respectively.
Oil changes' contribution margin per unit:
Selling price = 75% of total sales = 0.75*$1,000 = $750
Variable cost per unit = $600 (since 20% is the contribution margin ratio, it indicates that variable costs account for 80% of the sales revenue).
Contribution margin per unit = $750 - $600 = $150.
Brake repair's contribution margin per unit:
Selling price = 25% of total sales = 0.25*$1,000 = $250.
Variable cost per unit = 40% of sales revenue ($250 * 0.4) = $100.
Contribution margin per unit = $250 - $100 = $150.
Now that we have calculated the contribution margin per unit for both oil changes and brake repair services, respectively, we may use the following formula to compute the break-even point in dollar sales:
Break-even point (in dollar sales) = Fixed costs / Contribution margin ratio
Break-even point = $12,480,000 / [0.75 * $150 + 0.25 * $150]
Break-even point = $12,480,000 / $150
Break-even point = $83,200, which implies that Whispering Winds Service would need to make $83,200 in sales to break even.
In conclusion, based on the given information, Whispering Winds Service would need to generate more than $83,200 in sales to begin making a profit, with a higher emphasis on oil changes, which account for 75% of total sales and have a 20% contribution margin ratio.
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ABC pays a one time freecashflow of 163 in 1yr. The firm risk is related with a required return of 0.18. For what value could you sell the firm's unlevered equity for today?
Free cash flow (FCF) is a metric that represents the cash generated or produced by a company after accounting for capital expenditure (CAPEX) and any other expenses required to sustain the business.
It is calculated as:
FCF = Operating Cash Flow - Capital Expenditure (CAPEX)
In this problem, the company ABC has paid a one-time free cash flow of 163 in one year.
We need to find out the present value of the company's unlevered equity. To find the present value of the company's unlevered equity, we need to use the discounted cash flow (DCF) method.
The formula for DCF is:
DCF = FCF / (1 + r)n
where FCF = free cash flow, r = required return, and n = number of years.
In this case, the free cash flow is 163, the required return is 0.18, and n = 1 (since the cash flow is for one year).
DCF = 163 / (1 + 0.18)1= 138.14
The present value of the company's unlevered equity is 138.14.
This is the value at which the firm's unlevered equity could be sold today.
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if unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed unrealized inter-company profits in beginning inventory, what will be the effect of the consolidation entries to eliminate unrealized inter-company inventory profits?
If the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed those in beginning inventory, the consolidation entries will adjust the inventory values by decreasing the subsidiary's inventory and increasing the parent company's investment in the subsidiary.
The consolidation entries to eliminate unrealized inter-company inventory profits depend on whether the subsidiary's inventory was sold or still on hand at the end of the period. Here's a step-by-step explanation:
1. If the subsidiary's inventory was sold by the end of the period, the consolidation entries will not be affected. Unrealized inter-company profits in beginning inventory are already eliminated when the subsidiary's inventory is sold to an external party.
2. If the subsidiary's inventory is still on hand at the end of the period, and the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed those in beginning inventory, the consolidation entries will adjust the inventory values. Here's the process:
a. Calculate the difference between the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory and beginning inventory.
b. Create an adjusting entry to decrease the subsidiary's inventory and increase the parent company's investment in the subsidiary.
c. Decrease the subsidiary's inventory by the calculated difference.
d. Increase the parent company's investment in the subsidiary by the same calculated difference.
e. This adjustment ensures that the inter-company profits are eliminated, resulting in more accurate consolidated financial statements.
In conclusion, if the unrealized inter-company profits in ending inventory exceed those in beginning inventory, the consolidation entries will adjust the inventory values by decreasing the subsidiary's inventory and increasing the parent company's investment in the subsidiary. This adjustment eliminates the unrealized inter-company inventory profits, leading to more accurate consolidated financial statements.
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Van Buren Resources Inc. is considering borrowing $80,000 for 197 days from its bank. Van Buren will pay $5,000 of interest at maturity, and it will repay the $80,000 of principal at maturity. Assume that there are 365 days per year.
Calculate the loan’s annual financing cost. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
Calculate the loan’s annual percentage rate. Round your answer to two decimal places.
%
What is the reason for the difference in your answers to Parts a and b?
The -Select-AFCAPRItem 3 does not consider compounding effects.
Borrowed amount, PV = $80,000 Days to maturity, n = 197 days
Total Interest paid at maturity, I = $5,000
Calculation of annual financing cost (AFC):
[tex]$$AFC=\frac{I}{PV\times n}$$$$AFC=\frac{5,000}{80,000\times \frac{197}{365}}$$$$AFC=0.0834=8.34\%$$[/tex]
Calculation of Annual percentage rate (APR):
[tex]$$APR=100\times \left(\frac{I}{PV}\times\frac{365}{n}\right)$$$$APR=100\times\left(\frac{5,000}{80,000}\times\frac{365}{197}\right)$$$$APR=17.05\%$$[/tex]
Reason for the difference in the answers of AFC and APR:
APR is higher than AFC because APR takes into account the effect of compounding of interest, while AFC does not consider the compounding effect.
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How do you insert these into files. I have no idea where to place the suggested edits.
Assuming you are referring to suggested edits in a file, here's how you can insert them into the file:
First, open the file you want to edit. Then, locate the suggested edits that have been given to you. These may be in the form of a diff file or a patch file. The main answer to your question is that you need to apply the suggested edits to the file by using a patch utility. There are many patch utilities available, such as diff, patch, and Git. These utilities work by comparing the original file with the edited file and generating a patch file that describes the changes that were made. You can then use this patch file to apply the changes to the original file. The patch utility will take care of inserting the edits at the appropriate places in the file.
Open a command prompt or terminal window and navigate to the directory containing the file you want to edit.
Type the following command:
patch < patchfile
Where patchfile is the name of the patch file you want to apply. Press Enter. The patch utility will read the patch file and apply the changes to the original file. If there are any conflicts, the patch utility will let you know and ask you to resolve them manually. Once the patch is applied, the suggested edits will be inserted into the file at the appropriate places.
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ACME Inc. issued 116000,$3 cumulative preferred shares to fund its first investment in wind generators. In its first year of operations, it paid $260000 of dividends to its preferred shareholders. How much are the dividends in arrears for the first year? Input your answer without a $ sign or comma. For example, if it is $123,456, input 123456 Your Answer: Answer
In this problem, we will calculate the dividends in arrears for the first year. Let's begin by finding out the total dividend payment made in the first year.Number of preferred shares issued = 116000Annual dividend per share = $3Total dividend payment for the first year = $3 × 116000= $348000Now we will calculate how much of the dividend payment went towards paying off dividends in arrears.Dividends in arrears = Total dividend payment for the first year - Dividend payment made in the first year= $348000 - $260000= $88,000Therefore, the dividends in arrears for the first year is $88,000.
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K purchased a $10,000 Life Policy that will pay the face amount to her if she lives to age 65, or to her beneficiary if she dies before age 65. K purchased which of the following types of policies?
a)Limited-Pay Life
b)Term to Age 65
c)Whole Life Paid-Up at Age 65
d)Endowment at Age 65
The type of life insurance policy that K purchased can be determined based on the given information.
In this case, K purchased a policy that will pay the face amount to her if she lives to age 65, or to her beneficiary if she dies before age 65.The policy that aligns with these conditions is: b) Term to Age 65
Term life insurance provides coverage for a specified term or period. In this case, the policy will provide coverage until age 65. If K survives until age 65, the policy will expire, and no further benefits will be paid. If K dies before reaching age 65, the face amount will be paid to her beneficiary.
Therefore, the correct answer is b) Term to Age 65
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Choose an oligopoly industry from your home country that creates a negative externality. (CASE STUDY)
The oligopoly industry I have chosen from my home country, which creates a negative externality is the telecommunication industry.
An oligopoly market is a type of market where a few companies dominate the market with their similar products. In the telecommunication industry, few companies provide services to millions of consumers.
The telecommunication industry has created a negative externality that has affected its consumers and society as a whole.
Telecommunication companies have been known to produce an excessive amount of electronic waste.
Millions of cellphones, computers, tablets and other devices that the company produces become outdated each year and are disposed of, which creates an environmental problem for society.
The disposal of these devices and their batteries affects the environment, leading to soil and water pollution.
Electronic waste also contains harmful chemicals that pose health risks to people and animals that come into contact with them.
Many telecommunication companies do not have an environmentally friendly waste management system, which further exacerbates the problem.
Furthermore, the oligopoly nature of the telecommunication industry leads to an increase in prices of telecommunication services.
Consumers have limited choices to choose from, and since a few companies dominate the market, these companies can fix their prices higher than they would be in a more competitive market.
This, in turn, affects the consumers' purchasing power and the country's economy as a whole.
The excessive production of electronic waste and the rise in prices of telecommunication services have posed problems that need urgent attention from the government and the industry itself.
There should be more regulations on waste management, and competition should be encouraged to create a more conducive environment for consumers and the economy.
In conclusion, the telecommunication industry in my home country, an oligopoly market, has created a negative externality that has impacted the environment, society, and the economy.
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The development of Computerized Information Systems could be due to the environment factors. Identify and explain an Information System which could be developed in the market or industry due to the following factors. You are required to discuss how the factor contributes to the development of the identified Information System:
a. Increment of global competition
b. Encouragement the usage of public transport.
c. Rapid usage of E-Commerce
d. Increment of working couples
The development of Computerized Information Systems (CIS) has been impacted by a wide range of environmental factors. In this context, this essay is aimed at identifying and explaining the information system which could be developed in the market or industry due to the following factors such as increment of global competition.
Encouragement of the usage of public transport, rapid usage of E-Commerce, and an increment of working couples. 1. Increment of Global Competition The development of the Supply Chain Management (SCM) information system can be explained by the increment of global competition in the market.
In today’s world, it is essential for the organization to have strong and effective SCM as the competition is increasing day by day. SCM is a system that manages and coordinates the movement of products and services from the supplier to the consumer.
This system optimizes the product’s flow in a supply chain to achieve maximum customer value and minimize the costs. Therefore, SCM has been developed to face global competition to optimize the production process and product delivery to the customers.
2. Encouragement of the Usage of Public Transport The Intelligent Transport System (ITS) information system is an example of an information system that could be developed due to the encouragement of the usage of public transport. ITS uses advanced technologies to improve transport efficiency, safety, and traffic management.
The system optimizes the use of transportation infrastructures by reducing congestion, emissions, and accidents. This system has been developed to encourage the use of public transport, as it promotes a greener and more sustainable environment.
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Hatter Co. is expected to generate pre-tax profit of $4,683,500 this year. The board of directors have also announced that they will invest in an expansion project with a cost of $5,492,000. The project will be partially funded by a new $3,200,000 bank loan and the rest via retained profit. At the moment, the business has 675,000 shares outstanding and a market share price of $16.20. In addition, the corporate tax rate is 20%. (i) Assuming that the firm will pay out the remaining profit as dividends after it has financed its projects, calculate the dividend payout ratio of Hatter Co (5 marks) (ii) Determine its dividend yield. (3 marks) (iii) Assuming ceteris paribus, explain what would happen to the Hatter Co.'s share price after the ex-dividend date (relevant calculation is required here). (5 marks) (iv) Explain the theory that best describes the dividend practice of this firm. (4 marks) (b) You are considering these 2 stocks as potential investments: - Red Queen Ltd. is currently priced at $35. It will pay a dividend of $2.75 p.a. for two years, but no dividend in the 3 rd year. You plan to sell the stock at the end of 3 rd year for $45. - Cheshire Inc. is currently priced at \$35. It does not pay any dividends. You expect it can be sold at the end of 3 rd year for $50.50. You are in the 37% personal tax bracket. Dividends are taxed at the personal rate, but capital gains are taxed at a flat rate of 12%. Assuming a Ke of 9%, which stock is the better choice? (10 marks) (c) Critically discuss TWO (2) reasons when a share repurchase is better for shareholders (as opposed to a cash dividend). (Total: 33 marks)
(i) Dividend payout ratio is calculated as the amount of dividends paid to shareholders relative to the total net income of the company. The dividend payout ratio of Hatter Co. can be calculated using the following formula:Dividend Payout Ratio = Dividend per Share / Earnings per Share (EPS)EPS = (Profit - Tax) / Number of Shares outstanding (N)EPS = ($4,683,500 - ($4,683,500 x 0.2)) / 675,000 = $3.3475DPS = (Total Investment - Loan) / N = ($5,492,000 - $3,200,000) / 675,000 = $3.32148.
Dividend Payout Ratio = $3.32148 / $3.3475 = 0.0078 or 0.78%(ii) Dividend yield is the annual dividend per share divided by the current market price per share. Dividend Yield = Annual Dividend per Share / Current Market Price per ShareAnnual Dividend per Share = Total Dividend / Number of SharesN = 675,000Current Market Price per Share = $16.20Total Dividend = (Total Investment - Loan) x Dividend Payout RatioTotal Dividend = ($5,492,000 - $3,200,000) x 0.0078 = $12,429.60Annual Dividend per Share = $12,429.60 / 675,000 = $0.0184Dividend Yield = $0.0184 / $16.20 = 0.00114 or 1.14%(iii) After the ex-dividend date, Hatter Co.'s share price will decline by the amount of the dividend per share. In this case, the dividend per share is $0.0184, so the share price will drop by $0.0184 to $16.1816 = ($16.20 - $0.0184)(iv) Hatter Co.'s dividend practice can be described by the bird-in-hand theory. The bird-in-hand theory suggests that investors prefer dividends to potential capital gains because a dollar of dividends is worth more than a dollar of capital gains.
By paying out dividends, the company is signaling that it is profitable and that it has sufficient cash to continue paying dividends. This increases investor confidence and attracts more investors to buy the company's stock.(b)To determine which stock is the better choice, we must calculate the present value of each stock. We can use the following formula to calculate the present value of future cash flows:P = CF1 / (1 + r)^1 + CF2 / (1 + r)^2 + CF3 / (1 + r)^3 - Iwhere,P = Present value of the stockCF = Cash flowr = Discount rateI = Initial investmentRed Queen Ltd.:CF1 = $2.75CF2 = $2.75CF3 = $47.75I = $35P = $2.75 / (1 + 0.09)^1 + $2.75 / (1 + 0.09)^2 + $47.75 / (1 + 0.09)^3 - $35 = $36.53Cheshire Inc.:CF1 = $0CF2 = $0CF3 = $50.50I = $35P = $50.50 / (1 + 0.09)^3 - $35 = $7.24Since the present value of Red Queen Ltd. is greater than the present value of Cheshire Inc., Red Queen Ltd. is the better choice.(c)Two reasons why share repurchase is better for shareholders as opposed to a cash dividend are as follows
:1. Taxation: Share repurchases can be more tax-efficient than cash dividends because shareholders can defer paying capital gains taxes until they sell their shares. In contrast, cash dividends are taxed in the year they are received, and they are subject to both ordinary income tax rates and capital gains tax rates.
2. Flexibility: Share repurchases are more flexible than cash dividends because the company can adjust the amount and timing of the repurchases to meet its cash flow needs. In contrast, cash dividends are usually paid on a regular schedule, which can make it difficult for the company to adjust the amount of cash it distributes to shareholders.
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While examining the books and records in the general and administrative expense account of X Ltd., you came across the following contribution to the registered pension plan made by the Company on behalf of two key employees for the year ended December 31st.2021:-
Registered Pension…………………..Employment
Plan compensation,2021
President……………………………………..$15,000……………………………………….$180,000
Vice President……………………………….$14,000………………………………………..$ 95,000
The pension plan is a defined contribution(money purchase)plan. The contribution shown were matched by equal contribution made by the employees. Reconciling accounting income to to Division B income, you discover that the following portion of RPP contribution should be disallowed from being expensed by the X Ltd for tax purposes for the year ended December 31st.2021:-
a. $NIL
b. $13070
c. $10,000
d. $11,690
Disallowed portion of Registered Pension Plan contribution for tax purposes is $11,690. So option d is the correct one.
The amount that should be disallowed for the X Ltd. for tax purposes for the year ended December 31st, 2021 is $11,690.
Since the pension plan is a defined contribution (money purchase) plan, the contribution indicated was matched by an equal contribution made by the employees.
Let us determine the annual maximum pensionable earnings for 2021.
For 2021, the annual maximum pensionable earnings is $61,600.
Therefore, the maximum contribution for 2021 is 18% of $61,600 or $11,088.
However, as shown in the question, the president's contribution is $15,000 and the vice president's contribution is $14,000, which together total $29,000.
Therefore, for the president, the disallowed portion would be $15,000 - $11,088 = $3,912.
For the vice president, the disallowed portion would be $14,000 - $11,088 = $2,912.
The sum of $3,912 and $2,912 is $11,690.
Therefore, the amount that should be disallowed for the X Ltd. for tax purposes for the year ended December 31st, 2021 is $11,690, which is option D.
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How much is accumulated in each of the savings plans over two years? a. Deposit €1300 today at 10 percent compounded annually. b. Deposit €600 today at 18 percent compounded monthly. a. The total amount in the savings plan at the end of two years when depositing €1300 today at 10 percent compounded annually will be ϵ (Round to the nearest hundredth as needed.) b. The total amount in the savings plan at the end of two years when depositing €600 today at 18 percent compounded monthly will be ϵ (Round to the nearest hundredth as needed.)
Deposit €1300 today at 10 percent compounded annually. The formula to calculate the total amount in the savings plan is given by [tex]A = P (1 + r/n)^(nt)[/tex]
Putting the values in the formula, we get:[tex]A = 1300 (1 + 0.1/1)^(1 × 2)A = €1716.10[/tex] The total amount in the savings plan at the end of two years when depositing €1300 today at 10 percent compounded annually will be €1716.10. Deposit €600 today at 18 percent compounded monthly. The formula to calculate the total amount in the savings plan is given by
[tex]A = P (1 + r/n)^(nt) Where,P = €600r = 18 % per annum (compounded monthly).[/tex]
So, [tex]r = 18/12 = 1.5 % per month (in decimal form, r = 0.015)n = 12t = 2 years.[/tex]Putting the values in the formula, we get:
[tex]A = 600 (1 + 0.015/12)^(12 × 2)A = €1004.60[/tex]The total amount in the savings plan at the end of two years when depositing[tex]€600 today at 18 percent compounded monthly will be €1004.60.[/tex]
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\begin{tabular}{|c||l} \hline \multicolumn{1}{|c||}{ Transaction } & \multicolumn{1}{c}{ Description of transaction } \\ \hline 01. & June 1: Hudson Bloom invested $156,648.00 cash and computer equipment with a fair market value of $37,440.00 in his new business, Byte of Accounting. \\ \hline 02. & June 1: Check # 5000 was used to purchased office equipment costing $1,128.00 from Office Express. The invoice number was 87417. \\ \hline \end{tabular} 03. June 1: Check # 5001 was used to purchased computer equipment costing $12,480.00 from leverett hallowell. The invoice number was 20117. June 2: Check # 5002 was used to make a down payment of $29,000.00 on additional computer equipment 04. that was purchased from Royce Computers, invoice number 76542. The full price of the computer was $145,000.00. A five-year note was executed by Byte for the balance. 05. June 4: Additional office equipment costing $400.00 was purchased on credit from Discount Computer Corporation. The invoice number was 98432 . 06. June 8: Unsatisfactory office equipment costing $80.00 from invoice number 98432 was returned to Discount Computer for credit to be applied against the outstanding balance owed by Byte. 07. June 10: Check # 5003 was used to make a $22,250.00 payment reducing the principal owed on the June 2 purchase of computer equipment from Royce Computers. June 14: Check # 5004 was used to purchase a one-year insurance policy covering its computer equipment 08. for $5,640.00 from Seth's Insurance. The effective date of the policy was June 16 and the invoice number was 2387. 09. June 16: A check in the amount of $7,250.00 was received for services performed for Pitman Pictures. June 16: Byte purchased a building and the land it is on for $125,000.00 to house its repair facilities and to store computer equipment. The lot on which the building is located is valued at $20,000.00. The balance of the cost is to be allocated to the building. Check # 5005 was used to make the down payment of $12,500.00. A thirty year mortgage with an inital payement due on August 1st, was established for the balance. \begin{tabular}{l|l} 11. June 17: Check # 5006 for\$7,200.00 was paid for rent of the office space for June, July, August and \\ September. \end{tabular} September. 12. June 17: Received invoice number 26354 in the amount of $375.00 from the local newspaper for advertising. 13. June 21: Billed various miscellaneous local customers $4,900.00 for consulting services performed. \begin{tabular}{l||l} 14. & June 21: Check # 5008 was used to purchase a fax machine for the office from Office $775.00. The invoice number was 975−328. \\ 15. & June 21: Accounts payable in the amount of $320.00 were paid with Check # 5007. \end{tabular} 16. June 22: Check # 5010 was used to pay the advertising bill that was received on June 17. \begin{tabular}{l|l} 17. June 22: Received a bill for $1,215.00 from Computer Parts and Repair Co. for repairs to the computer \\ equipment. The invoice number was 43254. \end{tabular} \begin{tabular}{l|l} 18. June 22: Check # 5009 was used to pay salaries of $1,010.00 to equipment operators for the week ending \\ June 18. Ignore payroll taxes. \end{tabular} 19. June 23: Cash in the amount of $3,925.00 was received on billings. 20. June 23: Purchased office supplies for $680.00 from Staples on account. The invoice number was 65498. Adjusting Entries - Round to two decimal places. 27. The rent payment made on June 17 was for June, July, August and September. Expense the amount 28. A physical inventory showed that only $281.00 worth of office supplies remained on hand as of June 30 . 29. The annual interest rate on the mortgage payable was 7.00 percent. Interest expense for one-half month should be computed because the building and land were purchased and the liability incurred on June 16. 30. Record a journal entry to reflect that one half month's insurance has expired. \begin{tabular}{l|l} 31. & review of Byte's job worksheets show that there are unbilled revenues in the amount of $5,125 for the \\ period of June 28-30. \end{tabular} period of June 28-30.
On June 16, Byte of Accounting purchased a building and land for $125,000, with a down payment of $12,500.
June 1: Hudson Bloom invested $156,648.00 cash and computer equipment with a fair market value of $37,440.00 in his new business, Byte of Accounting.
June 1: Check # 5000 was used to purchase office equipment costing $1,128.00 from Office Express. The invoice number was 87417.
June 1: Check # 5001 was used to purchase computer equipment costing $12,480.00 from Leverett Hallowell. The invoice number was 20117.
June 2: Check # 5002 was used to make a down payment of $29,000.00 on additional computer equipment that was purchased from Royce Computers, invoice number 76542. The full price of the computer was $145,000.00. A five-year note was executed by Byte for the balance.
June 4: Additional office equipment costing $400.00 was purchased on credit from Discount Computer Corporation. The invoice number was 98432.
June 8: Unsatisfactory office equipment costing $80.00 from invoice number 98432 was returned to Discount Computer for credit to be applied against the outstanding balance owed by Byte.
June 10: Check # 5003 was used to make a $22,250.00 payment reducing the principal owed on the June 2 purchase of computer equipment from Royce Computers.
June 14: Check # 5004 was used to purchase a one-year insurance policy covering its computer equipment for $5,640.00 from Seth's Insurance. The effective date of the policy was June 16, and the invoice number was 2387.
June 16: A check in the amount of $7,250.00 was received for services performed for Pitman Pictures.
June 16: Byte purchased a building and the land it is on for $125,000.00 to house its repair facilities and store computer equipment. The lot on which the building is located is valued at $20,000.00. The balance of the cost is to be allocated to the building. Check # 5005 was used to make the down payment of $12,500.00. A thirty-year mortgage with an initial payment due on August 1st was established for the balance.
June 17: Check # 5006 for $7,200.00 was paid for rent of the office space for June, July, August, and September.
June 17: Received invoice number 26354 in the amount of $375.00 from the local newspaper for advertising.
June 21: Billed various miscellaneous local customers $4,900.00 for consulting services performed.
June 21: Check # 5008 was used to purchase a fax machine for the office from Office Express for $775.00. The invoice number was 975-328.
June 21: Accounts payable in the amount of $320.00 were paid with Check # 5007.
June 22: Check # 5010 was used to pay the advertising bill that was received on June 17.
June 22: Received a bill for $1,215.00 from Computer Parts and Repair Co. for repairs to the computer equipment. The invoice number was 43254.
June 22: Check # 5009 was used to pay salaries of $1,010.00 to equipment operators for the week ending June 18. Ignore payroll taxes.
June 23: Cash in the amount of $3,925.00 was received on billings.
June 23: Purchased office supplies for $680.00 from Staples on account. The invoice number was 65498.
Adjusting Entries:
June 27: The rent payment made on June 17 was
for June, July, August, and September. Expense the amount.
June 28: A physical inventory showed that only $281.00 worth of office supplies remained on hand as of June 30.
June 29: The annual interest rate on the mortgage payable was 7.00 percent. Interest expense for one-half month should be computed because the building and land were purchased, and the liability incurred on June 16.
June 30: Record a journal entry to reflect that one half month's insurance has expired.
June 30: Review of Byte's job worksheets show that there are unbilled revenues in the amount of $5,125 for the period of June 28-30.
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Suppose Dire Dawa University negotiated with a contractor two buildone building for an electronic library. However, the contractorwants to maximize profit from that building. The contractoruses both labor and capital, and the efficient combinationsof Labor and capital that are sufficient to make one building is given bythe function 0.25 L1/2K1/2 . If the prices of labor (w) and capital (r) are $ 5and $ 10 respectively.Find the least cost combination of L and K, and the minimum cost?
The least-cost combination of L and K is L ≈ 0.004 and K ≈ 0.004, and the minimum cost is $0.09.
The efficient combination of Labor and capital sufficient to make one building is given by the function 0.25 L1/2K1/2.
Given the prices of labor (w) and capital (r) as $ 5 and $ 10 respectively, we can calculate the least cost combination of L and K and the minimum cost.
The firm wants to maximize profit from the building, thus it would want to minimize the cost of production.
Therefore, to find the least-cost combination of L and K, we need to equate the cost of production (C) to the budget allocated to the project (B).
The cost function is given as: C = wL + rK where, w = price of labor = $5r = price of capital = $10B = Budget allocated to the project
Thus, C = 5L + 10K ≤ B Substituting L and K from the given function into the cost function, we get: C = 5L + 10K = 5L + 10(0.25 L1/2K1/2 ) = 5L + 2.5L1/2K1/2
This equation will be minimized by taking the first derivative with respect to L, equating it to zero, and solving for L. Thus, dC/dL = 5 + 1.25L-1/2K1/2 = 0 ⇒ L-1/2K1/2 = -4
So,[tex]L1/2K1/2 = 1/(-4)2L1/2K1/2 = 1/16L = 1/16² ≈ 0.004K = 1/16² ≈ 0.004[/tex]
Substituting the values of L and K in the cost function C = 5L + 10K, we get, C = 5(0.004) + 10(0.004)C = $0.09
Therefore, the least-cost combination of L and K is L ≈ 0.004 and K ≈ 0.004, and the minimum cost is $0.09.
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FIN200 CORPORATE FINANCIAL
MANAGEMENT
Why CAPM equation might be more relevant than other equations
when calculating the required rate of return.
The CAPM equation, or Capital Asset Pricing Model equation, is often considered more relevant than other equations when calculating the required rate of return. It takes into account the risk and return relationship of an investment and provides a systematic approach to estimating the expected return.
The CAPM equation, developed by William Sharpe, is widely used in finance for determining the required rate of return on an investment. It is considered more relevant than other equations for several reasons.
Firstly, the CAPM equation incorporates the concept of systematic risk, which is the risk associated with the overall market. It considers the relationship between the expected return of an investment and its sensitivity to market movements, as measured by beta. By including systematic risk, the CAPM equation captures the risk that cannot be diversified away and reflects the market's perception of the investment's riskiness.
Secondly, the CAPM equation provides a systematic framework for estimating the required rate of return. It takes into account the risk-free rate of return, the market risk premium, and the beta of the investment. This equation allows for a consistent and standardized approach to evaluating the return expectations of different investments.
Furthermore, the CAPM equation has been widely accepted and used in both academic and professional settings. Its popularity is due to its simplicity and intuitive appeal. While other equations may exist for estimating required rates of return, they often lack the same level of acceptance and empirical support as the CAPM equation.
Overall, the CAPM equation's consideration of systematic risk, its systematic framework for estimating required rates of return, and its widespread acceptance make it a more relevant tool than other equations when calculating the required rate of return. However, it is important to note that the CAPM has its limitations and assumptions, and alternative models and approaches should also be considered depending on the specific context and characteristics of the investment being analyzed.
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When the leverage ratio (D/E) ratio is 1 , then we can conclude that: Select one: a. Debt = Equity b. All answers are true c. Assets are financed by 50% of Debt d. Assets are financed by 50% of Equity Clear my choice
When the leverage ratio (D/E) ratio is 1, then we can conclude that the debt and equity financing of the assets are equal. This means that the correct answer is option a. Debt = Equity.
The debt-equity ratio is a financial metric that compares a company's overall debt to the amount of shareholder equity. The D/E ratio can be computed in two ways: dividing total liabilities by total shareholder equity or dividing the total debt by total shareholder equity.
In other words, a debt-to-equity ratio of 1:1 implies that the proportion of debt and equity financing for the assets is equal. This suggests that the amount of money borrowed is equal to the amount of money invested by shareholders.
So, when the leverage ratio (D/E) ratio is 1, we can conclude that the debt and equity financing of the assets are equal, hence option a is correct.
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You own a factory that hand-manufactures clay pots and molcajetes*. 8oth use the same amount of material, but the clay pot requires 2 labor hours to produce, while the mokajete requires only 1 hour. The clay pot. sells for $50 and has variable costs of $38. The molcajete sells for $35 and has wanable costs of $25, You're only able to employ workers for 2,000 total hours permonth. 1 What is the unit of conctroined resource in this scenario, and how much coetribution margin does each product provide per unit of constrained resource? 2. How many of each unit should this factory produce permonth if there are no demand constraints? 3 . If demand is limited to 1,500 of each type, how mamy of each type should be produced per month?
1. The total available labour hours, which are restricted to 2,000 hours per month, serve as the unit of constrained resource in this scenario.
By dividing the contribution margin of each product by the number of labour hours necessary to make that product, it is possible to determine the contribution margin per unit of constrained resource.The clay pot:
Selling price minus variable costs equals contribution margin per unit.= $50 - $38 = $12Contribution margin per unit of constrained resource equals contribution margin per unit / labour hours necessary, which is $12 divided by 2 hours, or $6 per labour hour.For the molecular jug:
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Consider the following four terms and explain what they are
SWOT:
Crisis management:
Competitive strategy:
Goals:
Share how they are related
SWOT Analys is SWOT is an abbreviation for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. It is a strategic planning tool that aids businesses in assessing their internal and external environments.
The process's aim is to pinpoint the organization's advantages, limitations, future opportunities, and possible threats. It's utilized to recognize and solve problems and make decisions. Crisis Management Crisis management is the procedure by which an organization manages a significant event that jeopardizes its reputation, brand, and/or viability.
It involves recognizing and assessing risks, taking proactive measures to minimize damage, and developing and implementing recovery strategies to ensure that the organization bounces back. Competitive Strategy A competitive strategy is a plan for a business to gain a competitive edge over its rivals.
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Required information Problem 12-6A (Algo) Use ratios to analyze risk and profitability ( LO12-3, 12-4) [The following information applies to the questions displayed below.] Income statements and balance sheets data for Virtual Gaming Systems are provided below. Required: 1. Assuming that all sales were on account, calculate the following risk ratios for 2024 and 2025
We need additional data, such as net income, total assets, and total liabilities, to compute risk ratios for Virtual Gaming Systems for 2024 and 2025.
It is impossible to generate detailed risk ratio estimations without these specifics. I can, however, give you a list of often employed risk ratios that you can compute using the pertinent data from the income statements and balance sheets:1. Debt-to-Equity Ratio: This ratio assesses how much debt financing there is compared to equity financing and shows how risky and leveraged the company's finances are.2. Current Ratio: This ratio evaluates the company's capacity to pay current obligations and short-term liquidity
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In Spain, a glass of wine costs 5 euros. In Canada, a glass of wine costs 6 Canadian dollars. If the exchange rate is 0.6 euros per Canadian dollar, what is the real exchange rote? 2 glatses of Spanish mine per glass of Canadian wine 0.5 glasses of Spanish wine per glass of Canadian wine 1.39 glasses of Spanish wine per glass of Canadian wine Q.72 glasses of Spanish wine per glaes of Canadian wine
The real exchange rate is 0.83 glasses of Spanish wine per glass of Canadian wine.
To calculate this, divide the cost of Spanish wine (5 euros) by the cost of Canadian wine (6 Canadian dollars multiplied by the exchange rate of 0.6 euros per Canadian dollar). the result is 0.83, indicating that you can buy approximately 0.83 glasses of Spanish wine for the price of 1 glass of Canadian wine. to calculate the real exchange rate between Spanish wine and Canadian wine, we need to determine how many glasses of Spanish wine you can buy for the price of one glass of Canadian wine. given that a glass of Spanish wine costs 5 euros and a glass of Canadian wine costs 6 Canadian dollars, we need to convert the Canadian dollar price into euros using the exchange rate of 0.6 euros per Canadian dollar.
First, we calculate the price of one glass of Canadian wine in euros: 6 Canadian dollars * 0.6 euros per Canadian dollar = 3.6 euros now, we can determine the real exchange rate by dividing the cost of Spanish wine (5 euros) by the cost of Canadian wine in euros (3.6 euros) 5 euros / 3.6 euros = 1.39 therefore, the real exchange rate is approximately 1.39 glasses of Spanish wine per glass of Canadian wine. This means that for the price of one glass of Canadian wine, you can buy approximately 1.39 glasses of Spanish wine.
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Segmented Net Income, ROI, and RI. Custom Auto Company has two divisions—East and West. The following segmented financial information is for the most recent fiscal year:
East Division West Division
Sales $2,000,000 $4,000,000
Cost of goods sold 800,000 2,040,000
Allocated overhead 600,000 1,200,000
Selling and administrative expenses 360,000 380,000
The East division had average operating assets totaling $1,800,000 for the year, and the West division had average operating assets of $2,600,000. Assume the cost of capital rate is 8 percent, and the company’s tax rate is 30 percent. Division managers are responsible for sales, costs, and investments in assets.
Required:
What type of responsibility center is each division at Custom Auto Company? Explain.
Prepare a segmented income statement. Include the profit margin ratio for each division at the bottom of the segmented income statement.
Calculate ROI for each division.
Calculate RI for each division.
Summarize the answers to parts a, b, and c. What does this information tell us about each division?
The operating income for the West Division is $380,000 - (Cost of capital rate * Average operating assets) = $380,000 - ($0.08 * $2,600,000) = $124,800.
At Custom Auto Company, both the East and West divisions are profitable. In order to achieve profitability, managers are responsible for producing income, reducing costs, and managing assets in a profit centre.
Income Statement by Segment:
Divided into: East, West, and East
---------------------------------------------
Sales | $2,000,000 | $4,000,000
Selling and administrative costs: 360,000 | 380,000 Cost of goods sold: 800,000 | 2,040,000 Allocated overhead: 600,000 | 1,200,000
---------------------------------------------
Operating earnings: $240,000; $380,000
Profit Rate of Margin:
$240,000 / $2,000,000 equals 12% for the East Division.
West Division: 3.80% of $4 million is 9.5%.
Operating income divided by average operating assets for the East Division equals $240,000 divided by $1,800,000, or 13.33%.
Operating income/average operating assets in the West Division equals $380,000/$2,600,000, or 14.62%.
Calculating RI
Operating income in the East Division is $240,000 - (Cost of capital rate * Average Operating Assets) - ($0.80 * $1,800,000) = $96,000.
Operating income - (Cost of capital rate) for the West Division
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A money is an item that has no use apart from serving as a commonly accepted medium of exchange. Modern examples include the dollar, euro, and renminbi. fiat inside outside commodity Question 9When a government confers courts are required to recognize the item as satisfactory payment of any monetary debt, and might settle disputes by requiring payment in the item. Unlike a it does not require the item be accepted in spot market transaction. forced money law; legal tender status legal tender status; forced money law publicly receivable; legal tender status publicly receivable; forced money law
Legal tender status is when a government confers courts are required to recognize the item as satisfactory payment of any monetary debt, and might settle disputes by requiring payment in the item. It does not require the item be accepted in spot market transaction. This means that legal tender status is publicly receivable.
What is legal tender status?
Legal tender status is when the government declares certain legal tender status to be usable as an instrument of payment for the discharge of debts and taxes. By providing legal tender status to a medium of exchange, the government effectively certifies that a monetary item is acceptable as payment for goods and services in any kind of financial transaction.
Legal tender status guarantees that any money regarded as lawful money by a country's government can be used as a means of payment for goods and services, as well as the settlement of debts. In this way, legal tender status makes it easier for people to trade, buy, and sell things in the economy. In addition, legal tender status provides some security for people who do business with others because they know that they can receive payment in legal tender.
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What is the best definition of vertical foreign direct investment?
a. A company builds its supply chain using businesses in other countries.
b. Corporations in different countries merge with each other.
c. A company opens an office in another country.
d. A joint venture agreement between two businesses in different countries.
Vertical Foreign Direct Investment refers to an investment in which firms in one country move into another country to build factories, offices, and acquire existing firms.
The correct answer is option A, which is "A company builds its supply chain using businesses in other countries."Explanation:Vertical F D I is an investment where firms move into foreign countries and acquire or merge with existing firms, build offices, and factories to set up supply chains. These investments are made to gain control over the entire production chain.
It is a strategy that allows companies to reduce production costs by using foreign suppliers and providing products that are lower in cost and high in quality than domestic suppliers.Vertical F D I is categorized into two types. The first type of vertical F D I is backward, where a company invests in its suppliers in another country.
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the following annual costs are associated with three new extruder machines being considered for use in a styrofoam cup plant:
The annual costs associated with the three new extruder machines being considered for use in a styrofoam cup plant need to be provided in order to give a clear and concise answer.
To determine the costs associated with the three extruder machines, we would need to know the specific costs involved. This could include the purchase price of each machine, the cost of installation, any maintenance or repair costs, and any additional operating expenses. Once we have these costs, we can calculate the total annual cost for each machine by adding up all the expenses. This will give us a clear understanding of the financial implications of each machine.
Additionally, it's important to consider the expected lifespan of the machines and their potential productivity. A more expensive machine may have a longer lifespan and higher productivity, resulting in lower costs in the long run.Ultimately, the decision on which extruder machine to choose will depend on the specific costs associated with each machine and the long-term benefits they provide.
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What would idle land/facilities withdrawn from production be
classified as on a balance sheet?
- Property, Plant, Equipment
- Other Assets
- Inventory
- Long-term Investment
The correct answer to the question is "Other Assets". Idle land/facilities withdrawn from production can be classified as "Other Assets" on a balance sheet.What is a balance sheet? A balance sheet is a financial statement that provides a snapshot of a company's financial position at a particular time.
It reveals what a company owns (assets), what it owes (liabilities), and the amount of owner's equity, which is the remaining interest in the business assets after deducting liabilities. In general, idle land/facilities withdrawn from production is categorized as "Other Assets" on a balance sheet. In the current assets category, other assets are often referred to as long-term assets that are not categorized as any of the previous types of assets. Other assets include fixed assets that are not used in the ordinary course of business, patents and trademarks, and goodwill. A company's unused land or facilities may be classified as "Other Assets" because they are not used in the regular course of business and can be considered long-term assets. Thus, the correct answer to the question is "Other Assets".
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: As a professional engineer, you are required to demonstrates application of knowledge and understanding of the impact of engineering activity on the society, economy, industrial and physical environment, cultural and address issues by analysis and evaluation to manage risk. [20]
As a professional engineer, it is crucial to apply knowledge and understanding of how engineering activities impact society, the economy, the industrial and physical environment, and cultural aspects. This includes analyzing and evaluating these impacts to effectively address issues and manage risks associated with engineering projects.
Professional engineers have a responsibility to assess the consequences of their engineering activities across various domains. They need to consider the societal impact by ensuring their projects align with public needs, safety, and well-being. Evaluating the economic implications involves conducting cost-benefit analyses and assessing the project's contribution to the economy.
Furthermore, engineers must address the industrial and physical environment by mitigating adverse effects on natural resources, minimizing pollution, and promoting sustainability. Cultural considerations involve respecting cultural heritage, diversity, and inclusivity in engineering designs and implementations.
Through analysis and evaluation, engineers identify potential risks associated with their projects and implement strategies to manage and mitigate those risks effectively. By demonstrating these competencies, professional engineers ensure that their work aligns with societal values, promotes sustainable development, and effectively manages risks.
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The term marginal cost means the cost of an incremental unit of abatement the cost of the last unit of abatement average cost, which takes into account all of the abatement done rather than only the last unit the weighted average cost of all of the abatement done. A,B, and C are correct A and B are correct
The term marginal cost means the cost of an incremental unit of abatement and the cost of the last unit of abatement. The correct options are A and B.
A marginal cost is an addition to the total cost caused by producing one more unit of product.
The marginal cost is the cost of producing the last item or service.
Marginal cost is the difference between the cost of producing the current quantity and the cost of producing an additional unit of output.
The average cost is the total cost divided by the total number of units. It takes into account all of the abatement done rather than only the last unit.
The weighted average cost of all of the abatements done is a more accurate way to calculate the cost of abatement than using the marginal cost of the last unit of abatement.
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Forwards & Arbitrage Opportunities
Suppose that the exchange rate between the US dollar and the Euro is Edollar/euro 1.1, and that you = expect it to be around 1.3 in 6 months from now. Suppose also that you have 10,000 dollars and that the forward rate of dollars per euro is Fdollar/euro = 1.2. Describe in detail the arbitrage strategy that you would engage in and calculate the profits you would obtain from it.
Arbitrage is the simultaneous purchase and sale of an asset to profit from the difference in price between two markets. The concept of forward rate arbitrage involves the difference between the spot and forward rate of two currencies. To take advantage of this arbitrage opportunity, traders would typically follow these steps:
First, convert the 10,000 dollars to Euros at the current spot rate:
10,000 USD * 1.1 (spot rate) = 11,000 Euros
Then, enter into a forward contract to sell Euros and buy dollars in 6 months time at the forward rate:
11,000 Euros / 1.2 (forward rate) = 9,166.67 USD
Now, we need to calculate how much profit we make by holding this forward contract. If the exchange rate moves as expected to 1.3 in 6 months, the profit would be:
11,000 Euros * (1.3 - 1.1) = 2,200 Euros
Converting this back to USD at the forward rate, we get:
2,200 Euros / 1.2 (forward rate) = 1,833.33 USD
Therefore, the total profit is:
1,833.33 - 9,166.67 = $7,333.33
By engaging in this arbitrage strategy, the trader would earn $7,333.33 in profit. This is a low-risk strategy because the trader has locked in a known profit by purchasing the Euros at the current spot rate and selling them forward at the known forward rate. However, in practice, the opportunity for forward rate arbitrage may not exist due to factors such as transaction costs, interest rates, and liquidity constraints.
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What was the main reason of Pandesic's failing?
What was the main reason of Pandesic's failing?
The simpler, less expensive product did not have a target market.
The leaders of Pandesic did not have the right experience. They did not attend the right schools of experience. Therefore, they did not know the right questions to ask.
Intel and SAP were two very different companies. Therefore, synergy was impossible to achieve.
This joint venture required both companies to invest too much money.
The main reason for Pandesic's failing was that this joint venture required both companies to invest too much money.
Pandesic was a joint venture between Intel and SAP that was established to provide e-commerce services to small and medium-sized businesses in the late 1990s. The company was unsuccessful and was shut down in 2000. Pandesic had invested a lot of money in its proprietary software and customised services. As a result, the firm was unable to meet the needs of smaller firms, which preferred a simpler, less expensive product.The majority of Pandesic's customers were small and medium-sized businesses. These customers were often unable to afford Pandesic's services. Pandesic did not offer a simpler, less expensive product that would appeal to these smaller customers, according to some business analysts. Pandesic's complex, customised services were aimed at bigger, more profitable clients, but these clients did not see the advantages of outsourcing their e-commerce services to Pandesic.
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canadian adventures has earnings per share of $2.86 and dividends per share of $1.80. the total equity of the firm is $750,000. there are 38,000 shares of stock outstanding. what is the sustainable rate of growth? group of answer choices
If canadian adventures has earnings per share of $2.86 and dividends per share of $1.80. The sustainable rate of growth for Canadian Adventures is 5.37%.
What is the Sustainable Rate of Growth?First we need to calculate the retention ratio
Retention Ratio = (EPS - DPS) / EPS
Retention Ratio = ($2.86 - $1.80) / $2.86
Retention Ratio = $1.06 / $2.86
Retention Ratio ≈ 0.370
Next we need to calculate the return on equity (ROE)
ROE = Net Income / Total Equity
ROE = (EPS * Number of shares outstanding) / Total Equity
ROE = ($2.86 * 38,000) / $750,000
ROE ≈ 0.145
Now we can calculate the sustainable rate of growth
Sustainable Rate of Growth = Retention Ratio * Return on Equity
Sustainable Rate of Growth = 0.370 * 0.145
Sustainable Rate of Growth ≈ 0.0537
Sustainable Rate of Growth ≈ 5.37%
Therefore, the sustainable rate of growth for Canadian Adventures is 5.37%.
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HW Setup an amortization schedule for a $96,000 loan, to be repaid in 33/4 years with quarterly payments at an interest rate of 8%, compounded quarterly. n=?? i=?? i=??
Setup an amortization schedule for a $96,000 loan, to be repaid in 33/4 years with quarterly payments at an interest rate of 8%, compounded quarterly`. solve the above question, we can use the formula:
PV = [C/(1 + i) + C/(1 + i)^2 + ... + C/(1 + i)^n] - B(1 + i)^-n
Where,PV = Present Value of the loan
C = Payment made at the end of each period
i = Interest rate per period
n = Total number of periods
The interest rate per period `i` can be calculated as `i = 0.08/4 = 0.02` (since the interest rate is 8% per annum and compounded quarterly)The value of `i` can also be considered as `2%`.
Substituting these values in the above equation, we get:
96000 = [C/(1 + 0.02) + C/(1 + 0.02)^2 + ... + C/(1 + 0.02)^33] - B(1 + 0.02)^-33
Now, let's find the value of `C`. We know that the loan is to be repaid in 33/4 years and there are 4 quarters in a year.
Therefore, the total number of payments `m` that needs to be made is `m = 33 × 4 = 132`.The amount of each quarterly payment can be calculated using the formula:
PMT = PV[i(1 + i)^n]/[(1 + i)^n - 1]
PMT = 96000[0.02(1 + 0.02)^15]/[(1 + 0.02)^15 - 1]
PMT = 96000(0.02 × 4.6419)/(4.6419 - 1)
PMT = 96000(0.09284) / 3.6419
PMT = 2448.98 ≈ 2449
Therefore, each quarterly payment should be $2449.
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