Answer:
The options are:
A. Did a lack of Rain cause the hemlocks to stop reproducing?
B. Are deer eating most of the young hemlocks?
C. Do the young hemlocks have a disease?
D. Why are there so many deer in the forest?
The answer is B. Are deer eating most of the young hemlocks?
Hemlocks are referred to as plants which are considered poisonous when eaten by animals. Since Deers are herbivorous and eats plants alone then the most suitable option will be B which talks about if the deers are eating most of the young hemlocks as a result of it being closely related to the relates to the fosters observation and the collective scientific data on forest.
What should be done following health violations from an inspection?
Answer:
correct the identified
Explanation:
If health violations are found out during inspections, the inspector should give him warning about the violation or give him a ticket or fine. If high level of violation if found out, then the license of the restaurant or company should be cancelled.
What is heath violation?Health violation is avoiding the condition that are necessary for health during the process or manufacturing. These violation leads to the poor health of the people.
Health inspectors are the person who check the conditions of hotel and factories related to the health of the people. If they found any violation, the companies should correct them.
Thus, the inspector should issue him a warning about the infringement or issue him a ticket or fee if any health violations are discovered during inspections. If a serious breach is discovered, the restaurant's or business' license should be revoked.
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The immune system responds to the damage to arteries because of atherosclerosis by: a. destroying foam cells that capture and remove LDL from the artery wall b. promoting the growth of skeletal muscle cells of the artery wall to repair the site c. sending white blood cells to the site to try repair the damage d. reducing the concentration of clotting factors in the blood e. lining the arteries with high levels of HDL cholesterol
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.sending white blood cells to the site to try to repair the damaged
Explanation:
Atherosclerosis is a disease where plaque develops inside arteries. Arteries are vessels that convey oxygen-rich blood to your heart and different regions of your body. Plaque is comprised of fat, cholesterol, calcium, and different substances found in the blood. After some time, plaque solidifies and limits your supply routes.
The immune system responds to Atherosclerosis that causes damage to the arteries by sending white blood cells to the damaged site to fix the damage caused by the plaques and fat deposits that obstruct the blood supply.
The immune system responds to the damage to arteries because of atherosclerosis by C. sending white blood cells to the site to try repair the damage.
The immune system is the process that is important for resistance against diseases and fighting infection. It defends our body against invaders such as bacteria, viruses, etc.
It should be noted that the immune system responds to the damage to arteries because of atherosclerosis by sending white blood cells to the site so that the damage will be repaired.
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Drag the tiles to the correct boxes to complete the pairs. Match the organisms to the descriptions.
Answer:
Ok, no boxes but whatever
Mammals - Endothermic Homeostasis (Warm Blooded), Hairy Body, Have babies live
Birds - Endothermic Homeostasis(Warm Blooded), Have eggs, feathers, claws
Bacteria - Single celled, use binary fission to divide
Fungi - Multi or single celled, have chitin cellular walls
Plants - Have cellulose plant walls, multicellular organism
Archae Bacteria - Same as normal, except they live in crazy enviorments, like at the bottom of the ocean or in a volcano or radiation pool
Protozoa - Single celled organism class, like ameoba
Answer:
If this was edmentum. this was my question and answer
Explanation:
see pic below
Estrogens from the vesicular follicle trigger an LH surge from the anterior pituitary. This is an example of: Estrogens from the vesicular follicle trigger an LH surge from the anterior pituitary. This is an example of: negative feedback first tier of control positive feedback fourth tier of control
Answer:
The correct answer is: positive feedback.
Explanation:
Positive and negative feedback are terms that are used to define the way a system is regulated by its products. For example, when the production of a certain substance inhibits its producer that is called negative feedback. On the other hand, when a substance stimulates its producer to keep secreting said substance, this is called positive feedback.
Estrogen is a hormone of great importance in the female reproductive cycle and is secreted by the follicle cells in response to the presence of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), released by the anterior pituitary when stimulated by the GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone).
Estrogen appears at the beginning of the cycle to stimulate the development of the ovarian follicles, and the hormone levels continue to rise as the cycle advances. Up until the 14th day of the cycle, estrogen has a negative feedback on GnRH and FSH, but then it makes an abrupt change to now exert positive feedback on GnRH to stimulate the release of LH (luteinizing hormone), which will be responsible for ovulation.
Record the height of the plants growing in the
acidic soil.
A. Stating the question or problem
B. Drawing a conclusion
C. Forming a hypothesis
D. Conducting an experiment
Answer:
D. Conducting an Experiment
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Conducting an experiment
Explanation:
ASAP Neurons are an example of which type(s) of cell signaling? A. Short range messaging B. Short range and Direct contact C. Long range signaling D. Direct contact
C. Long-range signaling because their axons can send signals that can reach up to 3 feet
1 2.1.5 Quiz: Specialized Cells and Tissues
Question 5 of 5
2 Points
Which statement best explains how the needs of a unicellular organism are
met?
A. Only its specialized cells work together.
B. All of its cells must work together.
C. Most of its tissues work together.
D. Its cell parts must do everything.
SUBMIT
Answer:
B. All of its cells must work together
Its cell parts must do everything explains the needs of a unicellular organism are met. So, the correct option is D.
What are Unicellular Organisms?A unicellular organism is also called as a single-celled organism, which is defined as an organism with a single cell, in contrast to a multicellular organism, which consists of many cells. Organisms fall into two categories: prokaryotic organisms and eukaryotic organisms.
Amoeba and Paramecium both are protozoans which belongs to Kingdom Protists that are unicellular organisms. Unicellular organisms are organisms that have only one cell that performs all vital functions including metabolism, excretion, and reproduction. Its cell parts must do everything explains the needs of a unicellular organism are met
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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What type of evidence would indicate that the human hand, pigeon wing, and cat paw are homologous structures?
Answer:
embryological evidence or fossil evidence. give the answer choices if you can. they are vestigial structures.
Explanation:
Osteoporosis is characterized by Group of answer choices keratinization and death of epithelial cells. defective collagen production. immature red blood cells that lack hemoglobin. loss of bone mass and structure.
Answer: osteoporosis actually caused by lack of calcium
Explanation:
It is most common in womans....
And also immature red blood cells due to which blood calcium level decrease and cause osteoporosis
Which of the following is the measure of the
chair's mass, or the amount of particles it has?
A. the length of a chair
B. the temperature of the chair
C. the color of the chair
D. the amount of matter in the chair
In the case of two EPSPs occurring at a single synapse, which of the following will produce a subthreshold effect and not generate an action potential on the postsynaptic neuron’s axon hillock?
a. Both EPSPs occurring in rapid succession
b. The summed EPSPs depolarizing the axon hillock membrane to —70 mV
c. Both EPSPs occurring before the postsynaptic membrane potential returns to —55 mV
d. Both potentials occurring after the postsynaptic membrane potential returns to its resting value
Answer:
Both potentials occurring after the postsynaptic membrane potential returns to its resting value
Explanation:
This is simply because, a neuron returning to its resting state,will have the ligand gated Na+ channels closed.Therefore depolarization can not occur.More K+ gated channels will open, and more K+ leaks out of the axoplasm,returning the neuron to the resting state.
Hence if the summation of the two EPSP returns to the resting level after crossing the synapse, they can not propagate,and generate action potential, because they will produce a sub threshold effects,which will not generate action potential.
name 3 important features of blood in your body
Answer:
1. Red blood cells for transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide in and out the body.
2. White blood cells for fighting against harmful substances in the blood stream.
3. Blood platelets for blood clot during an injury.
Explanation:
Hope it helps.
Which component of a virus is injected into an infected cell? ribosome nucleic acid protein capsid mitochondrion
Answer: The component of virus is injected into an infected cell is RNA or DNA, aur nuclei acid.
Explanation:
Nucleic acid is injected into an infected cell.
What component is injected into the infected cell?During attachment and penetration, the virus attaches itself to a host cell and injects its genetic material into it. During uncoating, replication, and assembly, the viral DNA or RNA incorporates itself into the host cell's genetic material and induces it to replicate the viral genome.
What does the nucleic acid do in a virus?Nucleic Acid - Just as in cells, the nucleic acid of each virus encodes the genetic information for the synthesis of all proteins. While the double-stranded DNA is responsible for this in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, only a few groups of viruses use DNA.
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the pancreas produced a special hormone, which stimulates the absorption of blood sugar. This hormone is called?
A adrenaline
B glycogen
C glucagon
D insulin
Answer:
The answer is option D.
Insulin
Hope this helps
Answer:
D. insulin
Explanation:
Insulin is the hormone produced by the pancreas and released when blood sugar is higher than normal. Glucagon is the opposite hormone, used when blood sugar is too low, and more must be freed from reserves of glycogen
Suppose that you discover cells containing a mutation in a second protein and learn that this mutation also prevents mitotic cyclin from being degraded at the onset of mitosis, even when mitotic cyclin is normal. The degradation of other proteins appears to proceed normally in such cells. A mutation in what kind of protein might explain such results
Answer:
Mutations affecting proteins involved in the ubiquitination pathway
Explanation:
The cyclins represent a group of proteins capable of regulating the progression of the cell cycle via activation of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins are degraded by ubiquitination, a posttranslational modification that triggers the exit of mitosis by "marking" cyclin proteins for their subsequent degradation in the proteasome. The proteasome is a macromolecular complex required for the degradation of proteins in the cell. Then consequently the mutations affecting both secondary proteins required during ubiquitination and those involved in the functioning of the proteasome complex might prevent the degradation of cyclin proteins.
Chlorine is
used as
medicine why
Answer:
Chlorine is used as a disinfectant in water treatment plants all over the world primarily because of its low cost and effectiveness. Basically, it gets rid of pathogens in the water and helps keep waterborne disease outbreaks at bay.
According to research, what role do genes play in determining whether someone will develop an anxiety disorder
Answer: Here are the options.
A. Unknown
B. No role.
C. Fully determines.
D. Can contribute but does not fully determine.
The correct option is D.
Can contribute but does not fully determine.
Explanation:
According to research, Genes can contribute to anxiety disorder but cannot fully determine because certain chromosomal or genes are linked to panic or anxiety disorder. Scientist discovered that RBFOX1 gene may make someone more likely to develop generalized anxiety disorder which shows that anxiety disorder are linked to genes. Anxiety disorder can be inherited and it is linked to specific genes.
Anxiety disorder is a feeling and not a mental illness. They symptoms of anxiety disorder are phobias, excessive worrying, memory problems, tensed muscles, irritability, struggle to sleep e.t.c. Some environmental factors also can contributed to anxiety disorder.
Rabies vaccines in dogs: a. Are always given yearly b. Can treat the disease c. Are legally required in the United States d. Are voluntary in all states
Answer:
The core vaccines include the DHLPP (distemper, hepatitis, leptospirosis, parvo, and parainfluenza).
Explanation:
Your pup will also need a rabies vaccination, which is usually around $15—20. (Some clinics include the cost of the rabies vaccination.) hope this helps you :)
Answer:
Are given yearly.
Explanation:
Looked it up :)
ASAP Where in an organism does osmosis occur? A. None of these answers is correct B. It only occurs in semi-permeable membranes, which are not found in organisms C. Across cell membranes D. In the lungs
Answer:
The answer is option C.
Hope this helps you
The cyclin B–Cdc2 complex controls the passage from G2 into M and is assembled before mitosis however, its catalytic activity is restricted to mitosis. What process is responsible for the activation of the cyclin B–Cdc2 complex?
Answer:
Phosphorylases that selectively add phosphate groups to the Cdc-2 subunit, thereby activating this complex.
Explanation:
The cyclin B-Cdc-2 (also known as maturation-promoting factor or simply MPF) complex is activated when it enters into the nucleus during the G2/M transition in the cell cycle. Cdc-2 is a protein kinase that associates with cyclin proteins. These proteins (cyclins) regulate the cell cycle by activating cyclin-dependent kinases. It is well known that phosphorylation of the Cdc2 subunit at different residues can both activate and inactivate the MPF complex. Moreover, enzymes capable of both inactivating phosphorylases and activating phosphatases have also shown to be able to activate MPF.
as an aspiring nurse,the need for the culture of a new pathogenic microorganism in the laboratory has been allocated to you. Applying all the guidelines involved in the successful isolation and cultivation of microbes, discuss the culturing system that is most appropriate for this activity and state your reasons for this choice
Answer:
The culturing system depends on the sort of microbe allotted to segregate namingly bacteria, viruses, or fungi. Each microbial pathogen has particular culture media for disconnection and for development or replication, we need culture media.for model bacterial pathogen can be separated by plating the example in fitting media by 3 strategies that are streak plate or pour plate or spread plate
Out of the above streak, plate gives the best outcomes in single disengaged provinces which can be additionally cultured and characterized for creation of pure culture
why standard units neeeded
Answer:Because it is scientific and gives accurate results as well as accepted by the world.
Explanation:
Feel pleasure to help u...
has four pairs of chromosomes what proportion of gametes would be expected to contain some chromosomes from both parental and maternal origin? assume that there is no crossing over
Answer:
To complete the question: a diploid organism has four pairs of chromosomes what proportion of gametes would be expected to contain some chromosomes from both parental and maternal origin? assume that there is no crossing over
Answer: 7/8
Explanation:
A diploid organism with four pairs of chromosomes...
Assume that the organism receives chromosomes A, B, C and D from the female parent and A', B', C' and D' from the male parent.
Proportion of gametes from patterns origin is the same as that of matters origin, this we have:
(1/2)^4 = 1/16 where 4 reps the number of possibilities, 1/2 rep the chance
Thus, the proportion of gametes expected to contain some chromosomes from both parental and maternal origin would be
(1 - (1/16 + 1/16)) = 14/16 = 7/8
Discuss with erica what appropriate internet usage on the job look like
Explanation:
Download or upload obscene, offensive or illegal material.
Send confidential information to unauthorized recipients.
Invade another person’s privacy and sensitive information.
Download or upload movies, music and other copyrighted material and software.
Visit potentially dangerous websites that can compromise the safety of our network and computers.
Perform unauthorized or illegal actions, like hacking, fraud,
Researchers cross a corn plant that is pure-breeding for the dominant traits colored aleurone (C1), full kernel (Sh), and waxy endosperm (Wx) to a pure-breeding plant wiht the reccessive trains colorless aleurone (c1), shrunken kernal (sh), and starchy (wx). The resulting F1 plants were crossed to pure-breeding colorless, shrunken, starchy plants. Counting the kernals from about 30 eats of corn yields the following data:
Kernel Phenotype Number
Colored, shrunken, starchy 116
Colored, full, starchy 601
Colored, full, waxy 2538
Colored, shrunken, waxy 4
Colorless, shrunken, starchy 2708
Colorless, full, starchy 2
Colorless, full, waxy 113
Colorless, shrunken, waxy 626
6708
A) Why are these data consistent with genetic linkage among the three genes?
B) Perform a chi-square test to determine if these data show significant deviation from the expected phenotype distribution.
C) What is the order of these genes in corn?
D) calculate the recombination fraction between the gene pairs.
E) what is the interference value for this data set?
D) #recombinant=116+601+4+2+113+625=1462
#nonrecombinant=2538+2708=5246
RF=R/(N+R)=1462/6708=0.2
E) I=1-Q
I-interference
Q-coefficient of coincidence
Q=O2Xo/E2xo(2xo-double crossovers)
O2xo=6
P=(distance from C1 to Sh/100)*(distance from Sh to Wx/100)
=(3.38/100)*(18.28/100)=0.006
E2xo=0.006*6708=40.248
Q=6/40.248=0.15
I=1-0.15=0.85
Which best describes what happens to ATP during photosynthesis?
A. ATP is produced and then used to produce glucose.
B. ATP is broken down and then not used again.
C. ATP is formed and remains unchanged in the chloroplast.
D. ATP is changed to ADP and then moved to the cytoplasm
A. ATP is produced and then used to produce glucose.
ATP is produced in the light-dependent reactions and used in Calvin's cycle for glucose synthesis
Answer:
A) ATP is produced and then used to produce glucose.
Explanation:
Took the test edge2021
Adenosine Triphosphate is producer by which of the Organelles? A.Ribosomes B.Mitochondria C. lysosomes C. Gimmiesomes
Answer: mitochondria
Explanation:
Mitochondria is the power house of the cell which produces energy (Admeosine triphosphatealso called ATP) for the cell
where near your home do you think the highest level of photosynthesis is happening?
Answer:
In the garden.
Explanation:
Because the garden contains photosynthetic plants.
Hope it helps.
Schilders disease is a progressive degeneration of the central nervous system that leads to death by age 2. The disease is caused by a simple autosomal recessive mutation. A couple loses its first two children to Schilders disease. If they decide to have a third child, what is the probability that it will have the disease
Answer:
The probability will be 25% (1/4)
Explanation:
Schilder's syndrome is a degenerative and progressive lethal disease caused by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. Since it is a lethal recessive autosomal disease, both the father and the mother have a single copy of the mutant allele, thereby the probability of obtaining a lethal combination will be:
SN X SN >>
1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4 = 25%
where N and S are normal and lethal alleles, respectivelyvely
You perform an experiment in which you take 16 pots of strawberry plants and give half of them 1 gm of ammonium nitrate per liter of water and the other half receive only water. Each group is then split in half again, and exposed to either 8 or 16 hours of light each day. You monitor the height of the plants for 4 weeks. You observe that plants grown in ammonium nitrate and 16 hours of light grow taller than no ammonium nitrate and 8 hours of light.
The reason for the uptake by plants of nutrients like ammonium nitrate is
asexual reproduction.
homeostasis.
evolution.
sexual reproduction.
natural selection
Answer:
homeostasis.
Explanation:
Homeostasis is the process whereby living systems maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in environmental conditions. Plants, like every other living organisms also perform this process to keep their internal environment in a stable state.
According to the question, some plants were exposed to ammonium nitrate, which serves as a nutrient, and 16 hours of sunlight needed for photosynthesis to take place. The plants exposed to ammonium nitrate and 16 hours sunlight grew taller because they had access to nutrients needed to bring about the process of photosynthesis, which provides the plant with energy source (Glucose).
The uptake of nutrients like ammonium nitrate by the plants is done in order to maintain a homeostatic internal environment. Without nutrients, which is the purpose of the ammonium nitrate, plants cannot grow. Hence, the plants exposed to ammonium nitrate, take it in to keep their internal environment functioning.