Enzyme purification involves the use of various methods to separate the enzyme from other cellular components. One such method is ion-exchange chromatography which is used for proteins that have different charges. The goal of this method is to retain the enzyme on the column while removing contaminants. Cation exchange chromatography uses a column that is packed with a resin that contains negatively charged groups. The negatively charged protein is attracted to the positively charged groups on the resin.
The pH of the protein should be greater than the pI of the resin, so the protein will have a positive charge. As the pH is lowered below the pI of the protein, the protein becomes more positively charged. Therefore, if the protein has a pI of 7.0, a pH of 7.5 or above would be most effective at retaining the protein on the column. High salt concentration can help to displace other negatively charged proteins that may also bind to the column.
Thus, the best condition to get an enzyme with a pI of 7.0 to stick to a cation exchange column as part of the purification protocol so that the resulting pure enzyme can be used in kinetics studies is: high salt and a pH = 7.5.High salt and a pH = 7.5.Explanation:To get an enzyme with a pI of 7.0 to stick to a cation exchange column, high salt and pH = 7.5 would be the best condition. For the enzyme to bind to the column, the protein must be charged. Cation exchange chromatography uses a column that is packed with a resin that contains negatively charged groups. The negatively charged protein is attracted to the positively charged groups on the resin.
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QUESTION 14 Which of these is NOT a characteristic of effective health education curricula as described by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC Curricula are based on research but rooted in theory. Curricula have clearly defined health goals, and behaviors are linked to those goals, Curricula help students understand their own personal risks for certain health behaviors, Curricula provide students with individual exercise prescriptions. Curricula teach skills for dealing with social pressures to engage in bad health behaviors.
Out of the given options, "Curricula provide students with individual exercise prescriptions" is NOT a characteristic of effective health education curricula as described by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Curricula provide students with individual exercise prescriptions is NOT a characteristic of effective health education curricula as described by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) identifies the following characteristics of effective health education curricula: Curricula are based on research but rooted in theory.Curricula have clearly defined health goals, and behaviors are linked to those goals.Curricula help students understand their own personal risks for certain health behaviors.Curricula teach skills for dealing with social pressures to engage in bad health behaviors.
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15.11. Which of the following is an example of a condition resulting from a chromosomal abnormality?
(1 Point)
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome
C. Coronary artery disease
Down syndrome
16.What term is used to describe 'a condition caused in full or in part from a genetic abnormality'?
(1 Point)
A. A chromosome disorder
B. A genetic disorder
C. A genesis disorder
D. An inherited disorder
17.What term is used to describe 'the treatment of replacing an abnormal gene with a healthy gene'?
(1 Point)
A. Hormone replacement therapy
B. Human genome project
C. Somatic gene therapy
D. None of the above
18.Which of the following are true regarding breast cancer?
(1 Point)
A. It is considered a multifactorial genetic disorder
B. A BRCA gene mutation places an individual at higher risk of developing breast cancer.
C. Environmental factors including drinking alcohol, radiation exposure, or obesity places an individual at higher risk.
D. All the above.
19.What term is used to describe 'a segment of DNA which is responsible for a trait in an individual'?
(1 Point)
A. Gene
B. Deoxyribonucleic acid
C. Chromosome
D. Nucleotide
20.The following is an essential factor of chain of infection, EXCEPT:
(1 Point)
A. Mode of transmission.
B. Reservoir.
C. Infectious agent.
D. Healthy host.
21.Below is the correct statements in regards of Reservoir, EXCEPT:
(1 Point)
The source of an infectious agent.
The source of organism only can be found in human.
Human reservoirs have a symptomatic or asymptomatic infection
Human reservoirs may include patients and healthcare providers.
22.If you go to the doctor because you are sick, and the doctor warns you to limit your contact with other people and stay away from school or work, what kind of disease can you assume you have?
(1 Point)
A. A communicable disease
B. A noncommunicable disease
C. A fatal disease
D. A genetic disease
23.Which of the following is describe the vector-borne transmission?
(1 Point)
May occur by injecting salivary fluid during biting
Involve droplets
Dust transmission
Direct contact with the patient
24.The infectious disease can be transmitted by:
(1 Point)
air borne transmission
direct contact
indirect contact
All the above
25.Which of the following statements regarding Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin is TRUE:
(1 Point)
A. drinking un-boiled or untreated water is a commonly identified risk factor for cholera.
B. also known as break bone fever.
C. spread through the urine of infected animals.
D. it enters the blood and is active throughout the body.
26.The following are the symptoms for Infection with Vibrio cholerae, EXCEPT:
(1 Point)
Cholera stools may contain fecal matter and bile in the early phases of disease
In children, stool output can reach as high as 1 liter per hour in the most severe cases
Abdominal cramping
vomiting with frequently with watery emesis
27.Which of the following statement is CORRECT about how does Aedes mosquitoes transmit disease?
(1 Point)
Virus transmitted to human in mosquito saliva
Virus replicates in target organs local lymph nodes and liver
Virus infects white blood cells and lymphatic tissues
All the above
28.The following is the treatment for severe dengue, EXCEPT:
(1 Point)
A. Blood and platelet transfusion
B. Oxygen therapy
C. Intravenous fluids
D. Surgery
29.______________ are the synonyms of Leptospirosis
(1 Point)
A. Canefield fever
B. Tissue necrosis
C. Heart attack
D. Tissue apoptosis
The term used to describe 'a condition caused in full or in part from a genetic abnormality' is B. A genetic disorder.17. The term used to describe 'the treatment of replacing an abnormal gene with a healthy gene' is C. Somatic gene therapy.18. All of the following are true regarding breast cancer: A BRCA gene mutation places an individual at higher risk of developing breast cancer and environmental factors including drinking alcohol, radiation exposure, or obesity places an individual at higher risk.
Therefore, the correct option is D. All the above.19. The term used to describe 'a segment of DNA which is responsible for a trait in an individual' is A. Gene.20. The essential factor of the chain of infection that is NOT included is C. Infectious agent. The essential factors of the chain of infection are Mode of transmission, Reservoir, Portal of entry, Susceptible host, and Portal of exit.21. The correct statement in regards to Reservoir that is NOT included is B.
The source of the organism can only be found in human. Human reservoirs may also include animals and insects. Therefore, the correct option is B. The source of the organism can only be found in human.22. If you go to the doctor because you are sick, and the doctor warns you to limit your contact with other people and stay away from school or work, you can assume you have A. A communicable disease.23. Vector-borne transmission may occur by injecting salivary fluid during biting. Therefore, the correct option is A. May occur by injecting salivary fluid during biting.24. The infectious disease can be transmitted by all the above methods: air-borne transmission, direct contact, and indirect contact. Therefore, the correct option is D. All the above.25. The statement regarding Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin that is true is A. Drinking un-boiled or untreated water is a commonly identified risk factor for cholera.26. The symptom for infection with Vibrio cholerae that is NOT included is C. Abdominal cramping.
The symptoms for infection with Vibrio cholerae include cholera stools that may contain fecal matter and bile in the early phases of disease, vomiting frequently with watery emesis, and in children, stool output can reach as high as 1 liter per hour in the most severe cases. Therefore, the correct option is C. Abdominal cramping.27. Aedes mosquitoes transmit diseases when the virus is transmitted to human in mosquito saliva. The virus replicates in target organs local lymph nodes and liver. The virus does not infect white blood cells and lymphatic tissues. Therefore, the correct option is A. Virus transmitted to human in mosquito saliva.28. Surgery is NOT a treatment for severe dengue. Blood and platelet transfusion, oxygen therapy, and intravenous fluids are treatments for severe dengue. Therefore, the correct option is D. Surgery.29. Canefield fever is a synonym for Leptospirosis. Tissue necrosis, heart attack, and tissue apoptosis are not synonyms for Leptospirosis. Therefore, the correct option is A. Canefield fever.
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Which of the following statements best describes Homo erectus fossil specimens Homo erectus shows signs of having periodically bred with Homo denisovans Homo erectus is more similar morphologically to Australopithecines than to modem humans Homo erectus is only known from one site in eastem Asia so we knowvery little about the species evolutionary history Due to the longevity and wide distribution of the species many fossil examples show significant phenotypic changes both over time and accordingto the differentenvironments where they lived
Due to the longevity and wide distribution of the species, many Homo erectus fossil examples show significant phenotypic changes over time and in different environments.
The statement that best describes Homo erectus fossil specimens is that due to their long existence and wide geographic distribution, many examples of Homo erectus fossils display significant phenotypic changes over time and across different environments. This suggests that the species underwent adaptations and variations in response to different ecological conditions. It highlights the evolutionary flexibility and adaptability of Homo erectus as a species. This statement acknowledges the diverse fossil record of Homo erectus and emphasizes the importance of considering temporal and environmental factors when studying this ancient human species.
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Black children are children. 10 times more O 7-8 times more Oless Otwice as likely to die from asthma compared to white The likelihood of developing a chronic disease such as asthma, COPD, or heart disease is correlated most strongly with the gender of the person O the education level of the person Othe ZIP code a person lives in O the affluence of the person
Black children are 7-8 times more likely to die from asthma compared to white children. The likelihood of developing a chronic disease such as asthma, COPD, or heart disease is most strongly correlated with factors such as the ZIP code a person lives in and the affluence of the person, rather than their gender or education level.
Research has shown significant disparities in health outcomes among different racial and ethnic groups, particularly regarding childhood asthma. Black children are found to be 7-8 times more likely to die from asthma compared to white children. This disparity highlights the unequal burden of asthma and its related complications faced by Black communities.
When considering the likelihood of developing chronic diseases like asthma, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), or heart disease, various factors come into play. While gender and education level may have some influence on health outcomes, studies have consistently shown that social determinants of health play a significant role.
Factors such as the ZIP code a person lives in, which reflects the community's social and economic conditions, and the person's affluence or socio-economic status have a stronger correlation with the likelihood of developing chronic diseases.
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Oomycota have been called a water mold, but to which are they more closely related? O a yeast O b. regular mold c. mushrooms O d. algae e. Moss
Oomycota has been called a water mold, but they are more closely related to regular mold. Oomycota is a fungus-like organism which produces motile zoospores and mainly dwells in water habitats.
It has traditionally been placed in the kingdom Fungi; however, molecular biology indicates that they are more closely related to heterokont algae than they are to fungi .Mycology is the study of fungi, and mycologists study various types of fungi, including yeast, mold, mushrooms, and water molds.
Oomycetes, on the other hand, have been classified as fungi for decades, even though they differ from fungi in many ways. Researchers discovered that they share more genetic characteristics with algae than with fungi, The group of water molds previously classified as fungi is known as Oomycota, which includes members such as Pythium, Phytophthora, and Saprolegnia.
Oomycetes are sometimes referred to as water molds, as they often dwell in damp areas and water habitats, however, they are not really molds, but rather fungi-like organisms. Thus, Oomycota is more closely related to regular mold than to other groups of organisms like algae, yeast, or mushrooms.
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Review the protocol for this lab and put the following steps in order.
Dry cells
Fix cells with formaldehyde
Image cells
Put mounting media on cells
Rinse cells with PBS
Treat cells with dynasore
Incubate 30 min
Incubate 10 min
Incubate 3 min
Here is the step-by-step explanation of the revised order for the lab protocol:
1. Rinse cells with PBS: This step is performed to remove any debris or substances that may interfere with subsequent procedures.
2. Fix cells with formaldehyde: Formaldehyde is a common fixative used to preserve cell structure and prevent degradation during the experiment.
3. Incubate 3 min: This short incubation period allows for specific interactions or reactions to occur between the cells and the substances used in the experiment.
4. Incubate 10 min: A slightly longer incubation period provides sufficient time for more complex processes to take place, such as protein interactions or signaling pathways.
5. Incubate 30 min: This extended incubation period allows for more comprehensive and time-consuming processes to occur, such as cellular uptake or expression changes.
6. Treat cells with dynasore: Dynasore is a specific treatment used in this experiment, likely to study its effects on cellular processes or pathways of interest.
7. Rinse cells with PBS: Another rinse with PBS is performed to remove any residual substances or treatments.
8. Dry cells: The cells are dried, possibly using techniques like air-drying or gentle blotting, to prepare them for the next step.
9. Put mounting media on cells: Mounting media is applied to the cells, which helps to preserve the specimen and provides a suitable medium for imaging.
10. Image cells: Finally, the cells are imaged using an appropriate imaging system or microscope to visualize and analyze the results of the experiment.
Thus, these steps must be followed in proper order.
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Question 1 1 F Boiling a solution is an excellent way to sterilize as it will destroy all microbes. True False Question 2 1 pts Which group of organisms tend to be the most resistant to disinfectants? Gram postive organisms O Gram negative organisms Both are equally resistant No answer text provided
Boiling a solution is an excellent way to sterilize as it will destroy all microbes. True/False. Boiling is one of the oldest and most widely used methods of sterilizing fluids and materials.
Boiling can be an effective way of sterilizing because it kills the bacteria, viruses, and fungi by denaturing their enzymes and other proteins. However, boiling is not a complete method of sterilization as some microbes can survive boiling at 100°C for several minutes.
For this reason, boiling is only used as a disinfectant for heat-resistant items like utensils, glassware, and some laboratory equipment.
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Describe the general concept of bacterial adherence.
a. What are adhesion/ligands?
b. How do protozoa, helminthes and viruses attach?
c. What are the biofilms, and why are they important?
2. Generally
Bacterial adherence is defined as the capability of bacterial cells to stick to different surfaces and maintain contact with them. This procedure happens through the combination of specific adhesins or ligands with receptors that are present on the host cells.
It is important to note that the adhesin-receptor binding is highly specific, and a bacterium may bind to one or more receptors in the host.Bacterial adhesion is initiated by the reversible adhesion, which is facilitated by the nonspecific adhesins that attach to host tissues in a weak and transient manner.
The interactions between bacterial cells and host cells have to be firm enough to stop the bacterial cells from being washed away by shear forces. The firm adhesion is facilitated by specific adhesins or ligands. The adhesin-receptor bonds could be simple or multifactorial, and a bacterial cell may possess several types of adhesins to increase the host specificity.The process of protozoa, helminths, and viruses attachment is not similar to that of bacterial cells. They employ different mechanisms to establish contact with the host cells.
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Which is the correct answer?
Genes control traits by ...
producing palindromes.
directing the production of proteins.
producing DNA.
governing the production of restriction sites.
Genes control traits by directing the production of proteins.
Genes are responsible for the traits that are inherited by offspring from their parents. They are made up of DNA, which carries the genetic information needed to produce proteins. Proteins are the key to gene expression, which is the process by which genes are activated and their instructions are carried out.
Therefore, genes control traits by directing the production of proteins. This is the main answer to the given question.
Genes control traits through a process known as gene expression, which involves the production of proteins. Proteins are responsible for carrying out the instructions encoded in a gene's DNA sequence, which in turn determines the traits that are expressed by an organism.
Each gene contains a sequence of DNA that codes for a particular protein. This sequence is transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA), which is then translated into a protein. The sequence of amino acids in the protein determines its structure and function, which in turn determines the traits that are expressed by the organism.
Gene expression is tightly regulated to ensure that genes are only activated when they are needed. This is accomplished through a variety of mechanisms, including the binding of regulatory proteins to specific DNA sequences, the modification of chromatin structure, and the processing of mRNA transcripts before they are translated into proteins.
Overall, genes control traits by directing the production of proteins, which carry out the instructions encoded in a gene's DNA sequence.
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Describe each type of infection in the following list and include the mode of transmission in each scenario. Use terms such as primary, secondary, healthcare-associated, STI. mixed, latent, toxemia, chronic, zoonotic, asymptomatic. local, and systemic to describe the types of infections (more than one term may apply, some may not apply to these conditions) I 1) The development of Pneumocystisis pneumonia in an AIDS patient 2) Salmonellosis 3) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome infection acquired while vacationing in a log cabin
In conclusion, Pneumocystis pneumonia is a systemic infection that can be transmitted via the airborne route, Salmonellosis is both a local and systemic infection that can be caused by contaminated food or water, and Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a local and zoonotic infection that can be transmitted through the air.
Infections can be divided into several types based on their duration, mode of transmission, and causative agent. Here is the explanation of each infection in detail:1) The development of Pneumocystisis pneumonia in an AIDS patientPneumocystis pneumonia is caused by the Pneumocystis jirovecii fungus and is an opportunistic infection that affects individuals who have compromised immune systems, such as AIDS patients. Pneumocystis pneumonia can be transmitted from person to person via the airborne route, making it a local and systemic infection.2) SalmonellosisSalmonellosis is a type of bacterial infection caused by Salmonella bacteria, which are most commonly transmitted via contaminated food or water. Salmonella can cause both local and systemic infections.3) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome infection acquired while vacationing in a log cabinHantavirus pulmonary syndrome is caused by exposure to rodent droppings, urine, or saliva. This type of infection is zoonotic and can be transmitted through the air, making it a local infection. The symptoms are similar to the flu and can progress to acute respiratory failure, making it a systemic infection.In conclusion, Pneumocystis pneumonia is a systemic infection that can be transmitted via the airborne route, Salmonellosis is both a local and systemic infection that can be caused by contaminated food or water, and Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a local and zoonotic infection that can be transmitted through the air.
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If you were a plant pathogen in a temperate environment, what
kind of pathogen would you want to be in order to be "successful"
and why?
In your answer consider:
- broad type of pathogen (fungu
A successful plant pathogen in a temperate environment would possess traits such as high reproductive capacity, effective dispersal mechanisms, broad host range or multiple variants, long-term survival strategies, manipulation of host defenses, and rapid adaptation and evolution.
As a plant pathogen in a temperate environment, one would ideally want to be a pathogen that possesses certain characteristics to increase its chances of success :
High reproductive capacity: A successful pathogen would have the ability to produce large numbers of offspring quickly. This ensures a higher likelihood of infecting susceptible plant hosts and establishing a new generation of pathogens.
Effective dispersal mechanisms: The ability to spread efficiently from one host to another is crucial. Pathogens that can be easily transmitted through air, water, soil, or vectors such as insects or animals have an advantage in colonizing new plant hosts and expanding their range.
Broad host range or multiple variants: Pathogens capable of infecting a wide range of plant species or having multiple variants that can overcome plant defenses have a higher chance of finding suitable hosts. This enhances their ability to survive and thrive in a diverse plant population.
Long-term survival strategies: Some pathogens can survive adverse environmental conditions by producing survival structures such as spores or resting structures.
Manipulation of host defenses: Successful pathogens often possess mechanisms to suppress or evade the plant's immune responses. This enables them to establish infections and maintain their presence within the host for extended periods.
Rapid adaptation and evolution: Pathogens that can quickly adapt and evolve in response to changing environmental conditions or host defenses have a higher chance of persisting and remaining virulent over time.
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How cell-cell aggregation manipulate in vitro ?
Cell-cell aggregation is an essential process for the formation of tissue and organs in multicellular organisms.
Aggregation plays a critical role in cell-to-cell interaction, which is crucial for embryonic development and organogenesis. In vitro studies have shown that cells can aggregate under various conditions, such as in suspension culture or on a substrate. This process is regulated by several mechanisms, including cell-cell adhesion, cell signaling, and the extracellular matrix.
Cell-cell aggregation occurs through the interaction of specific adhesion molecules on the surface of cells. These adhesion molecules can be classified into several families, including cadherins, selectins, and integrins. Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion molecules that mediate homophilic and heterophilic cell-cell adhesion. Selectins mediate leukocyte rolling and endothelial cell-leukocyte adhesion during inflammation. Integrins are heterodimeric transmembrane proteins that mediate cell-matrix and cell-cell adhesion. In addition to these adhesion molecules, cell signaling pathways also play a role in cell-cell aggregation. For example, the Notch signaling pathway regulates cell fate decisions during embryonic development and tissue homeostasis. Notch signaling also promotes cell-cell adhesion by upregulating the expression of cadherins. Another example is the Wnt signaling pathway, which regulates cell proliferation, differentiation, and migration. Wnt signaling also promotes cell aggregation by regulating the expression of adhesion molecules and extracellular matrix proteins.
In conclusion, cell-cell aggregation is a complex process that is regulated by several mechanisms. These mechanisms include cell-cell adhesion, cell signaling, and the extracellular matrix. In vitro studies have shown that cells can aggregate under various conditions, such as in suspension culture or on a substrate. Understanding the mechanisms of cell-cell aggregation is important for developing new therapies for tissue engineering, regenerative medicine, and cancer treatment.
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Most scientists agree that the first group of animals to evolve in the ocean were? a. molluscs b. crustaceans c. sponges d. flatworms
The first group of animals to evolve in the ocean were most likely c. sponges.
Sponges (phylum Porifera) are considered one of the earliest groups of animals to have evolved in the ocean. Fossil records indicate that sponges have existed for over 600 million years, making them one of the oldest animal lineages on Earth.
Sponges are simple multicellular organisms that lack true tissues and organs. They are filter feeders, obtaining nutrients by pumping water through their bodies and filtering out food particles.
Their unique body structure and specialized cells, such as collar cells and spicules, have allowed sponges to adapt to various marine environments. While other groups, such as mollusks, crustaceans, and flatworms, also have ancient origins, sponges are considered to have appeared earlier in the evolutionary history of animals.
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Phosphodiesterase is ____________
Select one:
a. a trimeric G protein
b. a photopigment
C. an enzyme that breaks down cGMP
d. an enzyme the synthesizes cGMPX
e. a 7 transmembrane receptor
Phosphodiesterase is option C. an enzyme that breaks down cGMP
Phosphodiesterase is a family of enzymes that hydrolyze cyclic nucleotides such as cGMP and cAMP. They break down cGMP into GMP and cAMP into AMP, thereby controlling their intracellular levels. PDEs (phosphodiesterases) are ubiquitous enzymes that play an important role in cellular signaling by regulating cyclic nucleotide levels.The intracellular levels of cyclic nucleotides, cAMP, and cGMP, are controlled by the action of PDEs.
They hydrolyze cyclic nucleotides to their inactive form, allowing cells to respond rapidly to new stimuli. The action of PDE inhibitors, such as sildenafil (Viagra), leads to an increase in cGMP levels, resulting in smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus cavernosum, leading to an erection.
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Due to large amounts of ATP available in a cell for hydrolysis, the linear forms of glucose monomers in cells can directly undergo dehydration reactions with each other to form glycosidic linkages producing glycogen, without having to isomerize into the ring forms of glucose monomers. a. True
b. False Cells lining the small intestine are specialized for absorbing nutrients from food. What type of structure might you expect these cells to have? a. A highly folded cell membrane to increase surface area b. Multiple nuclei c. Lots of mitochondria d. A thick cell wall to keep out the toxic molecules e. Lots of ribosomes
Question 1: This statement "Due to large amounts of ATP available in a cell for hydrolysis, the linear forms of glucose monomers in cells can directly undergo dehydration reactions with Glycogen is formed when multiple glucose molecules join together through glycosidic linkages without undergoing the process of isomerization into ring forms." is True.
Question 2: The structure that might be expected is option is a. A highly folded cell membrane to increase surface area.
The presence of abundant ATP in cells allows for the direct dehydration reactions between linear glucose monomers, bypassing the need for isomerization into ring forms, resulting in the formation of glycogen through glycosidic linkages.
Question 2: Cells in the lining of the small intestine, which are specialized for nutrient absorption, are likely to possess a extensively folded cell membrane in order to maximize their surface area for efficient nutrient absorption.
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Question 6 0.5 pts One major innovation in Bilateria that is lacking in other lineages (like Cnidaria) is: The innovation of deuterostome development. The innovation of a third tissue layer. The innovation of cells nerve cells. The innovation of true multicellularity. O The innovation of cells barbs that can deliver neurotoxins. Question 7 0.5 pts You find what you believe is a new species of animal. Which of the following characteristics would enable you to argue that it is more closely related to a flatworm than it is to a roundworm? It is a suspension feeder. It is shaped like a worm. O It has no internal body cavity between the intestinal canal and the body wall. It is female. It has a mouth and an anus.
The innovation of cells nerve cells is a major innovation in Bilateria that is lacking in other lineages like Cnidaria. The characteristic that would enable arguing that the new species is more closely related to a flatworm than a roundworm is that it has no internal body cavity between the intestinal canal and the body wall.
Nerve cells, or neurons, are specialized cells that transmit electrical signals and enable complex nervous system functions such as sensory perception, information processing, and coordinated movement.
This innovation has contributed to the development of more sophisticated behaviors and adaptations in Bilateria compared to other lineages.
The characteristic that would enable arguing that the new species is more closely related to a flatworm than a roundworm is the absence of an internal body cavity between the intestinal canal and the body wall.
This characteristic is known as acoelomate body plan, and it is a defining feature of flatworms. Roundworms, on the other hand, possess a pseudocoelom, which is a fluid-filled body cavity located between the intestinal canal and the body wall.
The absence of a true body cavity would suggest a closer relationship to flatworms rather than roundworms.
Thus, the correct choices are "The innovation of cells nerve cells" and "It has no internal body cavity between the intestinal canal and the body wall" respectively.
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Assume that with your nucleic acid extraction procedure you successfully isolated the DNA from the biological material you are working with. Using the equation below calculate the molecular weight of the given partial DNA sequence:
5’-AGTGGTCCTGAGGTCGTAT-3’
Anhydrous Molecular Weight = (An x 313.21) + (Tn x 304.2) + (Cn x 289.18) + (Gn x 329.21) - 61.96 (g/mole)
Therefore, the approximate molecular weight of the given partial DNA sequence 5’-AGTGGTCCTGAGGTCGTAT-3’ is approximately 3583.03 g/mole.
To calculate the molecular weight of the given partial DNA sequence, we can use the provided equation and substitute the number of occurrences for each nucleotide.
Let's calculate the molecular weight:
An = number of adenine (A) nucleotides = 2
Tn = number of thymine (T) nucleotides = 4
Cn = number of cytosine (C) nucleotides = 4
Gn = number of guanine (G) nucleotides = 5
Anhydrous Molecular Weight = (An x 313.21) + (Tn x 304.2) + (Cn x 289.18) + (Gn x 329.21) - 61.96 (g/mole)
Substituting the values:
Anhydrous Molecular Weight = (2 x 313.21) + (4 x 304.2) + (4 x 289.18) + (5 x 329.21) - 61.96 (g/mole)
Calculating:
Anhydrous Molecular Weight = 626.42 + 1216.8 + 1156.72 + 1646.05 - 61.96 (g/mole)
Anhydrous Molecular Weight ≈ 3583.03 g/mole
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• Transcribe the following strand of DNA into mRNA CCTTACTTATAATGCTCAT GCTA GGAT GAATATTACGAGTACGAT Translate your mRNA strand above into a sequence of amino acids PRACTICE #2 How many nucleotides are required to code for the following sequence of amino acids Leu - Tyr - Arg - Trp - Ser Is it possible to determine the mRNA sequence that is responsible for producing the following sequence of amino acids? Explain... What does this illustrate?
DNA transcription is a biochemical process in which the DNA molecule's information is transferred to mRNA. This process is a significant part of protein synthesis. The process of protein synthesis is initiated by a transcribed mRNA strand that carries the genetic information from DNA.
The mRNA strand is produced through a transcription process in which the DNA sequence is transcribed into RNA, and the RNA polymerase molecule catalyzes the reaction. Once the mRNA strand is created, it moves out of the nucleus and travels to the cytoplasm, where it interacts with ribosomes to produce proteins.
Transcribe the following strand of DNA into mRNA:
CCTTACTTATAATGCTCATGCTAGGATGAATATTACGAGTACGAT.
The mRNA sequence will be:
GGAAUGAAUAUUACGAGUACGUAUCUAGACGUACGUAG.
The first step in the process of protein synthesis is transcription. The mRNA strand is then translated into a sequence of amino acids using the genetic code. The sequence of amino acids for the mRNA strand above is:
G - N - N - Y - L - S - E - V - D - S - T - R.
This can be calculated with the help of a genetic code chart. It's not possible to determine the mRNA sequence that is responsible for producing a particular sequence of amino acids. It is because there is more than one mRNA sequence that can encode the same protein.
This is due to the genetic code being degenerate, indicating that more than one codon can code for a single amino acid. This phenomenon is known as codon degeneracy. The sequence Leu - Tyr - Arg - Trp - Ser contains 15 nucleotides (5 amino acids × 3 nucleotides per codon = 15 nucleotides).
Hence, at least 15 nucleotides are required to code for this sequence.
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What is the correct ecological term for non-synchronous fluctuations in predator and prey populations? Marked out of 0.5 A. A 'time lag' B. Predator prey dynamics P Flag question O C. Oscillations D. All of the above
The correct ecological term for non-synchronous fluctuations in predator and prey populations is ‘predator-prey dynamics’.
Correct option is B.
This term is used to describe the relationship between the population of different species, where changes in one species can cause changes in another. In particular, predator-prey dynamics refers to the cycles of population rises and falls in the levels of predators and prey, without synchronous timing.
This means that the populations of the two groups can experience fluctuations independently, or with a 'time lag' between them. Examples of this type of dynamic can be seen in nature, when there are changes in food or weather patterns, or when different species compete for resources. Thus, predator-prey dynamics is the best way to refer to the non-synchronous fluctuations in predator and prey populations.
Correct option is B.
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Why is nerve fiber decussation in the optic chiasm important? A patient who suffered a traumatic head injury has recently started gaining weight despite exercising and eating a healthy diet. The patient most likely damaged what small central region of their brain?
The nerve fiber decussation is important in the optic chiasm as it allows for visual information to be transmitted to the opposite hemisphere of the brain, and damage to the hypothalamus can cause changes in appetite, metabolism, and body weight.
The nerve fiber decussation is important in the optic chiasm as it allows for visual information to be transmitted to the opposite hemisphere of the brain and contributes to the sense of sight. Thus, nerve fiber decussation helps ensure that the brain processes visual information efficiently.
A patient who suffered a traumatic head injury has recently started gaining weight despite exercising and eating a healthy diet is likely to have damaged their hypothalamus.Hypothalamus is a small central region of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various body functions such as body temperature, hunger, thirst, sleep, emotions, and hormone release. In particular, the hypothalamus is responsible for regulating energy expenditure, appetite, and body weight by controlling hunger and satiety. Hence, damage to the hypothalamus can cause changes in appetite, metabolism, and body weight.
In conclusion, the nerve fiber decussation is important in the optic chiasm as it allows for visual information to be transmitted to the opposite hemisphere of the brain, and damage to the hypothalamus can cause changes in appetite, metabolism, and body weight.
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1. Which of the following is NOT a cooperative relationship to regulate adaptive, specific immune responses?
a. B cells interacting with T-helper cells .
b. B cells interacting with macrophages
c. Cytotoxic T cells interacting with T-helper cells.
d. T-helper cells interacting with antigen -presenting phagocytes .
e. T-helper cells interacting with other T-helper cells of the same type .
2. True or False: Even if they have never been infected with or been immunized against Ebola Virus, most people have the genetic ability to make a primary anti-Ebola adaptive, specific response
3. Smakers often develop respiratory infections when smoking limits the ability of cilia in the throat to remove particulatesThus, smoking leads to a loss
a. Acquired, specific immunity
b. A cellular second line of defense
c. An artificiallyacquired immune function
d. A cellular barrier function
e. A physical barrier function
1. e. T-helper cells interacting with other T-helper cells of the same type.
2. The statement is false.
The answer is d. A cellular barrier function.
1. The cooperative relationships mentioned in options a, b, c, and d are all involved in regulating adaptive, specific immune responses. B cells interacting with T-helper cells, B cells interacting with macrophages, cytotoxic T cells interacting with T-helper cells, and T-helper cells interacting with antigen-presenting phagocytes are all examples of cooperative interactions that play a role in coordinating and regulating the adaptive immune response. Option e, T-helper cells interacting with other T-helper cells of the same type, does not specifically contribute to the regulation of adaptive immune responses, making it the correct answer
2. False. The genetic ability to mount a primary anti-Ebola adaptive, specific immune response requires prior exposure to the Ebola virus or vaccination. Adaptive immune responses are acquired through the recognition of specific antigens, which requires prior exposure or immunization to generate a memory response. Therefore, individuals who have never been infected with or immunized against Ebola virus would not have the genetic ability to mount a primary anti-Ebola adaptive immune response.
3. The correct answer is d. A cellular barrier function. Smoking affects the cilia in the throat, which are cellular structures responsible for moving mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory tract. By limiting the ability of cilia to perform their function, smoking compromises the cellular barrier function of the respiratory tract. This impairment can lead to an increased susceptibility to respiratory infections.
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The following is a modified essay question that pinpoints key parts of the biogeochemical cycle for carbon. Since drawing isn't possible in a Canvas quiz, I've turned it into four fill-in-the blank questions. Please don't put a period or comma at the end of your answers. 1. The abiotic reservoir (inorganic pool) for carbon is 2. In the process of plants use solar energy to convert carbon into an organic form. + 3. In the process of .consumers and decomposers return carbon to the abiotic reservoir. 4. The most significant way that humans are impacting the carbon cycle is In humans, is it the egg or the sperm that determine the chromosomal sex of the offspring? Briefly explain. Edit View Insert Format Tools Table 12pt Paragraph B IVA 2v you
1. The abiotic reservoir (inorganic pool) for carbon is: the atmosphere (carbon dioxide gas) and the oceans (dissolved carbon dioxide). 2. In the process of photosynthesis, plants use solar energy to convert carbon into an organic form. 3. In the process of respiration, consumption, and decomposition, consumers and decomposers return carbon to the abiotic reservoir. 4. The most significant way that humans are impacting the carbon cycle is through burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and land-use changes that increase atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations.
The biogeochemical cycle of carbon involves the movement of carbon among abiotic and biotic components of the Earth's system.
Carbon, a critical element for life on Earth, moves through the atmosphere, water, soils, and living organisms. Carbon can be found in abiotic (inorganic) and biotic (organic) reservoirs.
Carbon's primary abiotic reservoirs are the atmosphere (carbon dioxide gas) and the oceans (dissolved carbon dioxide).
Through photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide and sunlight to convert carbon into an organic form, such as glucose.
Respiration, consumption, and decomposition by consumers and decomposers return carbon to the abiotic reservoir. Carbon is also released into the atmosphere through combustion, erosion, and volcanic activity.
The most significant way that humans are impacting the carbon cycle is through the burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, and land-use changes that increase atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations.
These human activities have led to increased global temperatures and changes in precipitation patterns, among other environmental impacts.
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Arrange the following events in the proper order in which they occur during light-initiated signaling inside the rod cell. 1. Hyperpolarization of the rod cell 2. The activated G protein subunit splits away and activates PDE (phosphodiesterase). 3. Activated PDE (phosphodiesterase) hydrolyze cGMP to 5-GMP, causing Na+ channels to close 4. Light-activated rhodopsin causes a G protein to exchange GTP for GDP. 5. Rhodopsin absorbs light. O a. 5-4-2-3-1 Ob.5-2-3-4-1 Oc 2-3-4-1-5 Od. 1-5-4-2-3
The proper order of events during light-initiated signaling inside the rod cell is 5-2-3-4-1.
The process of light-initiated signaling in a rod cell begins with rhodopsin, a light-sensitive pigment in the rod cell, absorbing light (event 5). This triggers the activation of a G protein, causing it to exchange GTP for GDP (event 4). The activated G protein subunit then separates and activates phosphodiesterase (PDE) (event 2). PDE, in turn, hydrolyzes cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) into 5-GMP (event 3). The decrease in cGMP levels results in the closure of sodium ion channels (event 3), which leads to hyperpolarization of the rod cell (event 1).
Therefore, the correct order of events is 5-2-3-4-1.
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In dogs, black fur color is dominant to white. Two heterozygous black dogs are mated. What is the probability of the following combination of offspring - A litter of nine pups five with black fur and four with white fur
The probability of having five pups with black fur and four with white fur is 0.2649.
Given that in dogs, black fur color is dominant to white. Two heterozygous black dogs are mated.
To find the probability of the following combination of offspring - A litter of nine pups with five with black fur and four with white fur.
The possible gametes of each parent are written along the edges of the boxes.
The parental cross of two heterozygous black dogs can be represented as below:
B bB BB bB BB Bb Bb bb Bb bb bb
where B represents the black allele, and b represents the white allele.
Number of offspring with black fur = 5
Number of offspring with white fur = 4
Total number of offspring = 9
The probability of an offspring having black fur when crossed with heterozygous black dogs is 3/4, and that of having white fur is 1/4.
The probability of five offspring having black fur and four having white fur can be determined as follows:
Probability = (Number of ways of getting five offspring with black fur and four with white fur) x (Probability of an offspring having black fur)5 x (Probability of an offspring having white fur)4
Probability = (9C5) (3/4)5 (1/4)4
= 0.2649
Hence, the probability of having five pups with black fur and four with white fur is 0.2649.
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If a cell containing 25% salt is placed in a glass of water with 10% salt, the cell is_compared to the surrounding water Select one: a. hypotonic b. Isotonic C. hypertonic d. None of the answers are correct
The correct answer is a. hypotonic.
When a cell is placed in a solution with a lower concentration of solutes (salt) compared to its internal environment, the solution is considered hypotonic relative to the cell. In this case, the surrounding water has a lower salt concentration (10%) compared to the cell (25% salt). As a result, water will move into the cell through osmosis in an attempt to equalize the concentration of solutes on both sides of the cell membrane.
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A means of detecting the presence of specific carbohydrate moieties on glycoprotines is O A. ferritin conjugated lectins OB.photobleaching O C. liposome formation O D. SDS-PAGE O E. The freeze fracture technique
The correct answer is O A. ferritin conjugated lectins. Ferritin conjugated lectins is a method of detecting the presence of specific carbohydrate moieties on glycoproteins.
What is glycoprotein Glycoproteins are proteins in which the carbohydrate group(s) are covalently bonded to the protein chain. Glycoproteins are mostly found on the outer membrane surface of animal cells, and they are involved in cellular recognition and signaling.
Because of their heterogeneity, the identification and characterization of glycoproteins necessitates careful analysis of their carbohydrate moiety. Ferritin conjugated lectins are widely used to detect specific carbohydrate moieties on glycoproteins and to characterize them.
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37) Which of the following statements is true?
A) As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity decreases.
B) As M-cyclin concentration decreases, M-cdk activity increases.
C) M-cyclin concentration does not influence M-cdk activity.
D) As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity increases.
38) Which statement is true regarding G-proteins?
A) They can act as an ATPase.
B) Has GTPase activity.
C) It is inactive as a monomer.
D) Are nuclear proteins.
37) The statement that is true regarding M-cyclin concentration and M-cdk activity is "D) As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity increases.
38) The statement that is true regarding G-proteins is "A) They can act as an ATPase.
Explanation:
37) Mitosis is a crucial process that must be tightly regulated to ensure that daughter cells receive the correct chromosome number. The activation of M-cdk (mitosis-promoting factor) is essential for the progression of mitosis.M-cyclin concentration increases during the G2 phase of the cell cycle, resulting in M-cdk activation.
M-cyclin is degraded during mitosis, resulting in the inactivation of M-cdk. M-cyclin concentration and M-cdk activity are directly proportional, according to this data. As M-cyclin concentration increases, M-cdk activity increases, and vice versa.
38) G proteins are signal transducing molecules that are important in cell signaling. They are composed of three subunits: α, β, and γ. G proteins act as molecular switches that activate intracellular signaling pathways by binding to G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs).
The GTPase activity of Gα subunit hydrolyzes GTP to GDP and results in the inactivation of G proteins. Gα has intrinsic GTPase activity, which allows it to act as an ATPase and hydrolyze GTP to GDP.
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Criticise if the following statement is CORRECT: "Virus causing mumps is highly effective in release of newly synthesized virus after infecting the cells so that the subsequent adsorption and penetration is easily carried out, leading to a spreading from one infected cell to other uninfected cells." (10 marks)
Lack of clarity: The statement does not clearly specify which virus causing mumps is being referred to.
Mumps is primarily caused by the mumps virus, which belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family. It would be more accurate to specify the particular strain of the mumps virus if that is what is being discussed.
Inaccurate terminology: The term "highly effective" is not appropriate in this context. Instead, it would be more accurate to use terms like "efficient" or "capable" to describe the viral replication and release process.
Inconsistent language: The statement uses the phrase "newly synthesized virus" without prior explanation. It would be clearer to explain that the virus replicates within the infected cells and produces new virus particles.
Misleading information: The statement suggests that the primary role of the virus is to facilitate adsorption and penetration into uninfected cells. While adsorption and penetration are important steps in viral infection, they are not the sole purposes of the virus. The main objective of a virus is to replicate within host cells and produce more virus particles.
Incomplete explanation: The statement does not elaborate on the mechanisms or factors that make the virus effective in releasing newly synthesized viruses. It would be beneficial to provide additional information about the specific molecular or cellular processes involved in the release of viral particles.
Overgeneralization: The statement claims that the virus spreads from one infected cell to other uninfected cells. While this is generally true for many viruses, it does not apply to all viruses or infections. Different viruses employ various mechanisms for spreading within the host, such as direct cell-to-cell transmission or systemic dissemination.
Lack of evidence or references: The statement does not provide any supporting evidence or references to scientific literature. Without reliable sources, it is difficult to assess the accuracy and validity of the statement.
Lack of context: The statement does not mention the specific host organism or provide any contextual information. The effectiveness of viral replication and spread can vary depending on the host's immune response, viral strain, and other factors. Providing more context would help in better understanding the statement.
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Write instruction to make cell culture medium using DMEM consist of 10% FBS, 1%
streptomycin.
Use a sterile graduated cylinder and pipette to measure 900 mL of deionized water into a sterile bottle.
To make a cell culture medium using DMEM that consists of 10% FBS and 1% streptomycin, the following instructions should be followed: Materials Required: DMEM, 10% FBS, 1% streptomycin, and deionized water. Instructions:1. Use a sterile graduated cylinder and pipette to measure 900 mL of deionized water into a sterile bottle.2. Add 100 mL of DMEM to the bottle.3. Use a sterile pipette to add 10 mL of FBS (10%) to the bottle.
4. Use a sterile pipette to add 1 mL of streptomycin (1%) to the bottle.5. Place the cap on the bottle and mix the solution thoroughly.6. Use a sterile filter to filter the medium into a sterile flask or bottle.7. The DMEM cell culture medium is now ready to use. It should be kept refrigerated until use. Note: Always make sure that all materials used in the preparation of cell culture media are sterile and free from contamination.
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Evolutionary trees (i.e. phylogenies), in general are properly understood by scientists to be A. theories B. hypotheses
C. dogmas
D. facts Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. No mutations occurring B. Non-random mating is occurring C. No selection occurring D. The population size is large What does "fitness" mean when speaking in terms of evolution?
A. Level of overall health of the individual relative to other in its population B. How many offspring an individual produces relative to other in its population C. Level of overall health of the population D. The size and diversity of the gene pool The red spotted damselfish and white spotted damselfish were once considered two different species. Recently they have been redescribed as a single species. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be a cause for this new description? A. The two types interbreed in nature and produce viable offspring
B. The two types live in the same area and eat the same food C. The two types share a lot of genes
D. The two types look really similar in appearance. Which is/are FALSE regarding what you know about populations? 1. Groups of individuals of the same species II. Populations evolve over time III. Groups of individuals of different species IV. They are the units of evolution
A. II and III B. II and IV C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
The answer is B. Non-random mating is occurring is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Evolutionary trees (i.e. phylogenies), in general are properly understood by scientists to be hypotheses. The assumption that is NOT of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is B. Non-random mating is occurring. When speaking in terms of evolution, "fitness" means how many offspring an individual produces relative to other in its population.
If the red spotted damselfish and white spotted damselfish were to interbreed in nature and produce viable offspring, it would be a cause for this new description. False statements about populations are II and III;
Populations evolve over time and Groups of individuals of different species
.What is the meaning of the term fitness in relation to evolution?
When speaking in terms of evolution, fitness means how many offspring an individual produces relative to others in its population. Fitness is determined by a combination of survival, mating success, and the number of offspring produced. The fittest individuals are the ones that are most successful in reproducing and passing their genes on to the next generation.
What is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a fundamental concept in population genetics that describes the relationship between gene frequencies and genotype frequencies in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a hypothetical population in which the frequencies of alleles and genotypes do not change over time. It is a model that can be used to test whether a population is evolving or not.
The assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are no mutations occurring, no selection occurring, random mating is occurring, the population size is large, and there is no gene flow. If any of these assumptions are violated, the population will not be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Therefore, the answer is B. Non-random mating is occurring is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
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