The statement that best explains how environmental stressors, such as wildfires can affect biodiversity in an ecosystem is as follows: Ecosystems with more species diversity are more likely to recover after a disturbance than ecosystems with low species diversity (option C).
What are environmental stressors?Environmental stressors refers to the stress that nature is undergoing, such as pollution or a forest fire.
Environmental stress refers to factors within an environment that negatively affects productivity, reproduction, and development of the environment.
Biodiversity is the diversity (number and variety of species) of plant and animal life within a region.
An ecosystem is a system formed by an ecological community and its environment that functions as a unit i.e. the interconnectedness of organisms (plants, animals, microbes) with each other and their environment.
When the species of an ecosystem are highly diverse, this increases their chances of survival after an environmental stress compared to an ecosystem with species that are not diverse enough.
The options to the incomplete question are as follows:
After an environmental stress, a genetic bottleneck may occur, which will increase genetic diversity.Habitat diversity will increase the available niches if the landscape becomes more uniform after a disturbance.Ecosystems with more species diversity are more likely to recover after a disturbance than ecosystems with low species diversity.Smaller populations are less likely to go extinct than larger populations, so the species diversity will remain constant.Learn more about environmental stressors at: https://brainly.com/question/17034778
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What is the main mode of reproduction in bacteria?
Answer:
Binary fission
Explanation:
when studying the brains of our fossil relatives, why do we rely on indirect evidence (cranial capacity) instead of direct evidence (brain tissue)?
This is true that we rely on indirect evidence (cranial capacity) rather than direct evidence when studying the brains of our fossil relatives.
Cranial capacity is the book of the interior of the skull of vertebrates that possess a skull and a mind (1). Cranial capacity is used to approximate the capacity of the intellect, which is still dirty from the data of the animal (1). Cranial capacity is often proven by the contents of the cranial crater accompanying cup beads and weighing their capacity, or by CT scan image.
Fossils are the maintained debris of plants and animals whose bulks were engrossed in sediments, to a degree soil and mud, under old seas, reservoirs, and waterways. Fossils further involve any continued trace of history namely usually in addition to 10 000 years traditional.
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based on the 10% rule, if there are 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in an ecosystem, how much energy will be generally available to a secondary consumer?
The 10% rule states that 10% of the energy available in an ecosystem is transferred to secondary consumers.
Calories in an ecosystem:So, with 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in an ecosystem, it is estimated that 1,000 calories would generally be available to a secondary consumer.
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 10,000 calories *10%
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 10,000 calories * 10/100
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 10,000 calories * 0.1
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 1,000 calories
This amount of energy is sufficient to feed organisms at higher trophic levels.
What is the 10% energy rule in a food chain?The 10% energy rule states that only 10% of the energy available in one trophic level is passed on to the next trophic level in a food chain. This means that, as energy is transferred from one organism to the next, 90% of the energy is lost, usually as heat.
This energy loss limits the amount of energy available to higher trophic levels.
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in the process of renal autoregulation a. the afferent arterioles dilate, increasing glomerular filtration rate b. the nephron loop reabsorbs more sodium and chloride ions c. the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water d. the efferent arterioles dilate, allowing blood to flow through the kidney faster
Afferent arterioles expand as a result of renal autoregulation, speeding up glomerular filtration rate.
what is renal autoregulation?
The pace of blood flow can be effectively controlled by the kidneys over a wide range of blood pressures. While you're unwinding or sleeping, your blood pressure will drop.
When you exercise, it will rise. The rate of filtration via the kidney won't vary much despite these modifications. This is a result of two independent internal autoregulatory processes, the myogenic mechanism and the tubulo-glomerular feedback mechanism.
JGA and a paracrine signalling system using ATP, adenosine, and nitric oxide are both part of the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism (NO). Afferent arteriolar smooth muscle cells are stimulated by this mechanism to contract or relax. Recall that the afferent and efferent arterioles of the glomerulus are in close contact with the DCT.
In this section of the tubule, specialised macula densa cells react to variations in fluid flow and Na+ concentration. A higher osmolarity in the filtrate is caused by less time for NaCl to be reabsorbed in the PCT as GFR rises.
Single nonmotile cilia on macula densa cells are deflected by the increased fluid flow more strongly. Due to the higher flow rate within the DCT and the increased osmolarity of the producing urine, the macula densa cells are activated and respond by releasing ATP and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP).
Local paracrine substances, including ATP and adenosine, cause the myogenic juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole to contract, delaying blood flow and lowering GFR. In contrast, as GFR falls, less Na+ will be in the producing urine, and the majority of it will be reabsorbed before it reaches the macula densa .
This will lead to a decrease in ATP and adenosine, which will enable the afferent arteriole to widen and raise GFR. The afferent arteriole is stimulated to constrict by ATP and adenosine, but NO has the opposite effect, relaxing it.
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During the process of photosynthesis, solar energy is converted into chemical energy which is then used to build which kind of molecule?.
Answer: Carbohydrate molecules.
Explanation:
Through photosynthesis, certain organisms convert solar energy (sunlight) into chemical energy, which is then used to build carbohydrate molecules. The energy used to hold these molecules together is released when an organism breaks down food. Cells then use this energy to perform work, such as cellular respiration.
A typical meteor that hits the earth's upper atmosphere has a mass of only 2. 5 g, about the same as a penny, but it is moving at an impressive 40 km/s. As the meteor slows, the resulting thermal energy makes a glowing streak across the sky, a shooting star. The small mass packs a surprising punch.
v = 67 m/s when meteor that hits the earth's upper atmosphere has a mass of only 2. 5 g, about the same as a penny, but it is moving at an impressive 40 km/s.
What is thermal energy, and how is it used?Molecules moving within an item or substance are referred to as thermally moving. The sun is the main source of thermal energy in our solar system, but every material possesses some form of thermal energy. Heat is a flow of thermal energy that occurs when energy is transferred from one substance or object to another.
The meteor has a mass (m) of 2.5 g and a speed (v) of 40 km/s. In SI units:
2.5 g × (1 kg / 10³ g) = 2.5 × 10⁻³ kg
40 km/s × (10³ m / 1 km) = 4.0 × 10⁴ m/s
The kinetic energy (KE) is:
KE = 1/2 × m × v² = 1/2 × (2.5 × 10⁻³ kg) × (4.0 × 10⁴ m/s)² = 2.0 × 10⁶ J
A 900 kg compact car, with the same kinetic energy, must have the following speed.
KE = 1/2 × m × v²
2.0 × 10⁶ J = 1/2 × 900 kg × v²
v = 67 m/s
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the atp synthase beta subunit assumes 3 different distinct conformations within the protein complex. which conformation is expected to be present at the beginning of the catalytic cycle?
ATP synthase beta subunit assumes 3 distinct conformations within the protein complex, conformation that is expected to be present at the beginning of the catalytic cycle is : beta ADP.
What does beta ADP do in ATP synthase?ATP synthase consists of three α- and three β- subunits. All of them can bind nucleotides but only β-subunits can take part in the reactions. F₀ is a cylindrical structure that capable of rotation when driven by translocated protons and linked to a central stalk that can revolve inside F1.
The alpha- and beta-subunits of membrane-bound ATP synthase complex bind ATP and ADP where beta contributes to catalytic sites and alpha is involved in regulation of ATP synthase activity.
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The motor neuron and all the myofibers it innervates is referred to as a ____________ . Every time a motor neuron sends a nerve impulse to a skeletal muscle fiber, the muscle fiber will ____________ .
Motor Unit, be stimulated to contract
The term "motor unit" refers to the motor neuron as well as all of the myofibers it innervates. Skeletal muscle fibers contract each moment a motor neuron transmits a nerve signal to them.
The connection between a motor neuron as well as a collection of muscle fibers is known as the motor unit. Multiple motor units make up a single muscle. Each of them is made up of just a little portion of the total muscle mass, which means that this portion will contract. The presynaptic membrane receives an action potential from of the central nervous system. Acetylcholine , a neurotransmitter, is released into the synaptic region as a result of an action potential. After passing through the synaptic gap and arriving at the postsynaptic membrane, the neurotransmitter binds towards its receptors on skeletal muscle fiber, prompting ion channels to open. The connection between a motor neuron as well as a muscle is known as the motor unit.
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derived characters unique to the vascular plant clade (branch point blank) include blank.target 1 of 8target 2 of 8 derived characters unique to the monilophyte and the seed plant clade (branch point blank) include blank.target 3 of 8target 4 of 8 derived characters unique to the charophyte and the plant clade (indicated by branch point blank) include blank.target 5 of 8target 6 of 8 derived characters unique to the plant clade (branch point blank) include blank.
Life cycles dominated by sporophytes, intricate vascular plant (xylem and phloem), and highly developed roots and leaves are derived traits that are specific to the vascular plant clade (branch point 3).
There is strong evidence that two major clades of vascular plants, known as lycophytes (clubmosses) and euphyllophytes, exist (seed plants, ferns, horsetails)
Even though the Charophytes share similarities with plants, there are other properties that set them apart from plants. Stomata, cuticles, solid spore walls, and multicellular embryos are some examples of these characteristics.
-Rings of cellulose-synthesizing complexes, flagellated sperm structure, and a phragmoplast are examples of derived characteristics specific to the charophyte and plant clade (shown by branch point 1).
Megaphylls and roots that can branch at different locations along the length of an existing root are examples of derived characteristics that are specific to the monilophyte and seed plant clade (branch point 4).
The apical meristems, alternation of generation, and walled spores formed in sporangia are derived characteristics that are specific to the plant clade.
Life cycle with dominant sporophyte, complex vascular systems (xylem and phloem), and well-developed roots and leaves are derived characteristics specific to the vascular lant clade.
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Select ten flowers from the list to use in making a dichotomous key. If actual specimens are not available, color pictures or artificial flowers may be substituted. You may also want to use a microscope, magnifying glass, razor blade, tweezers, or dissecting needles. azalea marigold carnation orchid chrysanthemum pansy daisy peony four o'clock petunia gardenia poppy geranium rose hydrangea snapdragon iris sweet pea
Interpreting a dichotomous key is not too difficult. Simply do the following:- closely monitor your organism, own a biological vocabulary or be familiar with some technical phrases; adhere to the instructions.
The dichotomous key will direct you to the solution. In the illustration, we have a type of plant with irregularly shaped blue blooms that have five petals. The fruits are follicles or ripened flower ovaries.
The phrase "irregular flower" describes asymmetrical flowers with only one plane.
Follicle: A term used to describe the dry, dehiscent fruits that result from a single-carpel flower. When fully grown, they split along the ventral suture.
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A dichotomous key's interpretation is not too challenging. Simply follow the instructions, keep a careful eye on your organism, have a working knowledge of some technical terms or possess a biological vocabulary.
The answer will be revealed by using the dichotomous key. In the illustration, we see a particular kind of plant with five-petalled, atypically formed blue blossoms. Follicles or matured flower ovaries are the fruits.
One-planed asymmetrical flowers are referred to as "irregular blooms."
The term "follicle" refers to the dried, dehiscent fruits that emerge from a single-carpel flower. They divide at the ventral suture when completely grown.
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Which phrase gives two processes scientists think move the earth's lithospheric plates?.
The "ridge push" and "slab pull" gravity forces are two mechanisms that scientists believe shift the earth's lithospheric plates.
What is the lithospheric plate motion theory?The lithosphere, the planet's outer shell, is said to be divided into a number of plates that move across the planet's rocky interior and on top of its soft core, according to the theory of plate tectonics. The Earth's plates act like a solid, rigid shell, in contrast to the mantle.
What are the two main hypotheses behind plate motion?We shall now combine the concepts of continental drift and seafloor spreading into the theory of plate tectonics, much like the scientists who came before us. Watch this video to learn how plate tectonics is created through the mechanics of seafloor spreading and continental drift.
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hy are some mutations of ras associated with cancer? ras alters ion flow across the cell membrane. ras is a type of second messenger. ras activates the map kinase signal transduction pathway that regulates cell division. ras binds to growth factor receptors.
Ras activates the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway.
The Ras/Raf/MAPK pathway is likely the most well-studied signaling pathway in cell biology. This pathway transports signals from the extracellular milieu to the cell nucleus, where specific genes are activated to promote cell growth, division, and differentiation.
Ras activates several pathways, including the RAF-MEK-ERK/MAPK cascade, which sends signals downstream and causes the transcription of genes involved in the control of various cellular mechanisms.
The binding of extracellular mitogen to a cell surface receptor initiates the MAPK/ERK pathway. This allows a Ras protein (a Small GTPase) to exchange a GDP molecule for a GTP molecule, flipping the pathway's "on/off switch."
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What is the space within the Haversian system where the
osteocyte is found?
A lamellae
B Haversian canal
C periosteum
D
lacunae
Answer:
Osteocytes ( are located within lacunae surrounded by mineralized bone matrix so the answer is D
Answer: D
Explanation:
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. a biologist discovered a new organism and classified it as a mollusk after studying its characteristics. as a mollusk, the animal probably has and a .
Mollusks are members of the phylum Mollusca. These animals have a soft, unsegmented body, an external or internal shell, bilateral symmetry, a tongue-like device called a radula, a mantle (a fold in the body wall that encloses the shell), a muscular foot, and a coelom, a hollow filled with fluid.
Therefore, "radula" and "mantle" are the right answers.
How would you characterize mollusks?A group of creatures known as molluscs have soft bodies that typically have a "head" and a "foot" region. Like the shells of snails and clams or the plates of chitons, their bodies frequently have a hard exoskeleton covering them.
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which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tis- sues? a. decreased temperature b. decreased ph c. increased tissue po2 d. none of the above
None of the above factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues.
Red blood cells in the blood carry 97% of the oxygen needed for breathing, with the remaining 3% dissolving in plasma. Red blood cells (RBCs) contain the pigment hemoglobin, which is responsible for the blood's red hue. Oxygen binds to hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin depending on the partial pressures of oxygen, carbon dioxide, H+ concentration, and temperature. A single hemoglobin molecule can transport up to 4 oxygen molecules. Low temperature, high H+ concentration, and oxygen partial pressure are the ideal conditions for oxyhemoglobin production. These requirements are met in the alveoli. However, conditions are different in the tissues, and as a result, oxygen is separated from oxyhemoglobin.
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what is a major difference between the extracellular matrix (ecm) of a plant cell and the ecm of an animal cell?
Plant ECM is primarily composed of proteins, whereas animal ECM is primarily composed of carbohydrates. Plant ECM is primarily composed of carbohydrates, whereas animal ECM is primarily composed of protein.
The main molecules that make up the animal extracellular matrix are: Structural proteins such as collagen and elastin, glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans and glycoproteins. In plants, the cell wall is composed of carbohydrates (mainly cellulose) and glycoproteins. Both plants and animals have ECM . The cell wall of plant cells is a type of extracellular matrix. In animals, the ECM can surround cells either as fibrils that contact all sides of the cell or as a layer on which cells "sit" called the basement membrane. Animal fibers are made up of proteins. Plant fibers are composed of polysaccharides.
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In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following?
A) turn off translation of their mRNA
B) alter the level of production of various enzymes
C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes
D) inactivate their mRNA molecules
E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can alter the level of production of various enzymes
What are prokaryotes?
Any organism without internal membranes is referred to as a prokaryote, usually written procaryote. These organisms lack a defined nucleus and other organelles. One of the most well-known prokaryotic species is bacteria. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes by not having internal membranes. Both a distinct nucleus and membrane-bound cell organelles are absent in prokaryotic cells. Blue-green algae, bacteria, and mycoplasma are prokaryotes. Bacteria are the most prevalent and fastest-growing prokaryotes. Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that belong to the domains of Bacteria and Archaea only. Pro means before and Kary means nucleus. Eukaryotes, which are made up of eukaryotic cells, include animals, plants, fungi, and protists.
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Neurexins are cell adhesion proteins that are important for connecting neurons at the synapse. Mammals have 3 neurexin genes. However, 2000 forms of neurexin proteins are found in cells where they play a role in determining synapse specificity. What mechanism most likely underlies this diversity?.
Alternative mRNA splicing is the mechanism associated with the diversity of isoforms of a given gene.
What is the cellular mechanism of alternative messenger RNA splicing?The cellular mechanism of alternative messenger RNA splicing refers to a processing step that suffers mRNA in order to maturate and then be used as template during the process of translation, which is fundamental to producing different proteins from distinct isoforms of a primary mRNA transcript sequence in a given cell.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the cellular mechanism of alternative messenger RNA splicing is associated with the formation of different mRNA variants or isoforms in the primary mRNA transcript which may lead to the generation of distinct proteins and open the repertory of related proteins form a given particular gene sequence that contains three or more exons to be linked.
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What is the most important reason a cell exhibits tight transcriptional control over the regulation of gene expression?.
For the cell, regulation at the transcriptional level saves energy.
Why is the regulation of transcription so crucial?A vital biological process called transcriptional regulation enables a cell or an organism to respond to a variety of intra- and extracellular inputs, to establish a cell's identity during development, to maintain it throughout its existence, and to coordinate cellular activity.
How does gene expression affect the regulation of transcriptional control?In particular, There are specifically two levels of control over gene expression. The amount of mRNA that can be produced from a particular gene is the first way transcription is controlled. The translation of mRNA into proteins is regulated by post-transcriptional processes, which constitute the second level of regulation.
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which is the best evidence that a gene involved in antibiotic resistance in bacteria underwent lateral gene transfer?
The correct option (d) It has a phylogeny that is very different from those of most other genes.
The nonsexual transmission of genetic material across unrelated genomes is referred to as horizontal gene transfer, also known as lateral gene transfer. As a result, horizontal gene transfer entails the transmission of genes across species borders.
A mechanism known as lateral gene transfer (LGT) complicates the distribution of genes and phylogenies using a rRNA tree.
Because of this, a transfer event can be used to establish a relative age constraint between nodes in a phylogeny without the use of a molecular clock: the ancestor node of the donor lineage must precede the descendant node of the receiving lineage.
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Full Question : Which is the best evidence that a gene involved in antibiotic resistance in bacteria underwent lateral gene transfer?
a) The number of copies of the gene varies across lineages.
b) It shows many more nonsynonymous substitutions compared with synonymous ones.
c) It has accumulated many deleterious mutations within a lineage.
d) It has a phylogeny that is very different from those of most other genes.
e) It shows many more synonymous substitutions compared with nonsynonymous ones.
when examining a phylogenetic tree, the tree provides information on shared ancestry but not necessarily on how organisms are similar or different
It's true, when examining a phylogenetic tree, the tree provides information on shared ancestry but not necessarily on how organisms are similar or different.
However, they may not always reveal how closely related or dissimilar species are. Phylogenetic connections reveal information about common ancestry. creatures or communities of creatures. Since it is impossible to go back in time to verify the links claimed by phylogenetic trees, scientists see them as historical hypotheses.
Regardless of the lengths of the branches, patterns of evolutionary descent convey the same information. The branching history of shared ancestry is the sole thing that a phylogenetic tree shows, unless otherwise stated. Even within the same creature, various genes might produce diverse phylogenetic trees. It is acknowledged that methodological difficulties might be the root of such disparities. On a phylogenetic tree, trace each taxon's ancestry backwards until all the lineages converge to discover the group's most recent common ancestor.
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sexual dysfunctions are associated with all the phases of the human sexual response cycle identified by masters and johnson, except
Any stage of the sexual response cycle is susceptible to sexual dysfunction. You are unable to enjoy sexual activities to your delight.
The classic stages of the sexual response cycle are excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Both arousal and desire are a part of the sexual response's excitement phase. It's vital to understand that women don't always experience these phases sequentially.
Sexual dysfunctions are associated with all the phases of the human sexual response cycle
Four categories are commonly used to classify sexual dysfunction:
Disorders of desire: loss of sex drive.
Arousal disorders: the inability to get sexually thrilled physically.
abnormalities of orgasm: absence or delay (climax).
Pain disorders: discomfort during sex.
The conventional theories of sexual response have come under fire for having a male bias, or for being good at explaining male sexual experience but bad at explaining female sexual experience. These conventional models have been subjected to four main criticisms: The following assumptions are made: (1) that sexual desire is an automatic, spontaneous drive; (2) that arousal and desire are distinct states; (3) that the stages of arousal are sequential; and (4) that the psychological, relational, and environmental factors of sexual response are incidental to the physiological factors.
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Mendel worked with pea plants, which are usually choose. . When he transferred pollen from one pea plant to another, he was choose. The pea plants to choose. The eggs and form embryos within a seed.
Mendel started out by testing out a single pea plant trait at a time. He began with the hue of flowers.
When did Mendel spread pollen between different pea plants?Mendel's groundbreaking research on inheritance was conducted using the garden pea, Pisum sativum.
Natural self-fertilization occurs in this species when pollen and ova are present in the same flower. To avoid pollinating neighboring plants, flower petals remain securely shut until pollination is complete.
Since pea plants are known to self-pollinate, Mendel's practice of transferring pollen from one pea plant to another is known as cross-pollination. Consider it an exchange. As a result, the eggs could be fertilized by the pea plants.
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1) one major advantage of using arabidopsis thaliana as a model system for studies of plant form and function is its a) fast generation time. b) exceptionally large genome. c) large seeds. d) high tolerance to stress. e) high mutation rate.
Fast generation time is a key benefit of utilizing Arabidopsis thaliana as a model system for research on plant form and function.
It's correct to choose option a.
What justifies the usage of the model Arabidopsis thaliana?A popular model in plant genetic studies is the tiny annual weed Arabidopsis thaliana, which is a member of the mustard family. It has a tiny genome, a brief life cycle, and is straightforward to mutate.
What distinguishes Arabidopsis thaliana?To identify unique defense mechanisms of plant-pathogen resistance, Arabidopsis thaliana is employed as a model organism. These plants feature unique receptors on the surface of their cells, which enable the detection of pathogens and start processes to stop the spread of those infections.
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How are organelles and cytoplasm passed from one generation to the next in humans?.
Actually, copies of the original organelles from the parent are transferred to the offspring. Extranuclear DNA is passed along in this manner.
How do humans pass on their genes to future generations?Through inherited chemical information units, genetic information is transmitted from one generation to the next (in most cases, genes). Through sexual reproduction, organisms create other creatures that are genetically identical to themselves, maintaining the genetic material's branch and connecting generations.
How is the cytoplasmic DNA passed down?Cytoplasmic genetic components are often inherited from the mother, while there are a few cases in which they are acquired from the father, from a second parent, or from both parents.
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c) what is the probability in the f2 generation of a green stem offspring? use a punnett square(s) and quantitative data to explain your thinking. upload your punnett square(s).
The percentages of various genotypes that are anticipated to be present in the children of two parents may be calculated using a Punnett square.
The overall number of squares in each Punnett Square should be counted. You are then provided with the estimated total number of offspring. Subtract the (phenotype's prevalence in the population) from (the total number of offspring). To get your %, multiply the value given step 4 by 100. Punnett squares can be used to predict the proportions of phenotypes that known genotypes will produce in a cross's offspring. Based on other genotypes included in the cross, a missing genotype can be identified using a Punnett square. Because two heterozygous parents were crossbred, the F2 generation is much more varied. The genotype pattern of the F2 generation is as follows: 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive, and 25% homozygous dominant.
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Meiosis i is described as ______ division because it results in two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes.
Meiosis I is described as reductional division because it results in two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes.
Meiosis is a part of the sexual process because gametes (sperm and eggs) have one-half the number of chromosomes as diploid (2N) individuals. Meiosis has two divisions; the first is meiosis I, in which the number of cells doubles but the number of chromosomes does not. As a result, each cell has half as many chromosomes. Meiosis is also known as "reduction division" because it reduces the number of chromosomes to half the normal number so that when sperm and egg fusion occurs, the baby has the correct number.
Sister chromatids within the two daughter cells separate during meiosis II, resulting in the formation of four new haploid gametes. Meiosis II mechanics are similar to mitosis, with the exception that each dividing cell has only one set of homologous chromosomes. Meiosis II is the second division of meiosis in which each chromosome's chromatids are segregated equally into daughter cells. During the interphase that precedes meiosis II, no DNA replication occurs. Prophase II is the initial stage of meiosis II.
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what is the net amount of atp gained from anaerobic breakdown (glycolysis) of one molecule of glucose in the cytoplasm during anaerobic respiration?
Only two net molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis for every glucose molecule.
What is glycolysis?
The metabolic process that changes glucose into pyruvate is known as glycolysis. The high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate and reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are created using the free energy released during this process. A series of ten enzyme-catalyzed processes make up glycolysis. Hexokinase, a phosphorylating enzyme, assists in the phosphorylation process that traps glucose.
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A forensic scientist does a flame on a substance that was found at a crime scene. What might the scientist conclude if the flame turns green?.
The substances like Borax (sodium borate), Copper(II) sulfate, barium, and boric acid burn with a characteristic green flame.
A qualitative test called the flame test is used to identify the constituents of a combination. With the aid of a fine wire, the unidentified item or mixture is exposed to a flame (such as the flame of a Bunsen burner or a spirit lamp) in this procedure. It is mentioned what the hue of the flame is. The identification of metals with this test is sensitive. It also has the ability to discern between colors that are similar, allowing for reliable ingredient identification. This technique can also be used to detect impure chemicals.
Impurities could prevent the test from identifying the metal ions using this method, but the mixture is dipped in hydrochloric acid before being exposed to the flame. The similar flame colors of metal ions would present another challenge. The substances like Borax (sodium borate), Copper(II) sulfate, barium, and boric acid burn with a characteristic green flame.
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Part A:
Arrange the steps of transcription of DNA to synthesize mRNA. Rank the steps of transcription of DNA to synthesize mRNA.
1. DNA double helix unwinds to expose the nucleotide bases
2. RNA polymerase identifies the start sequence
3. RNA polymerase adds bases that are complementary to the DNA template
4. RNA polymerase identifies the termination sequence
5. mRNA strand and RNA polymerase are released
Rank the steps of transcription of DNA to synthesize mRNA.
1. DNA double helix unwinds to expose the nucleotide bases
2. RNA polymerase identifies the start sequence
3. RNA polymerase adds bases that are complementary to the DNA template
4. RNA polymerase identifies the termination sequence
5. mRNA strand and RNA polymerase are released
Transcription is the process by which the DNA sequence of a gene is replicated (transcribed) to produce an RNA molecule.The primary transcription enzyme is RNA polymerase.When RNA polymerase binds to a promoter sequence near the start of a gene, transcription begins.RNA polymerase uses one of the DNA strands (the template strand) as a template to create a new, complementary RNA molecule.Termination is the process by which transcription comes to an end. Termination is dependent on RNA sequences that signal that the transcript is complete.Learn more about transcription to visit this link
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