The most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds is to listen for up to 5 minutes when auscultating for bowel sounds.
What action should be taken when assessing bowel sounds?Always follow this sequence for the assessment of bowel sounds: inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation and changing the order of these assessment techniques can alter the frequency of bowel sounds and make findings less accurate.
Auscultate for bowel sounds by beginning in the right lower quadrant, and move in sequence up to the right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant and finally the left lower quadrant. Change in bowel sounds indicates problems with the patient before other signs emerge.
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a premature infant with serious respiratory problems as been in the neonatal intensive care unit for the last 3 months. the infant's parents also have a 22-month-old son at home. the nurse's assessment data for the parents include chronic fatigue, decreased energy, guilt about neglecting the son at home, short tempers with one another,
The human response that would be appropriate for the nurse to document is caregiver role strain. The correct answer is C.
For the past three months, a premature newborn with severe respiratory difficulties has been in the neonatal critical care unit. The parents of the newborn also have a 22-month-old kid at home. The parents' nurse assessment data include chronic exhaustion and diminished energy, guilt over ignoring their son at home, short tempers with one another, and concern about their capacity to continue on this path. These data demonstrate the existence of caregiver role strain.
Understanding the Caregiver Role StrainCaregiver role strain occurs when a caregiver fears they will be unable to execute their duties satisfactorily due to financial constraints, increasing responsibilities, a disruption in family life, or a role shift. The emotion is perfectly normal and is a frequent reaction to a very stressful event.
This question is incomplete. Here are the missing sentence and answer choices:
A premature infant with serious respiratory problems has been in the neonatal intensive care unit for the last 3 months. The infant's parents also have a 22-month-old son at home. The nurse's assessment data for the parents include chronic fatigue and decreased energy, guilt about neglecting the son at home, shortness of temper with one another, and apprehension about their continued ability to go on this way. What human response would be appropriate for the nurse to document?
A. GrievingB. Ineffective CopingC. Caregiver Role StrainD. PowerlessnessThe correct answer to this question is C.
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which is an adverse effect of oral decongestants? which is an adverse effect of oral decongestants? orbital edema hypotension facial flushing hypertension
In addition to raising blood pressure and blood sugar levels, aggravating glaucoma or urinary disorders, raising the risk of seizures, and affecting cardiac diseases.
How do decongestants promote high blood pressure?Decongestants are the over-the-counter cold medications that raise the greatest red flags for hypertensive individuals. Decongestants ease nasal congestion by constricting blood vessels and minimising nasal edoema.
What adverse consequence of using decongestants is most typical?There could be symptoms including fatigue, dizziness, blurred vision, nausea, anxiety, or dry mouth, nose, or throat. Tell your doctor or pharmacist right away if any of these side effects persist or worsen.
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lindsay is a nurse with an advanced degree who performs routine exams, conducts diagnostic tests, and can prescribe medication. which type of nurse is she?
Lindsay is a nurse practitioner who can write prescriptions, perform basic checkups, and run diagnostic testing.
A nurse practitioner is what?Nurse practitioners' regular duties include acquiring and documenting patient medical histories, and diagnosing illnesses, injuries, and acute diseases.
Preparing prescriptions for drugs
ordering diagnostic procedures including laboratory testing and X-rays
creating treatment plans, carrying out required medical procedures, and educating patients about medical diseases and procedures.
What specialties does a nurse practitioner have?All nurse practitioners have a speciality, much like medical professionals or surgeons do. Your schooling, tests, and licensure will be centered around the speciality you select. Among the choices are:
Family nurse practitioner (FNP): A primary care professional is a FNP. One of the most popular nurse practitioner specialties is this one.
Nurse practitioner for adults: Adult patients receive primary care services from adult nurse practitioners. Exams, instruction, diagnostic, and treatments often fall under this category.
Nurse practitioner in pediatrics: Primary care is provided to patients ranging in age from infants diagnostic to teenagers by pediatric nurse practitioners.
Nurse practitioner in geriatrics: Older persons are the focus of geriatric nurse practitioners' work.
Nurse practitioner for women: A women's nurse practitioner focuses on issues specific to women's health. They offer complete gynecological and reproductive care.
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Answer: Although they(Lindsay nurse) have more specific training and expertise, their tasks are similar to those of an RN.
Explanation: Licensed Practical Nurses (LPN), Registered Nurses (RN), and Advanced Practice Registered Nurses are the three different categories of nurses (APRN).
You can pursue a number of levels of the profession on the road to becoming a nurse, each with a unique designation or qualification that results. Depending on your academic background and area of specialisation, there are many nursing titles. The licenced practise nurse (LPN), registered nurse (RN), and advanced practise registered nurse are the three most prevalent nursing specialties (APRN).
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a 37-year-old woman with a two-year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic for worsening joint pain. previously her disease had been well controlled on 10 mg weekly of methotrexate. you decide to advance her dose to 20 mg weekly to help control her synovitis. what changes in her health maintenance might you have to make with this change?
A chemical reaction took place absorbing thermal energy from the path.
What is rheumatoid arthritis ?The hands, wrists, and knees are frequently affected by RA. When RA affects a joint, the joint's lining becomes inflamed, harming the joint tissue. Unsteadiness (lack of balance), chronic or long-lasting pain, and deformity can all result from this tissue damage.
As an autoimmune disorder, rheumatoid arthritis is brought on by the immune system attacking healthy body tissue. But the cause of this is still unknown. Your immune system typically produces antibodies that fight viruses and bacteria, aiding in the prevention of infection.
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the nurse is caring for a 69-year-old patient with a history of osteoarthritis (oa) who has just been admitted to the medical unit. the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between oa and rheumatoid arthritis (ra). what is the best response by the nurse?
The nurse's most effective answer "Joint disease with no inflammation is OA. Inflamed, swollen joints are an indication of RA."
Which professions do nurses work in?Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and perform medical treatments, offer emotional support to the patient's family members, and educate the public about a range of health concerns. The majority of licensed registered nurses work in tandem with medical professionals in a range of contexts.
Potential candidates include nurses.Their duties encompass a wide range of post-operative surgical therapy procedures. Surgery involving the heart, children, or fetuses is a frequent area of competence for surgical nurses.
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a client is preparing for discharge to home following a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy. which is the best rationale for the client being taught to lie down for 30 minutes after each meal? allows for better absorption of vitamin b12
The best rationale for the client being taught to lie down for 30 minutes after each meal allows slow gastric emptying.
Following partial gastrectomy, the condition known as "dumping syndrome" is common. Resting after meals can be beneficial to prevent the accelerated emptying of the stomach. Resting after meals is not something that should be encouraged, even after major surgery. Due to the absence of intrinsic factor production in the stomach after this kind of surgery, patients will require vitamin B12 supplements. Resting does not lessen suture line tension or boost B12 absorption.
What is dumping syndrome caused by?Dumping syndrome is brought on by fast gastric emptying, a condition in which the meal passes through the stomach and duodenum too quickly. Hormones produced and released by the digestive tract regulate how the digestive system of the body functions.
What is the main role of the duodenum?The first part of the small intestine is known as the duodenum which aids in accelerating food digestion after it leaves the stomach. It takes in water, vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, fats, and proteins from food so that the body can utilize them.
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a preventative approach to pain relief with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (nsaids) means that the medication is given:
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicines (NSAIDs) are used as a preventative measure to treat pain. This implies that the medication is administered: Before pain is felt.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs): How do they function?NSAIDs obstruct cyclooxygenase (or COX), a particular enzyme that the body uses to produce prostaglandins. NSAIDs aid in easing fever discomfort by lowering prostaglandin production, which also lowers inflammation and related pain.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications work to reduce inflammation in what ways?NSAIDs relieve pain and inflammation by preventing an enzyme called cyclooxygenases from doing its job (COX). NSAIDs aid in the prevention and/or reduction of pain and inflammation by inhibiting COX. Many of the negative effects of NSAIDs are also brought on by the suppression of the COX enzyme.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Drugs like steroids are controlled substances. They are illegal and dangerous to take without a prescription. Some athletes take them to ____.A. prevent fatigueB. increase metabolismC. stimulate muscle growthD. prevent injury
Without a prescription, it is against the law and risky to consume them. They are used by some athletes to promote muscular growth.
How long will it take for muscle growth to be stimulated?More experienced lifters will detect changes in three to four weeks, but most beginners will start to observe muscle gain around eight weeks. With the proper strength exercise and diet, the majority of people grow one with two pounds of lean muscle each month.
What are the essential three factors for muscular growth?Three main pathways of muscle growth, namely muscle tension, metabolic stress, and muscle injury, are described by exercise physiologist Brad Schoenfeld. The amount of weight you lift frequently has an impact on all of these variables.
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A 75-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has recently been placed on glipizide (Glucotrol), 10 mg daily. She asks the nurse when the best time would be to take this medication. What is the nurse's best response?
a. "Take this medication in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast."
b. "Take this medication in the evening with a snack."
c. "This medication needs to be taken after the midday meal."
d. "It does not matter what time of day you take this medication."
Option A is the correct answer. Glipizide is taken in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast. When taken at this time, it has a longer duration of action, causing a constant amount of insulin to be released. This may be beneficial in controlling blood glucose levels throughout the day.
Glipizide is in a class of medications called sulfonylureas. Glipizide lowers blood sugar by causing the pancreas to produce insulin and helping the body use insulin efficiently. This medication will only help lower blood sugar in people whose bodies produce insulin naturally. Glipizide is not used to treat type 1 diabetes (a condition in which the body does not produce insulin and, therefore, cannot control the amount of sugar in the blood) or diabetic ketoacidosis (a serious condition that may occur if high blood sugar is not treated).
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the nurse administers a booster dose of dtap (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
Primary prevention (A) refers to practices that aim to lower the risk of sickness before it manifests, such vaccines.Tertiary prevention (B) actively manages or rehabilitates a sickness or illness to lessen its effects.Early diagnosis and the implementation of actions intended to treat a disease or slow its progression are included in secondary prevention (C).Instead of describing a healthcare plan, primary nursing (D) describes a system of nursing administration and nursing care assignments.
How frequently should you get DTaP vaccine?ALL adults who won't receive the Tdap vaccine as children should do so.Once they have gotten this, a Td or Tdap booster shot must be given this dose every ten years.
What vaccination is required when around a newborn?As a result, everyone who comes in contact with infants should be up to date on all standard vaccinations, including:shot for whooping cough (DTaP for children and Tdap for preteens, teens, and adults) During flu season, get your flu shot.
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a nurse is caring for a patient who has cirrhosis of hte liver. which clincial manifestations would hte nurse expect to find
While providing care to a patient with cirrhosis of the liver the nurse can find: feet that are swollen; Dizziness and sluggishness; Black stools or stools with blood in them.
Hepatic encephalopathy, belly varices, and peripheral edema are all facet consequences of liver cirrhosis. The feet will swell or emerge as edematous whilst peripheral edema is present. Gastric varices may manifest as blood in the stool or inside the vomit. Lethargy, altered mental status, sleep disorders, and disorientation are symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Cirrhosis of the liver is a type of advanced scarring (fibrosis) of the liver delivered on via a lot of illness and illnesses, along with hepatitis and chronic drinking. The liver strives to heal itself if it sustains damage from any ailment, too much alcohol, or another purpose. Scar tissue is created in the course of the process. Making the liver's job tough. Cirrhosis usually leaves permanent liver damage that cannot be reversed. However, additional harm can be prevented and, in rare cases, reversed if liver cirrhosis is identified early and the cause is addressed.
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in addressing health promotion for a client who is a member of another culture, the nurse should be guided by which principle?
The nurse should attempt to comprehend the cultural lens through which the client may view health promotion as part of the cultural assessment process.
The client's perspective on health promotion could be completely different. Although it could be viewed differently in non-Western cultures, health promotion is not a concept that is unique to Western civilizations.
Even if a client's culture does not prioritise health promotion, the nurse should nonetheless address health promotion-related concerns in a courteous and pertinent way. There is no direct correlation between socioeconomic development levels and health promotion.
The employment of a systematic approach and problem-solving methodology, as well as the application of certain processes for attending birth and death, are cultural norms of the healthcare system.
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while doing a health history, a client tells the nurse that her mother, her grandmother, and her sister died of breast cancer. the client asks what she can do to keep from getting cancer. what is the best response by the nurse?
You cannot avoid cancer, but you can have your blood checked for tumour markers to determine your risk level, as the nurse should have said.
For tumour markers in blood, particular proteins, antigens, hormones, genes, or enzymes that cancer cells emit, specialised tests have been created. Delivering the client the answers from B and C would be giving erroneous information because they are incorrect. Option D is unwise since it downplays and dismisses the client's worry. Biomarkers are another term for tumour markers. To determine whether you have cancer, doctors may do tumour marker testing. These tests can also aid in the diagnosis of your cancer and the development of a treatment strategy.
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what is endotoxin shock? how does it differ from inflammation? was josh at risk of endotoxin shock with his staph infection? g
The name "endotoxin shock," which is thought to result from the release of a toxin from gram-negative bacteria, provides a therapeutic conundrum for medical professionals.
Inflammation brought on by endotoxin: how?TLR4 is the receptor that endotoxin uses to trigger an inflammatory response, including rising TNF- levels. Endotoxin activates kupffer cells, the body's first line of defense. In human NASH, there has been noted Kupffer cell activation.
How can septic shock result from endotoxin?Syndrome of Septic Shock, Endotoxins generated during severe Gram-negative bacterial infections are the main cause of septic shock in humans, which has a startling 30–50% death rate (Danner et al., 1991).
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which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) about self-management?
"HIV can be passed on to anyone who comes into touch with contaminated blood."
How to Avoid HIV?HIV medication can help to reduce the level of HIV in the blood (called viral load). HIV medication can reduce the viral load to such a low level that a test cannot detect it (called an undetectable viral load). HIV patients who maintain an undetectable viral load (or are virally suppressed) can live long and healthy lives. The presence of less than 200 copies of HIV per milliliter of blood is considered viral suppression. If a person's viral load is undetectable, they will not transmit HIV to their partner through intercourse. In addition, having an undetectable viral load precludes transmission to others via sharing needles, syringes, or other injection equipment, as well as transmission from mother-to-child during pregnancy, birth, and breastfeeding. Most people can control the infection within six months.
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when providing care to a client, the nurse refers to the client's ethnic group. which aspects would the nurse include as pertaining to this concept? select all that apply.
The correct option are -shared beliefs or origin ,language ,religious beliefs.
How can ethnic groups be identified?
Ethnic membership is typically defined by ancestry, origin myth, history, homeland, language or dialect, symbolic systems such as religion, mythology, and ritual, cuisine, dressing style, art, or physical appearance.
What role does ethnicity play?
These people argue that ethnicity, as a scientific term, allows researchers to distinguish groups of people based on their ancestry, language, customs, religion, culture, or nationality without relying on physical characteristics that are central to the definition of race.
What are 5 examples of ethnicity?
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Full Question :When providing care to a client, the nurse refers to the client's ethnic group. Which aspects would the nurse include as pertaining to this concept? Select all that apply.
shared beliefs or origin
language
religious beliefs
skin color
eye shape
a client with a history of allergic rhinitis comes to the clinic for an evaluation. the client is prescribed triamcinolone. what will the nurse include when teaching the client about this drug?
Answer:
Be aware that some nasal burning and itching may occur.
Explanation:
the nurse places a hospitalized client with active tuberculosis in a private, well-ventilated isolation room. in addition, which action would the nurse take before entering the client's room
When caring for a patient with active TB, the nurse wears a HEPA respirator. Always wash your hands properly before and after caring for a customer.
What is an isolation room?A hospital's isolation room is a specially built space created for sheltering patients with infectious diseases in order to stop the sickness from spreading throughout the facility. The isolation room is intended to isolate the patient from the outside world, in contrast to a clean room, which separates the patient from the outside environment. As a result, while having many similarities, they cannot be used interchangeably. For instance, a clean room must be constructed mostly of hypoallergenic materials, but an isolated room needs to be built according to antiseptic principles.
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the nurse is caring for an elderly client who has experienced a sensorineural hearing loss. the nurse anticipates that the client will exhibit which symptoms?
The otoscope examination aids in determining the health of the middle ear, external auditory canal, and tympanic membrane. A thorough understanding of the otoscope exam results in precise diagnoses that enable focused therapy and problems prevention.
Is sensorineural hearing loss tested for by Rinne?Exams that check for hearing loss include the Rinne and Weber tests. They support the identification of conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. With the use of this information, a doctor can develop a therapy strategy for your hearing changes. By contrasting bone conduction with air conduction, the Rinne test assesses hearing loss.
The tympanic membrane should be examined for perforation, sclerosis, and retraction if it is apparent. It is important to identify whether or not a typical light reaction exists.
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which medication will the nurse teach a patient with asthma to use when experiencing an acute asthma attack?
a client has been taking furosemide (lasix) and valsartan (diovan) for the past year. the hospital laboratory notifies the nurse that the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 meq/l. what is the nurse's best action at this time?
Renal failure may also be present in hyperkalemic (serum potassium increased) patients. If the client's serum creatinine level is more than 1.8 mg/dL, it should be examined.
What sort of work are nurses supposed to perform?Registered nurses (RNs) manage and perform medical treatment, inform the public about various health issues, and provide patients and their families with emotional support. The majority of registered nurses collaborate with doctors and other health care providers in a variety of situations.
Can a nurse perform the task?Several surgical post-operative therapeutic responsibilities are under their purview. In the case of obstetrics, pediatric surgery, or cardiac surgery, many surgical nursing professionals opt to concentrate in that specific field.
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a client with multiple pain-related injuries to the back, knees, and hips is admitted with acute liver failure. upon procuring a medication list, the nurse notes that the client is taking several over-the-counter medications that contain a preparation known to be the drug that most commonly causes liver failure. which drug is this?
Answer: Acetaminophen.
Explanation: The drug that is most commonly known to cause liver failure is acetaminophen, which is commonly found in over-the-counter pain medications such as Tylenol. Acetaminophen is a commonly used pain reliever and fever reducer, but it can cause liver failure when taken in high doses or when combined with alcohol.
If a client with multiple pain-related injuries to the back, knees, and hips is admitted with acute liver failure and is taking several over-the-counter medications that contain acetaminophen, it is possible that the acetaminophen could have contributed to their liver failure. In this situation, it is important for the nurse to carefully review the client's medication list and to monitor their liver function closely. The nurse may need to adjust the client's medications or provide liver-protective therapies to help prevent further liver damage.
a perimenopausal woman reports insomnia. which intervention(s) will the nurse suggest to the client? select all that apply.
Avoid drinking alcohol and caffeine in the evening because both are linked to disruptions of the regular sleep cycle. Before going to bed, consume a small protein and carbohydrate snack.
Which recommendation for a client's promotion of sleep would the nurse make?Establishing and maintaining a regular sleep and wake time for the client depending on their habits and needs are some of these sleep enhancement therapies and schedules. reducing daytime naps' length and frequency.
What is the suggested course of action for insomnia?It is typically advised that (CBT-I) be used as the first line of treatment for people with insomnia since it can help you manage or get rid of the negative thoughts and behaviors that keep you up at night. Usually, CBT-I is just as effective as or even better than sleep aids.
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a client reports a severe unilateral throbbing headache, nausea, intolerance to light and sound, and double vision. which phase of this headache involves double vision?
Aurora phase. The headache may be accompanied by a collection of visual, sensory, or motor symptoms. Examples include altered eyesight, hallucinations, and numbness.
Which etiology has intertrigo been linked to in patients?Intertrigo's etiology
Skin-to-skin contact, perspiration, maceration, moisture retention in deep skin folds, or irritation from feces, urine, drainage, or topically applied substances are some of the initiating reasons. Infection and autoeczema may also play a role in intertrigo.
Is unilateral intertrigo possible?Although they sometimes overlap, intertrigo is divided into infectious and inflammatory causes. The majority of infections are unilateral and asymmetrical.
Skin-to-skin friction, which is exacerbated by heat and moisture, is what causes intertrigo.
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after teaching the parents of a 6-year-old child about caring for a sprained wrist, which statement by the parents indicates the need for additional teaching?
If dorsal-radial pain with an inability to bear weight through an extended wrist (such as during a push-up) is present, the scapholunate ligament may be affected.
How long does a sprained wrist take to heal?Your wrist hurts because the ligaments connecting the bones there have been torn or stretched. While some wrist sprains require more time to recover, most do so in 2 to 10 weeks. If you're in more pain, your wrist sprain is probably more serious and will take longer to heal.
Can you move your wrist even when it is sprained?A wrist sprain might not completely prevent you from moving your wrist. Even though it can hurt, you can still accomplish it. That often means you have a sprain as opposed to a fractured bone. Additional signs of a wrist sprain include swelling and redness around the injured area of the wrist.
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a nurse is caring for a newborn client diagnosed with spina bifida. which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse who is monitoring for the risk of hydrocephalus
The most crucial diagnostic method for spotting potential hydrocephalus involves measuring head circumference, which is an essential component of daily care.
Which of these three factors produces hydrocephalus?Bleeding inside the brain, such as if blood pours over the surface of the brain, is one of the potential causes of acquired hydrocephalus subarachnoid haemorrhage cerebral blood clots (venous thrombosis) The meninges, which surround the brain and spinal cord, can become infected.
Adult hydrocephalus: What causes it?A subarachnoid or intraventricular hemorrhage in the brain's CSF, head trauma, an infection, a tumor, or a postoperative complication can all cause normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). But even without any of these conditions, many people have NPH.
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the nurse in an outpatient clinic is conducting a follow-up assessment on a child who had a severe streptococcal infection 1 week ago. the client is doing better, and the nurse is providing teaching to the parents about continuing to monitor the client for possible complications of the infection. which information is most important for the nurse to discuss with the parents?
Return immediately if acute flank or mid-abdominal pain occurs.
What is streptococcal infection?
Group A Streptococcus (GAS), sometimes called Strep A, is a kind of bacterium frequently found in the throat or on the skin. These bacteria have the potential to be harmful in certain situations. GAS infection frequently manifests as impetigo, cellulitis, and a slight sore throat (sometimes known as "strep throat").
The streptococcal bacteria are contagious. They can be spread through shared food or drinks, or through droplets produced when an infected person coughs or sneezes. The bacteria can also be acquired via a doorknob or other surface and then transferred to your mouth, nose, or eyes.
Children's streptococcal infections frequently result in acute glomerulonephritis. A sudden onset of acute flank or mid-abdominal discomfort is a common indicator of the beginning. The youngster may have edema and weight growth as a result of fluid retention. Also frequently seen is hypertension.
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A nurse is educating a woman with type 1 diabetes. Which statement made by the nurse is true regarding alcohol consumption?
A nurse is educating a woman with type 1 diabetes. One statement the nurse made about alcohol consumption was ''you shouldn't drink alcohol because you could have hypoglycemia without knowing it.''
What is diabetes?Diabetes is a condition in which the sugar content in the blood exceeds normal and tends to be high. Diabetes Mellitus (DM) occurs as a result of an unhealthy lifestyle which causes accumulation of sugar levels in the blood and is above the normal threshold which is chronic and long term.
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by damage to the pancreas in producing insulin, while type 2 diabetes is characterized by the failure of the insulin itself.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a new onset of gout. what medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider?
The nurse does not anticipate that the physician will order Allopurinol.
What is the first line of defense against gout?Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications or corticosteroids, depending on comorbidities, are first- or second-line treatments for acute gout, respectively. Modifiable risk factors should be addressed after the initial gout attack, such as a high-purine diet, alcohol usage, obesity, and diuretic medication.
What medical intervention is recommended for a severe gout attack?Colchicine, corticosteroids, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicines (NSAID) are the first-choice medications for acute gouty arthritis. The ideal uric acid value is 6 mg/dL, and treatment with xanthine oxidase inhibitors (XOI) or uricosuric medications is recommended for patients with a recurring or severe course.
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Patients' negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure can increase their postoperative experience of pain. This best illustrates the importance of
top-down processing
Patients' negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure can increase their postoperative experience of pain. This best illustrates the importance of top-down processing.
What Is Top-Down Processing?
Perceptions in top-down processing begin with the most general and progress toward the most detailed. Our expectations and past information substantially impact our views. Simply put, your brain uses what it knows to fill in the blanks and anticipate what will happen next.
What is top-down processing in memory?
Top-down processing involves higher-level cognitive functions such as thinking and memory, which allow us to use information that our sensory systems have previously taken in. Top-down processing allows us to avoid having to relive experiences over and over.
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