Which is an expression in square units that represents the area of the shaded segment of C. Geometry

Answer:

P10 = 27.4

P90 = 22.0

It helps the producer to know the higher (P10) and lower estimates (P90) for the amount of chocolate chips per cookie.

Step-by-step explanation:

In P10 and P90 the P stands for "percentile".

In the case of P10, indicates the value X of the random variable for which 10% of the observed values will be above this value X.

In the case of P90, this percentage is 90%.

In this case, we can calculate from the z-values for each of the percentiles in the standard normal distribution.

For P10 we have:

[tex]P(z>z_{P10})=0.1\\\\z_{P10}=1.2816[/tex]

For P90 we have:

[tex]P(z>z_{P90})=0.9\\\\z_{P90}=-1.2816[/tex]

Then, we can convert this values to our normal distribution as:

[tex]P10=\mu+z\cdot\sigma=24.7+1.2816\cdot 2.1=24.7+2.7=27.4 \\\\P90=\mu+z\cdot\sigma=24.7-1.2816\cdot 2.1=24.7-2.7=22.0[/tex]

Answer:

between 108-110?

Step-by-step explanation:

60% or 200 = 120 people

90% of 120 = 108

question doesnt look complete so this is the best I could come up with...‍♀️

Answer:

Correct option: C.

Step-by-step explanation:

(Assuming the correct function is R(x) = 2x^2 + 3x + 5)

To find the input value that gives the value of R(x) = 19, we just need to use this output value (R(x) = 19) in the equation and then find the value of x:

[tex]R(x) = 2x^2 + 3x + 5[/tex]

[tex]19 = 2x^2 + 3x + 5[/tex]

[tex]2x^2 + 3x -14 = 0[/tex]

Solving this quadratic function using the Bhaskara's formula (a = 2, b = 3 and c = -14), we have:

[tex]\Delta = b^2 - 4ac = 9 + 112 = 121[/tex]

[tex]x_1 = (-b + \sqrt{\Delta})/2a = (-3 + 11)/4 = 2[/tex]

[tex]x_2 = (-b - \sqrt{\Delta})/2a = (-3 - 11)/4 = -3.5[/tex]

So looking at the options, the input to the function is x = 2

Correct option: C.

The mass of the lamina is 6 units.

The center of mass of the lamina is (X,Y) = (-3/2, 9/2).

Here,

To find the mass and center of mass of the lamina, we need to integrate the density function ρ(x, y) over the triangular region D.

The mass (M) of the lamina is given by the double integral of the density function over the region D:

M = ∬_D ρ(x, y) dA

where dA represents the differential area element.

The center of mass (X,Y) of the lamina can be calculated using the following formulas:

X = (1/M) ∬_D xρ(x, y) dA

Y = (1/M) ∬_D yρ(x, y) dA

Now, let's proceed with the calculations:

The triangular region D has vertices (0, 0), (2, 1), and (0, 3). We can define the limits of integration for x and y as follows:

0 ≤ x ≤ 2

0 ≤ y ≤ 3 - (3/2)x

Now, let's calculate the mass (M):

M = ∬_D ρ(x, y) dA

M = ∬_D 2(x + y) dA

We need to set up the double integral over the region D:

M = ∫[0 to 2] ∫[0 to 3 - (3/2)x] 2(x + y) dy dx

Now, integrate with respect to y first:

M = ∫[0 to 2] [x(y²/2 + y)] | [0 to 3 - (3/2)x] dx

M = ∫[0 to 2] [x((3 - (3/2)x)²/2 + (3 - (3/2)x))] dx

M = ∫[0 to 2] [(3x - (3/2)x²)²/2 + (3x - (3/2)x²)] dx

Now, integrate with respect to x:

[tex]M = [(x^3 - (1/2)x^4)^2/6 + (3/2)x^2 - (1/4)x^3)] | [0 to 2]\\M = [(2^3 - (1/2)(2^4))^2/6 + (3/2)(2^2) - (1/4)(2^3)] - [(0^3 - (1/2)(0^4))^2/6 + (3/2)(0^2) - (1/4)(0^3)]\\M = [(8 - 8)^2/6 + 6 - 0] - [0]\\M = 6[/tex]

So, the mass of the lamina is 6 units.

Next, let's calculate the center of mass (X,Y):

X = (1/M) ∬_D xρ(x, y) dA

X = (1/6) ∬_D x * 2(x + y) dA

We need to set up the double integral over the region D:

X = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] ∫[0 to 3 - (3/2)x] x * 2(x + y) dy dx

Now, integrate with respect to y first:

X = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [x(y² + 2xy)] | [0 to 3 - (3/2)x] dx

X = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [x((3 - (3/2)x)² + 2x(3 - (3/2)x))] dx

X = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [x(9 - 9x + (9/4)x² + 6x - (3/2)x²)] dx

X = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [(9/4)x³ - (3/2)x⁴ + 15x - (3/2)x³] dx

Now, integrate with respect to x:

[tex]X = [(9/16)x^4 - (3/8)x^5 + (15/2)x^2 - (3/8)x^4] | [0 to 2]\\X = [(9/16)(2)^4 - (3/8)(2)^5 + (15/2)(2)^2 - (3/8)(2)^4] - [(9/16)(0)^4 - (3/8)(0)^5 + (15/2)(0)^2 - (3/8)(0)^4]\\X = [9/2 - 12 + 15 - 0] - [0]\\X = 15/2 - 12\\X = -3/2[/tex]

Next, let's calculate Y:

Y = (1/M) ∬_D yρ(x, y) dA

Y = (1/6) ∬_D y * 2(x + y) dA

We need to set up the double integral over the region D:

Y = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] ∫[0 to 3 - (3/2)x] y * 2(x + y) dy dx

Now, integrate with respect to y first:

Y = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [(xy² + 2y²)] | [0 to 3 - (3/2)x] dx

Y = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [x((3 - (3/2)x)²) + 2((3 - (3/2)x)²)] dx

Y= (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [x(9 - 9x + (9/4)x²) + 2(9 - 9x + (9/4)x²)] dx

Y = (1/6) ∫[0 to 2] [(9x - 9x² + (9/4)x³) + (18 - 18x + (9/2)x²)] dx

Now, integrate with respect to x:

[tex]Y= [(9/2)x^2 - 3x^3 + (9/16)x^4) + (18x - 9x^2 + (9/6)x^3)] | [0 to 2]\\Y = [(9/2)(2)^2 - 3(2)^3 + (9/16)(2)^4) + (18(2) - 9(2)^2 + (9/6)(2)^3)] - [(9/2)(0)^2 - 3(0)^3 + (9/16)(0)^4) + (18(0) - 9(0)^2 + (9/6)(0)^3)]\\Y = [18 - 24 + 9/2 + 36 - 36 + 12] - [0]\\Y= 9/2[/tex]

So, the center of mass of the lamina is (X,Y) = (-3/2, 9/2).

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete statement would be "if a line is perpendicular to one of two parallel lines, then it is also perpendicular to the other".

The reason for this is because parallel lines have the same slope, that's the condition. On the other hand, parallel lines have opposite and reciprocal slopes.

So, if you think this through, if a line is perpendicular to another, then it's going to be perpendicular to all different lines which are parallel to the first one, because all their slopes are equivalent, and they will fulfill the perpendicularity condition.

Answer:

Parallel line

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope It Helps

Answer:

[tex]\frac{d}{dy}(-3x^{2} -12) = -6x[/tex]

0 = -6x

0 = x

[tex]-3(0)^{2} -12 = -12[/tex]

(0,-12)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

81

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's do this systematically:

Four numbers: a, b, c, d

Whose mean is 85: [tex]\frac{a + b + c + d}{4} = 85[/tex]

Whose largest number is 97: [tex]\frac{a + b + c + 97}{4} = 85[/tex]

Lets solve for the other numbers:

a+b+c+97 = 85*4 = 340

340 - 97 = 243

a+b+c = 243

at this point it doesn't matter what the numbers are, they just need to add up to 243.

We can do 243÷3=81, which is our answer

Answer:

P(X < 80) = 0.89435.

Step-by-step explanation:

When the distribution is normal, we use the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

In this question, we have that:

[tex]\mu = 60, \sigma = 16[/tex]

P(X < 80)

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 80. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{80 - 60}{16}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.25[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.25[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.89435.

So

P(X < 80) = 0.89435.

Answer:

Where is the table because I dont see it up here?

Answer:

Options (D), (E) and (F) are the correct options.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the figure attached,

1). Angle 4 is the exterior angle of the given triangle having interior angles 1, 2 and 3.

Therefore, by the property of exterior angle,

∠4 = ∠1 + ∠2

2). Since ∠4 = ∠1 + ∠2,

Therefore, ∠4 will be greater than ∠1

 Similarly, ∠4 will be greater than ∠2

Therefore, Options (D), (E) and (F) are the correct options.

Answer:

[tex]\chi^2 = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{(O_i -E_i)^2}{E_i}[/tex]

The expected values for all the categories is :

[tex] E_i =\frac{150}{3}=50[/tex]

And then the statistic would be given by:

[tex]\chi^2 = \frac{(40-50)^2}{50}+\frac{(60-50)^2}{50}+\frac{(50-50)^2}{50}=4[/tex]

And the best option would be:

b. 4

Step-by-step explanation:

For this problem we have the following observed values:

Yes 40 No 60 No Opinion 50

And we want to test the following hypothesis:

Null hypothesis: All the opinions are uniformly distributed

Alternative hypothesis: Not All the opinions are uniformly distributed

And for this case the statistic would be given by:

[tex]\chi^2 = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{(O_i -E_i)^2}{E_i}[/tex]

The expected values for all the categories is :

[tex] E_i =\frac{150}{3}=50[/tex]

And then the statistic would be given by:

[tex]\chi^2 = \frac{(40-50)^2}{50}+\frac{(60-50)^2}{50}+\frac{(50-50)^2}{50}=4[/tex]

And the best option would be:

b. 4

Answer:

9π or 28.3 units²

Step-by-step explanation:

A = πr²

A = π(3)²

A = 9π

or

A= 28.3 units²

Hope this helps. :)

Answer:

Amount of money David received = £ 175

Step-by-step explanation:

Both of them share their profit in a ratio of 5:7 . Tina got £70 more than David. Let

the amount David received = a

amount Tina received = 70 + a

the total profit = 70 + 2a

Amount David received = 5/12 × 70 + 2a = a

Therefore,

5/12 × 70 + 2a = a

350 + 10a/12 = a

cross multiply

350 + 10a = 12a

collect like terms

350 = 12a - 10a

350 = 2a

divide both sides by 2

a  = 350/2

a = 175

Amount of money David received = £ 175

Answer:

t = d/s

t = 6.4 / 2 miles

t = 3.2 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

follow me plzzz

Step-by-step explanation:

let the larger number be x and smaller number be y

according to this question

x=y+33----------(1)

y+33+5y=129----------(2)

6y+33=129

y=16

x=16+33(takimg equation (1)

x=49

Answer:

Larger number: 49.

Smaller number: 16.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's say that the larger number is represented by y, and the smaller is represented by x.

y = 33 + x

y + 5 * x = 129

(33 + x) + 5x = 129

6x + 33 = 129

6x = 96

x = 16

y = 33 + 16

y = 49

Check our work...

49 + 5 * 16 = 49 + 80 = 129

49 = 33 + 16 = 49

Since it all works out, the larger number is 49 and the smaller number is 16.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

E = { x l x is a perfect square <36}

And we can rewrite it taking in count the list of all the perfect squares less than 36 and we have:

1= 1*1

4= 2*2

9 = 3*3

16 =4*4

25= 5*5

And we can rewrite the set on this way:

E= {1,4,9,16,25}

Step-by-step explanation:

For this problem we have the following set:

E = { x l x is a perfect square <36}

And we can rewrite it taking in count the list of all the perfect squares less than 36 and we have:

1= 1*1

4= 2*2

9 = 3*3

16 =4*4

25= 5*5

And we can rewrite the set on this way:

E= {1,4,9,16,25}

━━━━━━━☆☆━━━━━━━

▹ Answer

#3. 1.89/100

▹ Step-by-Step Explanation

1.89 → hundreths place so..

1.89/100 is the correct answer

Hope this helps!

- CloutAnswers ❁

Brainliest is greatly appreciated!

━━━━━━━☆☆━━━━━━━

Answer: 1/35

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5 = 0.2

0.2/7= 1/35

Answer:

Step by step explanation

[tex] \frac{1}{5} \div 7[/tex]

Dividing is equivalent to multiplying with the reciprocal:

[tex] \frac{1}{5} \times \frac{1}{7} [/tex]

Multiply the fraction

[tex] \frac{1 \times 1}{5 \times 7} [/tex]

[tex] = \frac{1}{35} [/tex]

Hope this helps...

Good luck on your assignment.

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

The double cone is a cone on top of another cone. The bottom cone has the circular base on the bottom and the tip on top. The upper cone is upside down, and the two tips touch. Since the vertical plane goes through the tips of both cones, the cross section must have a shape that  gets to a point at the middle of the height.

Answer: B. One triangle with the tip on top and an inverted triangle above it with the tips touching.

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

answer: B. one triangle tip on top and invert above it with the top touching

Answer:

for us to be able to ascertain whether a function has no limit we approach from two points which are from zero and infinity.

Step-by-step explanation:

the two best path to approach a function is to approach from zero and approach from infinity, literary what we are trying to do is approach from the smallest to the greatest and it each point we can conclude with certainty whether the function has a limit or not.

Answer:

123454321

Step-by-step explanation:

it's a palendrome, made out of a number of numbers in the sqquence.

Answer:

A.) NM= x

C.) LM = x√2

E.) tan (45°) = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

If the legs are both x, then the hypotenuse is equal to [tex]x\sqrt{2[/tex]

Therefore, LM= [tex]x\sqrt{2[/tex] is correct and MN= x

Disclaimer: The sum is done according to the picture attached as the question given is wrong.

The true statements regarding the given isosceles right triangle ΔLMN are:

An isosceles triangle is a triangle where two sides and their corresponding angles are equal.

A right triangle is a triangle with one angle = 90°.

An isosceles right triangle is a right-angled triangle with two legs including the right angle are equal. Their corresponding angles are equal and each of them = 45°. So, the three angles of an isosceles right triangle are 45°, 45°, and 90°, always.

In the figure, we can see that we have a ΔLMN, with ∠L = 45°, ∠M = 45°, and ∠N = 90°. Also, we can see that LN = x.

The given angles of ΔLMN determine that it is an isosceles right triangle with a right angle at N.

Since, the two legs involving the right angle, that is N, are equal, we can say that, NM = LN = x.

The hypotenuse of the ΔLMN, that is the side opposite to ∠N, that is LM, can be found using the Pythagoras theorem, by which in a right-angled triangle,

Hypotenuse² = Base² + Perpendicular².

∴ LM² = LN² + NM² = x² + x² = 2x².

or, LM = √(2x²) = x√2.

The tangent of an angle ∅, that is, tan ∅ is computed using the formula,

tan ∅ = Perpendicular/Base.

To calculate tan 45°, that is, tangent to ∠L, we take Perpendicular = NM and Base = LN.

∴ tan 45° = NM/LN = x/x = 1.

Now, we check all the given options:

∴ The true statements regarding the given isosceles right triangle ΔLMN are:

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Answer:

Null Hypothesis, [tex]H_0[/tex] : p [tex]\geq[/tex] 51%

Alternate Hypothesis, [tex]H_A[/tex] : p < 51%

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that less than 51% of workers got their job through networking. We have to express the null and alternative hypotheses in symbolic form for this claim.

Let p = population proportion of workers who got their job through networking

So, Null Hypothesis, [tex]H_0[/tex] : p [tex]\geq[/tex] 51%

Alternate Hypothesis, [tex]H_A[/tex] : p < 51%

Here, the null hypothesis states that greater than or equal to 51% of workers got their job through networking.

On the other hand, the alternate hypothesis states that less than 51% of workers got their job through networking.

Hence, this is the appropriate hypothesis that can be used.

Answer: 420 words

Step-by-step explanation:

First find how much he did the first day by doing 1/5*2400=480.

Then find out how much he did the second day by doing 2400-480=1920, then doing 1920*(2/3)=1280.

Then, because he did 220 words the third day, simply do 2400-480-1280-220=420.

Hope it helps <3

Ans420 words per min

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

56% shaded

Step-by-step explanation:

if there are 100 boxes, then every box it 1%

5 rows (50%) + 6 extra boxes (6%) = 56%

Answer: k = 4, k = -4 and k = 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

If we have y = sin(kt)

then:

y' = k*cos(kt)

y'' = -k^2*son(x).

then, if we have the relation:

y'' - y = 0

we can replace it by the things we derivated previously and get:

-k^2*sin(kt) + 16*sin(kt) = 0

we can divide by sin in both sides (for t ≠0 and k ≠0 because we can not divide by zero)

-k^2 + 16 = 0

the solutions are k = 4 and k = -4.

Now, we have another solution, but it is a trivial one that actually does not give any information, but for the diff equation:

-k^2*sin(kt) + 16*sin(kt) = 0

if we take k = 0, we have:

-0 + 0 = 0.

So the solutions are k = 4, k = -4 and k = 0.

Answer:

Pentagon

Step-by-step explanation:

the head is the closest I see

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression [tex]log_81000 = log_210[/tex], to prove this expression is true using the properties of logarithm, we will follow the following steps.

Starting from the Left Hand Side:

Answer:

10% interest.

Step-by-step explanation:

Interest I = PRT/100

If the rate R = x% we have

550 = P*x *1 / 100

and

770 = P*(x + 4) * 1 / 100

so From  first equation

Px = 55000  and from the second

Px + 4P =  77000

So Px = 77000 - 4P

Therefore  77000 - 4P = 55000

4P = 22000

P = 5,500

So x = 55000/5500 = 10%.

And  the rate for the other fund is 10 + 4 = 14%.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First we must first find the LCM

The LCM of x² + 3x + 2 and (x + 2)(x + 1 ) is

x² + 3x + 2

So we have

[tex] \frac{x}{ {x}^{2} + 3x + 2 } - \frac{1}{(x + 2)(x + 1)} \\ \\ = \frac{x - 1}{ {x}^{2} + 3x + 2 } [/tex]

Hope this helps you

Answer:

The answer is OPTION D!

Step-by-step explanation:

HoPe ThIs HeLpS!