People of all ages, including children, are susceptible to systemic lupus erythematous . However, the largest risk of getting SLE is among women who are of childbearing age (15 to 44 years). Women are harmed much more than males, regardless of age (estimates range from 4 to 12 women for every 1 man).
For a client who might have rheumatoid arthritis, which blood result would the nurse review?We do the following laboratory tests, which, if positive and/or high, support the diagnosis: Rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPA) testing are both done when a patient is first being assessed for RA.
What does systemic lupus erythematosus look like clinically?Different systemic manifestations may be present in SLE patients. Fever, malaise, arthralgias, myalgias, headache, and other general symptoms.
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a woman who is positive for hepatitis b has just given birth to a newborn. what precaution(s) will the nurse take in caring for the mother and newborn? select all that apply.
All infants born to HBV-infected mothers should receive hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth.
How do you care for a newborn whose mom was hepatitis B positive?Administer single-antigen hepatitis B vaccine (0.5 mL, IM) preferably in the delivery room and within 12 hours of birth. 2. Per medical order, administer HBIG (0.5mL, IM) at a particular site from the vaccine within 12 hours of birth preferably in the delivery room.
What happens if the mother is Hep B positive?Hepatitis B can be quickly passed from a pregnant woman with hepatitis B to her baby at birth. This can happen during vaginal delivery or a c-section. If you have hepatitis B, healthcare providers can give your baby a set of shots at birth to prevent your baby from getting infected.
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a 10-year-old is diagnosed with somnambulism as a result of frequent episodes of sleepwalking. which topic should be included when considering patient and family education?
When thinking about patient and family education, safety problems like sleeping in the downstairs bedroom should be a consideration.
What can you do to assist a youngster who sleepwalks?To avoid frightening your child, try not to wake a sleepwalker. Instead, nudge the person back to bed gently. In case your young sleepwalker decides to stray, lock the windows and doors in their room as well as the ones throughout your house. Consider using child safety locks on doors or adding additional locks.
When someone is sleepwalking, what should you do?If you notice someone sleepwalking, the best course of action is to make sure they are secure. They frequently return to sleep if left alone. Reassure them and lead them gently back to bed.
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the nurse makes the following assessment. a middle-age client reports falling asleep frequently at his job during the day, feels like he is not getting enough sleep at night (even though the number of hours of sleep is unchanged), continues to feel tired, and is not able to think clearly. also, the client reports his wife believes he is irritable upon awakening. nursing interventions include teaching the client to:
The analysis of the client's sleep reports: A client may be asked to keep track of their sleep habits for a week or more in a sleep log or diary. The nurse will then evaluate and analyse this information to identify any sleep disruptions.
Which advice would the nurse give a client to encourage sleep?A few treatments that can make individuals feel more at ease and comfortable include providing loose-fitting nightwear, encouraging voiding before bed, encouraging hygiene practises, and making sure bed linen is smooth, clean, and dry.
Frequent side effects of hypertension include fatigue and early morning awakening. Hypothyroidism slows down stage 4 sleep, but hyperthyroidism speeds it up.
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an aprn works in a critical care environment. he or she identifies a patient he or she believes to be at risk for decompensation and intervenes quickly. which characteristic of advanced direct care practice is the aprn utilizing?
The acquisition of specialized knowledge, experience, and difficult scenarios the APRN may meet while providing patient care is what is meant by "expert clinical performance".
Nurses with advanced educational and clinical practice requirements are known as APRNs, and they Expert clinical performance offer services in community-based settings. Primary and preventative care, mental health, childbirth, and anesthesia are among services provided by APRNs. The clinician's cumulative experience, education, and Expert clinical performance are referred to as clinical expertise. The patient brings his or her own special concerns, expectations, and values to the interaction. Expert clinical performance includes interpreting data and having a thorough comprehension of clinical knowledge.
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a clinician for a patient with an incurable disease suggests the use of tai chi for pain. which type of medicine is this now called?
Integrative Traditional Medicine is this discipline.
Why is it crucial for nurses to evaluate a patient's personal history in addition to their clinical condition?A patient's psychosocial circumstances frequently contribute to their clinical difficulties. Depending on the patient and the issue for which he or she is looking for clinical assistance,
Why does the ethic-of-care approach fit the nursing profession so naturally?Women are the majority in the field, and they naturally make the same choices as the model does.
What is the unavoidable outcome of commercializing reproduction under contract law and the sale of body parts and functions?the purchase of bodily components, familial culture is further alienated and dispersed.
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susie gives birth to a healthy seven pound baby girl. the nurse encourages breastfeeding within 15 minutes after birth. the nurse knows that breastfeeding attempts will be most effective during the first 30 minutes after birth because this is the:
susie gives birth to a healthy seven pound baby girl. the nurse encourages breastfeeding within 15 minutes after birth. the nurse knows that breastfeeding attempts will be most effective during the first 30 minutes after birth because this is the:The First Period of Reactivity is the name for this state of awareness.
The first phase of transition, known as the first period of reactivity, often lasts for 30 minutes. The infant is very alert at this time. It ends as soon as the infant drifts off to sleep soundly. This is a perfect time to start breastfeeding because the baby has a strong suck reflex at this age .Nasal flare-up, tachypnea, sternal retraction, crackles, erratic heartbeats, and tachycardia are common evaluation findings.The baby's awakening signals the start of the second stage of reactivity. Typically, it lasts between four and six hours. Common assessment results include indicators of increased stomach and respiratory mucous, hunger, apneic episodes, and meconium stool passage.
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What should George do when he encounters a new word?
When George encounters a new word. He should read the words carefully by going through them in books and can listen carefully to the words in online lectures.
What is vocabulary?Vocabulary is the word and meaning of any book or language.
George has the ability to break down words in such a way that he memorizes less and understands more.
Learn more about the origin and structure of medical words and discuss them with his colleagues more frequently.
Therefore, when George comes upon a new word. He should carefully read the words in books, and he might carefully listen to the words in online courses.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
George Tomlin, RMA, has been working for several years in a specialty practice. He applies for a position closer to his home with better hours and more pay. This office, however, sees patients with a variety of illnesses. For the first time since he graduated from college, he is encountering words and procedures with which he is not familiar.
which actions by the nurse help set the stage for a client-centered interview? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
After entering the room, shut the door, greet the client by name, introduce yourself with a smile, and state your purpose for visiting.
What nursing behaviors signify the patient-centered interview's "setting the stage" phase?Pick all that apply. The "setting the stage" phase of a patient-centered interview begins with the nurse addressing the patient by name, introducing herself, and outlining the purpose of the interview.
The definition of a patient-centered interviewA patient-centered approach focuses on four main aspects of patients' experiences: their beliefs about what they have wrong with them, their emotions toward their illnesses, particularly their fears, the impact of those issues on their ability to function, and their expectations of what should happen.
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during history-taking, the nurse discovers that a client takes megadoses of vitamin a. how would the nurse interpret this finding?
Even dangerous levels of excess vitamin A are stored by the body.
What element in a patient with cirrhosis and a history of alcoholism contributes to the development of ascites?Portal hypertension, which results in splanchnic vasodilation and activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, as well as renal salt retention, are key factors in the development of ascites in cirrhosis.
Which community nurse action is a method of sickness prevention?Which community nurse activity qualifies as a method of sickness prevention? People are shielded against current or potential dangers to their health through a disease prevention program. An illness prevention program is a chickenpox vaccination campaign.
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a nurse teaches deep breathing exercises to a client scheduled for surgery. in which perioperative phase would this action occur?
Deep breathing exercises, coughing, incentive spirometry, twisting, leg exercises, and pneumatic compression stockings are some of the physical activities that take place before surgery.
The time frame prior to and following surgery is known as the perioperative phase. Preoperative, operative, and postoperative stages make up this division.
The nurse's duties include checking the preoperative checklist, drafting the informed consent, making various preparations, determining whether prescribed medications are administered, and ensuring that blood and intravenous access are available.
You can avoid problems with your respiratory system by doing breathing exercises. Coughing, incentive spirometer exercises, and deep breathing can all help you recover more quickly and reduce your chance of developing lung conditions like pneumonia.
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a mother tells the nurse that her toddler has been found to have parasites (worms) and that the whole family will need to be treated. which is the most likely type of worm infestation?
When brought into the mouth by contaminated food, toys, or linens, pinworms can spread from one person to another. Undercooked meat can give you tapeworms.
What harm do human parasites cause?
Gastrointestinal distress: Since parasites live in the intestines, this is where the majority of the harm is done. Parasites frequently cause nausea, vomiting, gas, bloating, diarrhea, and constipation. Weight loss – Parasites can make you nauseous and make it difficult for you to absorb nutrients, which can make you lose weight.
How do I determine whether I have a parasite?
Toxins released by parasites into the human bloodstream frequently cause the symptoms of a parasite to manifest. The most typical signs are listed below: Unaccounted-for constipation, diarrhea, gas, bloating, nausea, or other Irritable Bowel Syndrome symptoms. You went there
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You are assisting in taking a final impression of a patient's mandibular arch, using an automix material. After transferring the syringe material to the dentist, you ready the heavy-bodied material for the tray. While you are preparing the tray, the cartridge runs out of material before the tray is completely filled. What could have prevented this? What should you do?
The initial mistake that was made was not checking to see if there was syringe clogging and could have been prevented by following the right steps and changing the equipment where necessary.
Who is a Dentist?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in the oral health of humans.
In a scenario where the cartridge runs out of material before the tray is completely filled, we must ensure that after transferring the syringe material to the dentist, the heavy-bodied material for the tray is prepared and faulty equipment should be changed in other to prevent this incident.
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a nurse organizes a community action group to help resolve health problems in a low income neighborhood with a large population of recent immigrants from africa. what problem should the nurse address first?
The nurse should first address the problem of low immunization rate of children.
Why is addressing immunization rate so important?In the early stages of a community group, it's crucial for the group to solve a problem successfully in order for them to feel inspired and motivated to keep working together.
The issue that is easiest to solve is (B). The group must succeed on a smaller-scale challenge in order to motivate them to try solving more difficult problems in the future, even though (A and C) are significant yet challenging problems to solve.
(D) is significant, especially for Hispanic immigrant populations, but for this non-Hispanic majority, early group success is more significant.
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how many cases of influenza does who estimate occur worldwide in a non-epidemic year? group of answer choices 12.5 million 500,000 50 million 1 billion
12.5 million cases of influenza who estimate occur worldwide in a non-epidemic year.
How much time does the seasonal flu last?Although cough and ill feeling might last longer than two weeks, especially in senior people and those with chronic lung disease, uncomplicated influenza signs and symptoms usually go away in 3 to 7 days for the majority of people.
What is the treatment for seasonal influenza?Typically, all you'll need to recover from the flu is rest and lots of fluids. However, your doctor may recommend an antiviral drug to treat the flu if you have a severe infection or are more likely to develop complications.
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client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role. which factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching of the gravid client?
In a case whereby client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role the factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching of the gravid client is A. The client's readiness to learn.
What is the maternity nurse's role?A maternity nurse's main job can be described as the one that focus on the comfort a mother in labor as well as assisting the the doctor to help the labor and delivery process go more smoothly.
It should be noted that as amaternity nurse, one will give medications, including IV's, as needed hopwever this depends on the client's readiness to learn.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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missing options:
A. The client's readiness to learn
B. The client's educational background
C. The order in which the information is presented
D. The extent to which the pregnancy is planned
a. reye's syndrome in children b. stomach irritation c. interference with blood clotting d. none of these is correct.
None of the given options are the side effects of acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen lowers temperature and eases discomfort. Additionally, acetaminophen can be found in medications that also include other active components and are used to treat allergies, cough, colds, flu, and insomnia. Acetaminophen is a common constituent in prescription drugs that are used to relieve moderate to severe pain.
Reye's syndrome (RS), though it can strike anybody at any age, is largely a pediatric condition. All of the body's organs are affected, but the brain and liver are the ones that suffer the greatest damage. Both of these organs frequently see huge fat accumulations as well as abrupt increases in pressure within the brain due to Reye's syndrome.
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while examining a client's leg, a nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. until a wound specialist can be contacted, which type of dressing should the nurse apply?
while examining a client's leg, a nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. until a wound specialist can be contacted, Moist sterile saline gauze type of dressing should the nurse apply.
A group of cells that have a similar structure and carry out a particular function is referred to as a tissue in biology. The French term tissue, which meaning "to weave," is the root of the word.One of the most important components of intravenous solutions frequently used in therapeutic settings is normal saline. It is a crystalloid solution that is injected into the patient. Both adult and juvenile populations are mentioned as potential sources of electrolyte and hydration problems. The Colon Cleansing and Constipation Resource Centre suggests drinking a saline solution to assist your digestive tract get clean. It also has a laxative effect. The majority of individuals take it as a cleanser, which is intended to aid in cleaning your digestive tract and colon by inducing an unplanned bowel movement.
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the nurse is educating a client who will be performing self-catheterization at home. what information provided by the nurse will help reduce the incidence of infection?
Make sure to wash your hands both before and after interacting with a patient who has an indwelling catheter.
What kind of care is needed for a urinary tract infection following treatment?Though routine structural inspection is infrequently required, follow-up urine and cultures should be considered after the conclusion of therapy. Diagnosis. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a disorder when there are "significant" levels of bacteria in the urine but no symptoms.
What common problems arise during catheterization?Infections of the urethra, bladder, or kidneys are frequently brought on by urinary catheters. These illnesses are known medically as urinary tract infections (UTIs), and the treatment for them often involves taking medication.
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a client has a history of drinking one pint of bourbon per day for the last months. he is brought to the emergency department by family members who report that his last drink was 1hour ago. it is now 12am. when should a nurse expect this client to begin experiencing withdrawal symptoms
There is evidence that a client regularly drinks one pint of bourbon between three and eleven in the morning.
What distinguishes whiskey from bourbon?
American whiskey known as bourbon must be aged in fresh, charred oak barrels and contain at least 51% maize. Whiskey can be made everywhere in the world, however there are further variances dependent on the production and aging processes.
Is Jack Daniels whiskey or bourbon?
Jack Daniel's is definitely whiskey because it is a Tennessee whiskey. Even the name suggests as much. Whiskey is simply the name used to describe distilled grain that has been aged in oak barrels, regardless of the types of grains employed (such as maize, rye, wheat, or barley).
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a client is prescribed sumatriptan. which statement should be included in the teaching plan regarding how the medication works?
When a migraine begins to develop, the patient will be told to take this medication right away.
The serotonin (or 5-HT) receptors on the vascular system in your brain are the objective of sumatriptan's action. They narrow as a result of this. This lessens other symptoms like feeling ill or a headache, as well as sensitivity to light and sound. Within 30 to 60 minutes, sumatriptan tablets should start to act.
If sumatriptan is taken in excess amounts or if other medications are taken that also raise serotonin levels in the body, serotonin syndrome may develop. Hallucinations, anxiety, a rapid heartbeat, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and lack of coordination are among the symptoms.
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the clinic nurse is discussing the patient's frequent asthma attacks. which intervention should the nurse implement?
Asthma may appear as an acute exacerbation that needs immediate care and constant monitoring or as a chronic condition that has been in the patient's past.
Which assessment should be given priority for a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
The goal of the clinical examination is to swiftly confirm the asthma diagnosis and determine how severe it is. The clinical assessment of severity is based on the patient's overall look, speech problems, respiration rate, and heart rate.
What is the asthma first aid procedure?
If a person with known asthma and allergies to food, insects, or medications has SUDDEN BREATHING, they MUST ALWAYS BE GIVEN AN ADRENALINE INJECTOR FIRST, THEN AN ASTHMA RELIEVER PUFFER
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a client with type 1 diabetes has started a new exercise routine. knowing there may be some increased risks associated with exercise, the health care provider should encourage the client to:
Option C is correct.
Carry a snack with carbs to prevent profound hypoglycemia
What is diabetes?Diabetes usually referred to as diabetes mellitus, is a collection of metabolic illnesses characterised by persistently elevated blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia). Frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased hunger are common symptoms. Diabetes can lead to a wide range of health issues if neglected. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, and even mortality are examples of acute complications. Cardiovascular disease, stroke, chronic renal disease, foot ulcers, eye damage, nerve damage, and cognitive impairment are examples of serious long-term consequences.
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which factor was the nurse explained that the likely cause of pain. client he was diagnosed as having a herniated nucleus pulposus
Nucleus pulposus herniation complications can include compression of the nerve root, which under some conditions can cause motor disability. Spinal cord compression brought on by the nucleus pulposus's extrusion can be the cause of pain.
What are the impacts of herniated nucleus pulposus?Herniated nucleus pulposus causes back pain and inflammation of the nerve roots as symptoms.Additionally, in more severe cases, the cervical and thoracic spines may compress the spinal cord.When all or a portion of an intervertebral disk's soft, gelatinous central section is forced through a weak area in the disk.The Cushing's trifecta, which includes bradycardia, irregular breathing, and expanding pulse pressures, is the body's response to greater intracranial pressure (ICP).Know more about health and Nucleus pulposus herniation at:
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the nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of disturbed thought processes for a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder. what abilities displayed by the patient would be related to an appropriate outcome for this problem? select all that apply.
A) Recognizes when obsessions deteriorate
C) Describes how anxiety decreases when compulsive rituals are broken.
E) Sets a time limit of 15 minutes, four times a day, for thinking about obsessive thoughts.
The correct options are A, C, E.
A person with OCD suffers from uncontrollable, repetitive thoughts (often referred to as "obsessions") and/or behaviors (sometimes referred to as "compulsions") that they feel compelled to repeat. OCD is a mental condition that is common, lasting, and chronic. excessive thinking that frequently motivates action (compulsions).
Obsessions describe obsessive-compulsive disorder (irrational thoughts and anxieties that lead to compulsive behaviors).
Concepts like the need to arrange objects a certain manner or a fear of germs are typically used to describe OCD. The majority of the time, symptoms appear gradually and change with time.
Additional forms of treatment include medication and talk therapy.
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The complete question is as follows
. The nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of disturbed thought processes for a patient with obsessive compulsive disorder. What abilities displayed by the patient would be related to an appropriate outcome
for this problem? Select all that apply.
A) Can identify when obsessions are worsening
B) Speaks of obsessions as being embarrassing behaviors
C) Describes lessening anxiety when compulsive rituals are interrupted
D) Plans to ignore obsessive thoughts and so minimizes resulting stress
E) Limits time focusing on obsessive thoughts to 15 minutes, 4 times a day
a multigravid client diagnosed with chronic hypertension is now in preterm labor at 34 weeks' gestation. the health care provider (hcp) has prescribed magnesium sulfate at 3 g/h. which assessment finding indicates that the intended therapeutic effect has occurred?
Decreased uterine contractions indicates that the intended therapeutic effect has occurred.
What is a Multigravid client?
A multigravid is a term used to describe a woman who has been pregnant more than once. This term is typically used to describe a woman who has been pregnant multiple times and has carried the pregnancies to term, meaning she has given birth to multiple babies. The term is derived from the Latin words 'multi' which means 'many' and 'gravida' which means 'pregnant'.
What is a Chronic hypertension?
Chronic hypertension is a long-term medical condition in which the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently elevated. High blood pressure can damage the heart, kidneys, and other organs and can lead to serious health problems, such as stroke, heart attack, and kidney failure. Treatment of chronic hypertension usually involves lifestyle modifications, such as eating a healthy diet and exercising regularly, as well as medications.
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several clients report unrelieved pain, and the charge nurse observes that their assigned nurse appears uncoordinated and drowsy and has slurred speech. which action would the charge nurse take?
The action would the charge nurse take ask the manager to be present before confronting the staff nurse.
What does slurred speech signify?Alcohol or drug abuse, traumatic brain injury, stroke, and neuromuscular disorders are among the most common causes of speech disorders. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, and Parkinson's disease are among the neuromuscular conditions that frequently result in slurred speech.
Medical issues brought on by chronic pain can cause inactivity, malnutrition, and a higher risk of falling. Thankfully, research suggests that the effects of chronic pain on the brain may be reversible with the right treatment.
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a client who has been admitted to the icu with a diagnosis of pericardial effusion begins to experience severe tachycardia. upon assessment, the nurse finds that his central venous pressure is increased, he has jugular vein distention, his systolic blood pressure has dropped, and there is a narrow pulse pressure. his heart sounds appear to be very muffled. which diagnosis should the nurse suspect the physician will make?
A ICU client's central venous pressure is increased, has jugular vein distention, systolic blood pressure has dropped, and there is a narrow pulse pressure so the diagnosis which physician will make is cardiac tamponade.
Jugular vein distention is that the bulging of the most important veins in your neck. it is a key symptom of heart condition and different heart and circulatory issues. it is not a painful symptom, however it will happen with conditions that may be dangerous.
Cardiac tamponade is pressure on the heart that happens once blood or fluid builds up within the area between the heart muscle and also the outer covering sac of the heart.
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which is not one of the general nursing measures employed when caring for the client with a fracture?
The best nursing diagnostic for a patient with a fracture is acute pain.
Which laboratory experiment is most important for treating a patient with a pelvic fracture?Anteroposterior pelvic radiography, a fundamental screening procedure for pelvic fracture, has historically been recommended in all patients who have sustained blunt trauma in accordance with ATLS protocols.
Which phrase describes a fracture in a bone's continuity?A fracture is a rift in a bone's continuity. Any bone can sustain a fracture, which can range in size from minor partial cracks to complete breaks. The most frequent causes of fractures are physical trauma, excessive use, and diseases like osteoporosis.
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1. mrs. black has been brought to her room by the pacu nurse. what are the most important pieces you want to know from the hand off report
Examine patient handoff report details regarding patient Mrs. Black, historical information that may include prior care, treatment, and services, and prior prescriptions for medications, including insulin.
How do Handoffs work?One must first be able to identify the term "handoff" and its synonyms, which are employed in a range of situations and clinical settings. The handoff procedure is referred to by a number of phrases, including handover, sign-out, sign over, cross-coverage, and shift report. The term "handoff" will be used and defined throughout this discussion to mean "the transmission of information (together with authority and responsibility) throughout transitions in care across the continuum; to include an opportunity to ask questions, clarify, and confirm."
The idea of a handoff is complicated and "includes communication between the change of shift, communication between care providers about patient care, handoff, records, and information tools to assist in communication between care providers about patient care and medication . Accordingly, conceptually, the handoff must convey important patient information, involve sender and recipient communication channels, transfer responsibility for care, and take place within intricate organizational structures and cultures that have an impact on patient safety.
What happens after surgery?You will be transferred to the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) or the Intensive Care Unit immediately following surgery, where nurses will take care of you and keep a close eye on you. A nurse will frequently check your vital signs, examine your bandages, medication and dressings, manage your IV fluids, and administer painkillers as necessary.
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Answer: The PACU nurse first assesses the patient's airway, respiratory, and circulatory conditions before concentrating on a more thorough evaluation.
Explanation: Surgical information should always be relayed from the OR to the PACU. The procedure of giving important information and carrying out critical therapeutic activities, even in a Magnet®-designated facility, was disorganised. The patient's response to nursing and medical interventions, the efficacy of the patient care plan, and the patient's goals and outcomes are evaluated by nurses for their hand off report. Evaluation of the patient's response to care, such as advancement toward objectives, is also included in this category.
The patient's medical background, current medications, allergies, pain levels, a pain management plan, and discharge instructions should all be included.
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While interviewing Jonathan, what assessment information would be most useful in determining the extent of his alcohol abuse?A. PHQ-9 questionnaireB. CAGE questionnaireC. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levelD. Complete blood cell count (CBC)
The most useful assessment information in determining the extent of alcohol abuse is by taking a test b. CAGE questionnaire
What is Cage Questionnaire?The Cage Questionnaire is a series of four questions that doctors can use to check for signs of possible alcohol dependence. The questions are designed to be less intrusive than asking them directly if they have an alcohol problem.
Each question requires a simple yes or no answer. Any answer that increases a person's likelihood of developing alcohol addiction. In general, two to three responses indicate severe alcohol use or an alcohol use disorder. There are several similar tests that doctors use to check for alcohol or substance use disorders.
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