Which are Career and Technical Student Organizations? (Check all that apply.)
Business Professionals of America
American Association of School Administrators
American Chemical Society
UDECA
Future Business Leaders of America
FFA
Skills USA
FCCLA
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Answer:

substitution and income effects will counteract each other totally

Explanation:

A labor supply curve is an economic analysis tool that shows the number or workers that are available to work or that can work at various wage rates.

The labor supply curve can either be bending backwards or sloping downwards or upward curving but it shows the relationship between labour and wage rates.

A labor supply curve can be affected by factors such as population, changes in social behaviour, opportunities in other markets, among other things.

From the above question, it is seen that a change in wage rate for Anthony from $25 to $29 does not affect his work hours positively of negatively. His work hours is the same despite the increase in hourly wage.

The effect of the Anthony sticking to 40 hours of work despite an increase in wage, which could have served as some motivation for him to put in more hours is his labor curve remains same. An increase in wage has done noting to affect the number of hours he works and as such his income vs work rate counters each other.

Cheers.

Answer: D. Project team

Explanation:

The project team is responsible for executing the project plan and creating the project deliverables. They are also in charge of contributing to the success of the project by making sure that the project objectives are achieved.

Each team mate has a specific role that he or she is assigned and the team should execute the tasks assigned to them successfully.

Answer: b. debit of $7,000 to Notes Receivable.

Explanation:

James Company received a Note Receivable of $7,000 from Peter Long to settle the Receivable account so Notes Receivable will increase. As it is an asset, it will be debited when it increases so Note Receivable has to be debited $7,000.

Accounts Receivable will be credited with the same $7,000 indicate that the Receivables account has been settled by the Note.

The entry would include debit of $7,000 to Notes Receivable.

Here, James Company received a Note Receivable of $7,000 from Peter Long to settle the Receivable account, hence, the Notes Receivable will increase.

Since the Notes Receivable is an asset, it will be debited when it increases, thus, Note Receivable has to be debited with the amount of $7,000.

However, the Accounts Receivable will be credited with $7,000 to show that the Receivables account has been settled by the Note.

Hence, the Option B is correct because the entry by Jaymes Company on January 15, 2016 would include debit of $7,000 to Notes Receivable.

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Answer:

b) internal rate of return will exceed its required rate of return.

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0. If the NPV is positive when calculated using the project's discount rate, then the IRR is going to be higher than the discount rate.

Option A is wrong because the profitability index (PI) of a project is calculated by dividing the present value of its cash flows by its cost. If the NPV is positive, it means that the present value of its cash flows will be greater than the costs, so the pI will be more than 1.

Option C is wrong because if the costs exceed the benefits, then the NPV will be negative.

Option D is wrong because that would mean that the NPV is negative.  

Option E is something made up that doesn't make any sense.

Answer:

Net operating cash flow = $189,250

Explanation:

Particulars                                    Amount$

Net income                                    250,000

Add:depreciation expense           9,500

Add:loss on sale of asset              1,250

Add:increase in salary payable    19,500

Less:increase in prepaid rent       (27,500)

Add:increase in AP                        29,500

Less:increase in inventory            (93,000)

Net operating cash flow              $189,250

Answer:

A presentation of information

Explanation:

Answer:

Collaborative Planning, Forecasting and Replenishment (CPFR)

Explanation:

Supply chain management can be defined as the effective and efficient management of the flow of goods and services as well as all of the production processes involved in the transformation of raw materials into finished products that meet the insatiable want and need of the consumers. Generally, the supply chain management involves all the activities associated with planning, execution and supply of finished goods and services to the consumers.

The fundamental principle of supply chain management is basically a collaboration between multiple firms. These multiple firms include a company that is saddled with the responsibility of manufacturing, a wholesaler, and a retailer who typically sells the products to the customers or consumers.

Basically, these three (3) firms or individuals are required to collaborate with each other so as to meet the needs of the customers in a timely manner or fashion and at a fair price too.

Collaborative Planning, Forecasting and Replenishment (CPFR) is a type of supply chain collaboration which includes collaborative processes across the supply chain using a set of processes and technology models including a joint business plan, sales forecasting, order planning and forecasting, order generation, and order fulfillment.

Answer and Explanation:

A. The point estimate of individuals that would provide yes responses is the sample proportion. The sample proportion is calculated by dividing number of yes responses by sample size:

p = x/n = 200/700= 0.2857

B. The standard error of the population is the square root of the product of the point estimate and it's complement divided by the sample size given by

√p(1-p)/n

=√0.2857(1-0.2857)/700= 0.0170

C. For confidence level 95%, z score is calculated 1-0.95= 0.05/2= 0.025

Z score checked under the table = 1.96

Boundaries=

P-1.96 *standard error and p+1.96 *standard error

= 0.2857-1.96*0.0170= -0.25238

=0.2857+1.96*0.0170= 0.31902

Note : BODMAS demands we multiply first in the above calculation before subtraction or addition.

Answer: A. consult your own attorney as to legal obligations and rights concerning the ethical conflict.

Explanation:

After considering the relevant implications of an ethical dilemma, the final step is to reach out to your own lawyer to find out your legal rights as well as obligations concerning the courses of action that are presenting the dilemma.

The logic is that your own attorney should have your best interests at heart and so will tell you what each action could do to you which will then help you decide which course of action to take.

Answer:

data warehouses

Explanation:

In the science of computing, we can also call a data warehouse, to be an enterprise data warehouse, this is a system that is used for reporting and also analysing data, a data warehouse is known to be a very central part of business intelligence.

Organizations must use software tools to process data into meaningful information to make data warehouses useful.

Answer:

1.

Portfolio Beta = 1.225 rounded off to 1.23

Option e is the correct answer.

2.

r = 0.13338 or 13.338% rounded off to 13.34%

Explanation:

1.

The portfolio beta is a function of the weighted average of the individual stocks' betas that form up the portfolio. To calculate the beta of a portfolio, we use the following formula,

Portfolio Beta = wA * Beta of A  +  wB * Beta of B  + ... + wN * Beta of N

Where,

w is the weight of each stock

Portfolio Beta = 0.21 * 0.66  +  0.34 * 1.21  +  0.45 * 1.5

Portfolio Beta = 1.225 rounded off to 1.23

2.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate

rM is the market return

r = 0.037  +  1.22 * (0.116 - 0.037)

r = 0.13338 or 13.338% rounded off to 13.34%

Answer:

An e-mail rule memo like this work better as an innovation-driven company such as Tesla rather than at a manufacturing-driven company such as General Motors is discussed below in details.

Explanation:

The general motor is a very large business in each department with numerous tiers of hierarchy. then departments of the hierarchy are likely to report each other. the company's overall structure is very bureaucratized. one of the disadvantages is that when it comes to decision making and policymaking. General Motors are a slow-moving business. However, this bureaucracy is required by the big organizational structure to keep it together.

Tesla is a business that is younger and relatively lower than General motors because of this general motor funds are likely to be lacking but they are agile and that is their benefit.

An e-mail rule is a rule that determines the better way to mail the messages formally or informally. Tesla is a business that is younger and relatively lower than General motors because of this general motor funds are likely to be lacking but they are agile and that is their benefit.  

The reason e-mail rule memo works better as compared to innovation-driven is:

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Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the equivalent taxable yield is shown below:

For zero = 4.50%

For 10% =  4.50 ÷ 0.90 = 5%

For 20% =  4.50 ÷ 0.80 = 5.625%

For 30% =  4.50 ÷ 0.70 = 6.43%

For 10%, for 20% and for 30% it would reduced the tax brackets by the same

like

for 10%

= 1 - 0.10

= 0.90

The Same applied for other ones

Therefore the above should be the answer

Answer:

7%

CAPM = 1% + [6% - 1%](1.2) = 1% + 6% = 7%

Answer:

10.50%

Explanation:

Calculation for Magee's required return

Using this formula

Required return=Risk-free rate+Beta(Market risk premium)

Let plug in the formula

Required return= 4.50% + 1.20(5.00%) .

Required return=4.50%+6%

Required return= 10.50%

Therefore Magee's required return will beb10.50%

Answer:A

Explanation:

Answer:

a

Explanation:

In a monopolistically competitive industry, price is most likely a bit higher than the competitive market price because of the cost of variety.

In a monopolistically competitive market, firms tend to set their prices to be higher than those of the marginal cost. This invariably translates to the fact that market is never really able to be productively efficient.

Firms in monopolistically competitive markets tend to wield the same power, since they're all price makers, they have a low degree of market power.

Answer: a. passive management by exception

Explanation:

Even though this might sound like it is laissez-faire leadership, it is not.

This is a passive management by exception leadership style and a leader that does this is usually inactive and absent from their duties unless mistakes are being made or crisis are popping up that need to be fixed. They will then spring into action to mitigate the adverse effects of their absence.

This is different from laissez-faire leadership because in laissez-faire, the leader is simply absent even during crisis.

Based on the given statement, it is the passive management by exception that leader by Naomi.

The following information should be considered related to the  passive management by exception :

Therefore we can conclude that the correct option is a.

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Answer:

c) Credit to Cash for $242

Explanation:

Petty cash, beginning = $300

Delivery expense = $53

Merchandise inventory = $167

Miscellaneous expense = $22

Petty cash, Ending = $58

The journal to record the reimbursement of the accounts will be:

Event    Account Title and Explanation   Debit    Credit

1           Delivery expense                            $53  

           Merchandise inventory                   $167  

           Miscellaneous expense                  $22

                    Cash                                                   $242

Answer:

Cost volume profit analysis (CVP) refers basically to determining the break-even point of a company and how we can use that information to predict how different changes might affect it. When you are performing a CVP analysis you have to decide which variables will be constant, i.e. ceteris paribus, and which will be altered to predict the effect on the company’s operating income.

1)

sales level     total revenue    variable costs      fixed costs      total costs

2,000             48,000             36,000                 24,000            60,000

4,000             96,000             72,000                 24,000            96,000

6,000            144,000           108,000                 24,000           132,000

8,000            192,000           144,000                 24,000           168,000

2) break even point = 4,000 units

sales level     total revenue    variable costs      fixed costs      total costs

2,000             48,000             36,000                 24,000            60,000

4,000             96,000             72,000                 24,000            96,000

6,000            144,000           108,000                 24,000           132,000

8,000            192,000           144,000                 24,000          168,000

2) thus, reach point = 4,000 units

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Answer:

a. $1,320.88

b.  $1,182.19

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a. For market value of the bond

Given that

Rate = 9%

NPER = 10

PMT = $1,000 * 14% = $140

FV = $1,000

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(RATE;NPER;PMT;FV;TYPE)

After applying the above formula, the present value is $1,320.88 i.e. equivalent to the market value of the bonds

b. Now the net price be

= Market price × (1 - flotation cost)

= $1,320.88 × (1 - 0.105)

= $1,182.19

Answer:

the  variance for the balance is $2,750 favorable

Explanation:

The computation of the variance for the balance is shown below:

= Income - expenses

= (Estimated income - actual income) - (estimated expenses - actual expenses)

= ($53,500 - $48,500) - ($37,250 - $35,000)

= $5,000 - $2,250

= $2,750 favorable

Hence, the  variance for the balance is $2,750 favorable

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

Answer:

cash payments for operating expenses should be $329,000

Explanation:

Cash Payments for operating expenses is included in the Cash Flow from Operating Activity Section of the Statement of Cash Flows when the Direct Method of preparing this statement is selected.

This is calculated as follows :

Cash Payments for operating expenses

Operating expenses                                                               $325,000

Adjustment of changes in Working Capital

Increase in Prepaid Expenses ($69,000 - $ 60,000)              $9,000

Increase in Accrued Expenses ($255,000 - $210,000)        $45,000

Increase in Accounts Payable ($350,000 - $300,000)       ($50,000)

Cash payments for operating expenses                              $329,000

Answer:

a) true

Explanation:

Costs that can be traced to a cost object in a cost-effective way are called direct costs. Sometimes they can literally be seen on the cost object by observation. For example the wood on the table.

Answer:

c. $72,800

Explanation:

ending capital balance = beginning capital balance + net income - withdrawals = $45,000 + $35,000 - $7,200 = $72,800

Ending capital balance refers to total owners' capital balance after the accounting period is closed. Net income increases owners' capital while withdrawals or dividends decrease it.

Answer:

A. Pre-employment condition

Explanation:

The answer is A. because if the testing is a requirement for getting the job then you know beforehand. You're aware of this requirement before they employ you so it's not breaching your privacy rights.

Answer:

a

Explanation:

The company can allow whoever they want into the company and it is their choice to test their employees for drugs.

Answer:

optimal capital structure

Explanation:

optimal capital structure can be regarded as a combination of

of debt and equity financing which brings about maximization of amarket value in a firm. It should be noted that optimal capital structure is the combination of debt financing and equity financing that maximizes a firm's value.

Answer:

C

Explanation:

In as much as these are the only options given, then there has to be an answer there. Even though I fancy there being another answer.

But I'd say, the closest to the reason from the aforelisted is that the employees were underpaid. Since the advent of machineries, truth is that there wasn't going to be need for employees. This is because machines tend to have a much better output, better efficiency and won't need to be paid monthly in wages.

Since there isn't need for employees again, the industrialist tend to underpay the employees because they don't see their useful in the first instance

The rise of the use of machine is on the increase. The best explanation as to how the rise of machinery created an unfriendly relationship between industrialists and their employees is the employees were underpaid.

The industrialists did treat their workers bad.  They make sure to keep wages as low as ever. Their attitude towards their employee was like if employee did not like the pay, the long hours and other working conditions he could quit and go to other places.

They were super-rich, living in great homes, living life lavishly abut their employees were paid little sum as if they do not have any choice.

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Answer:

$68.64

Explanation:

Div₁ = $4

Div₂ = $5

Div₃ = $6.25

Div₄ = $6.5625

the terminal value at year 3 = Div₄ / (Re - g) = $6.5625 / (13% - 5%) = $82.03

P₀ = $4/1.13 + $5/1.13² + ($6.25 + $82.03)/1.13³ = $88.28/1.13³ = $68.64