When you stretch a spring 13 cm past its natural length, it exerts a force of 21
N. What is the spring constant of this spring?
A. 1.6 N/cm
B. 273 N/cm
C. 0.8 N/cm
D. 13 N/cm

Answer:

8 ft/s

Explanation:

This is a straight forward question without much ado.

It is given from the question that she walks with a speed of 8 ft/s

Answer:

A.  Z = 185.87Ω

B.  I  =  0.16A

C.  V = 1mV

D.  VL = 68.8V

E.  Ф = 30.59°

Explanation:

A. The impedance of a RL circuit is given by the following formula:

[tex]Z=\sqrt{R^2+\omega^2L^2}[/tex]       (1)

R: resistance of the circuit = 160-Ω

w: angular frequency = 220 rad/s

L: inductance of the circuit = 0.430H

You replace in the equation (1):

[tex]Z=\sqrt{(160\Omega)^2+(220rad/s)^2(0.430H)^2}=185.87\Omega[/tex]

The impedance of the circuit is 185.87Ω

B. The current amplitude is:

[tex]I=\frac{V}{Z}[/tex]                     (2)

V: voltage amplitude = 30.0V

[tex]I=\frac{30.0V}{185.87\Omega}=0.16A[/tex]

The current amplitude is 0.16A

C. The current I is the same for each component of the circuit. Then, the voltage in the resistor is:

[tex]V=\frac{I}{R}=\frac{0.16A}{160\Omega}=1*10^{-3}V=1mV[/tex]            (3)

D. The voltage across the inductor is:

[tex]V_L=L\frac{dI}{dt}=L\frac{d(Icos(\omega t))}{dt}=-LIsin(\omega t)\\\\V_L=-(0.430H)(160\Omega)sin(220 t)=68.8sin(220t)\\\\V_L_{max}=68.8V[/tex]

E. The phase difference is given by:

[tex]\phi=tan^{-1}(\frac{\omega L}{R})=tan^{-1}(\frac{(220rad/s)(0.430H)}{160\Omega})\\\\\phi=30.59\°[/tex]

Answer:

C. R^2

Explanation:

A cyclotron is a particle accelerator which employs the use of electric and magnetic fields for its functioning. It consists of two D shaped region called dees and the magnetic field present in the dee is responsible for making sure the charges follow the half-circle and then to a gap in between the dees.

R is denoted as the radius of the final orbit then the final particle energy is proportional to the radius of the two dees. This however translates to the energy being proportional to R^2.

Answer:

The  corresponding  magnetic field is  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The electric field amplitude is  [tex]E_o = 611\ V/m[/tex]

Generally the  magnetic  field amplitude is  mathematically represented as

              [tex]B_o = \frac{E_o }{c }[/tex]

Where c is the speed of light with a constant value

         [tex]c = 3.0 *0^{8} \ m/s[/tex]

So  

        [tex]B_o = \frac{611 }{3.0*10^{8}}[/tex]

         [tex]B_o = 2.0 4 *10^{-6} \ Vm^{-2} s[/tex]

Since 1  T  is  equivalent to  [tex]V m^{-2} \cdot s[/tex]

         [tex]B_o = 2.0 4 *10^{-6} \ T[/tex]

Answer:

(a) V = 65.625 Volts

(b) V = 131.25 Volts

(c) V = 131.25 Volts

Explanation:

Recall that:

1) in a metal sphere the charges distribute uniformly around the surface, and the electric field inside the sphere is zero, and the potential is constant equal to:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{R}[/tex]

2) the electric potential outside of a charged metal sphere is the same as that of a charge of the same value located at the sphere's center:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{r}[/tex]

where k is the Coulomb constant ( [tex]9\,\,10^9\,\,\frac{N\,m^2}{C^2}[/tex] ), Q is the total charge of the sphere, R is the sphere's radius (0.24 m), and r is the distance at which the potential is calculated measured from the sphere's center.

Then, at a distance of:

(a) 48 cm = 0.48 m, the electric potential is:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{r}=9\,\,10^9 \,\frac{3.5\,\,10^{-9}}{0.48} =65.625\,\,V[/tex]

(b) 24 cm = 0.24 m, - notice we are exactly at the sphere's surface - the electric potential is:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{r}=9\,\,10^9 \,\frac{3.5\,\,10^{-9}}{0.24} =131.25\,\,V[/tex]

(c) 12 cm (notice we are inside the sphere, and therefore the potential is constant and the same as we calculated for the sphere's surface:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{R}=9\,\,10^9 \,\frac{3.5\,\,10^{-9}}{0.24} =131.25\,\,V[/tex]

Answer:

c) a difference in electric potential

Explanation:

my insta: priscillamarquezz

Answer:

(a) force is 1066.56N

Explanation:

(a) MV²/R

Answer:

a) ±7.08×10⁻⁷ C/m²

b) 1.77×10⁻⁷ C

Explanation:

For a conductor,

σ = ±Eε₀,

where σ is the charge density,

E is the electric field,

and ε₀ is the permittivity of space.

a)

σ = ±Eε₀

σ = ±(8×10⁴ N/C) (8.85×10⁻¹² F/m)

σ = ±7.08×10⁻⁷ C/m²

b)

σ = q/A

7.08×10⁻⁷ C/m² = q / (0.5 m)²

q = 1.77×10⁻⁷ C

Answer:

T= 2p√m/k

Explanation:

This is because the period of oscillation of the mass of spring system is directly proportional to the square root of the mass and it is inversely proportional to the square root of the spring constant.

The period of a mass on a spring is given by the equation

T=2π√m/k.

Where T is the period,

M is mass

K is spring constant.

An increase in mass in a spring increases the period of oscillation and decrease in mass decrease period of oscillation.

When there is the relationship between the Period (T) caused by the oscillation of the mass should be considered as the T= 2p√m/k.

The mass of the spring system with respect to period of oscillation should be directly proportional to the square root of the mass and it is inversely proportional to the square root of the spring constant.

So the following equation should be considered

T=2π√m/k.

Here,

T is the period,

M is mass

K is spring constant.

An increase in mass in a spring rises the period of oscillation and reduce in mass decrease period of oscillation.

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Answer:

The spring constant is 60,000 N

The total work done on it during the compression is 3 J

Explanation:

Given;

weight of the girl, W = 600 N

compression of the spring, x = 1 cm = 0.01 m

To determine the spring constant, we apply hook's law;

F = kx

where;

F is applied force or weight on the spring

k is the spring constant

x is the compression of the spring

k = F / x

k = 600 / 0.01

k = 60,000 N

The total work done on the spring = elastic potential energy of the spring, U;

U = ¹/₂kx²

U = ¹/₂(60000)(0.01)²

U = 3 J

Thus, the total work done on it during the compression is 3 J

Answer:

Wavelength is 0.359 m

Explanation:

Given that,

Magnetic field, B = 0.547 T

We need to find the wavelength of radiation produced by a proton in a cyclotron with a magnetic field of 0.547 T.

The frequency of revolution of proton in the cyclotron is given by :

[tex]f=\dfrac{qB}{2\pi m}[/tex]

m is mass of proton

q is charge on proton

So,

[tex]f=\dfrac{1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 0.547}{2\pi \times 1.67\times 10^{-27}}\\\\f=8.34\times 10^6\ Hz[/tex]

We know that,

Speed of light, [tex]c=f\lambda[/tex]

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = wavelength

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{c}{f}\\\\\lambda=\dfrac{3\times 10^8}{834\times 10^6}\\\\\lambda=0.359\ m[/tex]

So, the wavelength of the radiation produced by a proton is 0.359 m.

Answer:

Explanation:

this is the answer to your question

The electron is going with a velocity of 1.25 × 10⁷ m/s when it hits the positive plate.

According to the law of the conservation of mechanical energy, the total mechanical energy is always conserved by an electron. We can say that the sum of potential energy (U) and kinetic energy (K) is always constant.

K + U = E

Given, the distance between the two parallel plates = 1.5 mm

The potential difference between the plates, V = 450V

The charge on an electron, q = [tex]-1.6\times 10^{-19} C[/tex]

The mass of an electron, m = 9.1× 10⁻³¹ Kg

The change in the potential energy of the charge moving through the potential difference of 450V.

ΔU = qΔV = (-1.6× 10⁻¹⁹)(450)  = -7.2 × 10⁻¹⁷J

From the law of the conservation of mechanical energy, we can write:

K + U = E

ΔK + ΔU = 0

ΔK = -ΔU

1/2mv² = -ΔU

v² = -2ΔU/m

[tex]v^2 =\frac{-2\times (-7.2\times 10{-17})}{9.1\times 10^{-31}}[/tex]

[tex]v=\sqrt{1.58\times 10^{14}}[/tex]

v = 1.25 × 10⁷ m/s

Therefore, the electron is going with the speed of 1.25 × 10⁷ m/s  when it hits the positive plate.

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Answer:

The horizontal force acting on m2 is F + 9.8m1

Explanation:

Given;

Block m1 on left of block m2

Make a sketch of this problem;

                         F →→→→→→→→→→→-------m1--------m2

Apply Newton's second law of motion;

F = ma

where;

m is the total mass of the body

a is the acceleration of the body

The horizontal force acting on block m2 is the force applied to block m1 and force due to weight of block m1

F₂ = F + W1

F₂ = F + m1g

F₂ = F + 9.8m1

Therefore, the horizontal force acting on m2 is F + 9.8m1

The force acting on the block of mass m₂ is  [tex]\frac{m_2F}{m_1+m_2}[/tex]

Given that there are two blocks of mass m₁ and m₂.

m₁ is on the left of block m₂. They are in contact with each other.

A force F is applied on m₁ to the right.

According to Newton's laws of motion:

The equation of motion of the blocks can be written as:

F = (m₁ + m₂)a

here, a is the acceleration.

so, acceleration:

a = F / (m₁ + m₂)

Now, the force acting on the block of mass m₂ is:

f = m₂a

[tex]f = \frac{m_2F}{m_1+m_2}[/tex]

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Complete Question

For a human body falling through air  in  a spread edge position , the numerical value of the constant D is about [tex]D = 0.2500 kg/m[/tex]

What value of D is required to make vt = 42.7 m/s the terminal velocity of a skydiver of mass 85.0 kg . Express your answer using two significant figures?

Answer:

The value of D is   [tex]D = 0.457 \ kg/m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The terminal velocity is  [tex]v_t = 42.7 \ m/s[/tex]

     The mass of the skydiver is  [tex]m = 85.0 \ kg[/tex]

      The numerical value of  D  is  [tex]D = 0.2500 kg/m[/tex]

From the unit of D  in the question we can evaluate D as  

       [tex]D = \frac{m * g }{v^2}[/tex]

substituting values  

        [tex]D = \frac{85 * 9.8 }{(42.7)^2}[/tex]

         [tex]D = 0.457 \ kg/m[/tex]

Answer:

HSBC keen vs kg get it yyyyyuuy

Explanation:

hgccccxfcffgbbbbbbbbbbghhyhhhgdghcjyddhhyfdghhhfdgbxbbndgnncvbhcxgnjffccggshgdggjhddh

nnnbvvvvvggfxrugdfutdfjhyfggigftffghhjjhhjyhrdffddfvvvvvvvvvvvbbbbbbbbbvvcxccghhyhhhjjjhjnnnnnnnnnnnnnbhbfgjgfhhccccccvvjjfdbngxvncnccbnxcvbchvxxghfdgvvhhihbvhbbhhvxcgbbbcxzxvbjhcxvvbnnxvnn

Answer:

The  length is  [tex]D = 5 \ cm[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told  that

     The  length of the  hand is  [tex]l = 10.0 \ cm[/tex]

      The  angle at the hand is  held is  [tex]\theta = 30 ^o[/tex]

Generally resolving the length the length of the hand to it vertical component we obtain that the length of the shadow on the vertical wall is mathematically evaluated as

             [tex]D = l * sin(\theta )[/tex]

substituting values

             [tex]D = 10 * sin (30)[/tex]

             [tex]D = 5 \ cm[/tex]

Answer:

0.79 cm

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:-

Particle acceleration is

[tex]a = \frac{qE}{m}[/tex]

We will take d which indicates distance as from the negative plate, so the travel by proton is 0.800 cm - d at the same time

[tex]d = \frac{1}{2} a_et^2\\\\0.800 cm - d = \frac{1}{2} a_pt^2\\\\\frac{d}{0.800 cm - d} = \frac{a_e}{a_p} \\\\\frac{d}{0.800 cm - d} = \frac{m_p}{m_e} \\\\\frac{d}{0.800 cm - d} = \frac{1836m_e}{m_e}[/tex]

After solving the equation we will get 0.79 cm from the negative plate.

Therefore it is 0.79 cm far from the negative pate i.e the point at which the electron and proton pass each other

The point at which the electron and proton pass each other will be 0.79 cm.

When the matter is put in an electromagnetic field, it has an electric charge, which causes it to experience a force. A positive or negative electric charge can exist.

The given data in the problem is;

d' is the distance between the two parallel plates= 0.800 cm

The acceleration is given as;

[tex]\rm a= \frac{qE}{m} \\\\[/tex]

The distance from Newton's law is found as;

[tex]d = ut+\frac{1}{2} at^2 \\\\ u=0 \\\\ d= \frac{1}{2} at^2 \\\\ d-d' = \frac{1}{2} a_pt^2 \\\\ 0.800-d= \frac{1}{2} a_pt^2 \\\\\ \frac{d}{0.800-d} =\frac{a}{a_p} \\\\ \frac{d}{0.800-d} =\frac{m_p}{m} \\\\ \frac{d}{0.800-d} =\frac{1836m_e}{m_e} \\\\ d=0.79 \ cm[/tex]

Hence the point at which the electron and proton pass each other will be 0.79 cm.

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Answer:

20,000 kg m/s

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 50 m/s

a = -5 m/s²

t = 2 s

Find: v

v = at + v₀

v = (-5 m/s²) (2 s) + (50 m/s)

v = 40 m/s

p = mv

p = (500 kg) (40 m/s)

p = 20,000 kg m/s

Answer:

Explanation:

Mass ( m ) = 2 kg

Speed of the object (v) = 6 metre per second

Kinetic energy =?

Now,

We have,

Kinetic Energy = [tex] \frac{1}{2} \times m \times {v}^{2} [/tex]

Plugging the values,

[tex] = \frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times {(6)}^{2} [/tex]

Reduce the numbers with Greatest Common Factor 2

[tex] = {(6)}^{2} [/tex]

Calculate

[tex] = 36 \: joule[/tex]

Hope this helps...

Good luck on your assignment...

The Kinetic energy of the object will be "36 joules".

The excess energy of moving can be observed as that of the movement of an object, component, as well as the group of components. There would never be a negative (-) amount of kinetic energy.

According to the question,

Mass of object, m = 2 kg

Speed of object, v = 6 m/s

As we know the formula,

→ Kinetic energy (K.E),

= [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × m × v²

By substituting the values, we get

= [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2 × (6)²

=  [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2 × 36

= 36 joule

Thus the above answer is appropriate.

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Answer:

The final speed of the lion-gazelle system immediately after the attack is 69.862 kilometers per hour.

Explanation:

Let suppose that lion and Thomson's gazelle are running at constant speed before and after collision and that collision is entirely inelastic. Given the absence of external force, the Principle of Momentum Conservation is applied such that:

[tex]\vec p_{L} + \vec p_{G} = \vec p_{F}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]\vec p_{L}[/tex] - Linear momentum of the lion, measured in kilograms-meters per second.

[tex]\vec p_{G}[/tex] - Linear momentum of the Thomson's gazelle, measured in kilograms-meters per second.

[tex]\vec p_{F}[/tex] - Linear momentum of the lion-Thomson's gazelle, measured in kilograms-meters per second.

After using the definition of momentum, the system is expanded:

[tex]m_{L}\cdot \vec v_{L} + m_{G}\cdot \vec v_{G} = (m_{L} + m_{G})\cdot \vec v_{F}[/tex]

Vectorially speaking, the final velocity of the lion-gazelle system is:

[tex]\vec v_{F} = \frac{m_{L}}{m_{L}+m_{G}}\cdot \vec v_{L} + \frac{m_{G}}{m_{L}+m_{G}}\cdot \vec v_{G}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]m_{L}[/tex], [tex]m_{G}[/tex] - Masses of the lion and the Thomson's gazelle, respectively. Measured in kilograms.

[tex]\vec v_{L}[/tex], [tex]\vec v_{G}[/tex], [tex]\vec v_{F}[/tex] - Velocities of the lion, Thomson's gazelle and the lion-gazelle system. respectively. Measured in meters per second.

If [tex]m_{L} = 177\,kg[/tex], [tex]m_{G} = 32\,kg[/tex], [tex]\vec v_{L} = 81.8\cdot j\,\left[\frac{km}{h} \right][/tex] and [tex]\vec v_{G} = 59.0\cdot i\,\left[\frac{km}{h} \right][/tex], the final velocity of the lion-gazelle system is:

[tex]\vec v_{F} = \frac{177\,kg}{177\,kg+32\,kg}\cdot \left(81.8\cdot j\right)\,\left[\frac{km}{h} \right] + \frac{32\,kg}{177\,kg+32\,kg}\cdot \left(59.0\cdot i\right)\,\left[\frac{km}{h} \right][/tex]

[tex]\vec v_{F} = 9.033\cdot i + 69.276\cdot j\,\left[\frac{km}{h} \right][/tex]

The speed of the system is the magnitude of the velocity vector, which can be found by means of the Pythagorean theorem:

[tex]\|\vec v_{F}\| = \sqrt{\left(9.033\frac{km}{h} \right)^{2}+\left(69.276\frac{km}{h} \right)^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]\|\vec v_{F}\| \approx 69.862\,\frac{km}{h}[/tex]

The final speed of the lion-gazelle system immediately after the attack is 69.862 kilometers per hour.

Answer:

E = 2750 J at h = 5 m

Explanation:

The gravitational potential energy is given by :

[tex]E=mgh[/tex]

In this case, m is the mass of swimmer is constant at every heights. So,

At h = 1 m, E = 550 J

[tex]550=m\times 10\times 1\\\\m=55\ kg[/tex]

So, at h = 5 m, gravitational potential energy is given by :

[tex]E=55\times 10\times 5\\\\E=2750\ J[/tex]

So, the correct option is (B).

Answer:

the result is the quantization of __Energy__ of the particle

Explanation:

Answer:

Q = 20.22 x 10³ W = 20.22 KW

Explanation:

First we need to find the volume of water dropped.

Volume = V = πr²h

where,

r = radius of pan = 30.2 cm/2 = 15.1 cm = 0.151 m

h = height drop = 1.45 cm = 0.0145 m

Therefore,

V = π(0.151 m)²(0.0145 m)

V = 1.038 x 10⁻³ m³

Now, we find the mass of the water that is vaporized.

m = ρV

where,

m = mass = ?

ρ = density of water = 1000 kg/m³

Therefore,

m = (1000 kg/m³)(1.038 x 10⁻³ m³)

m = 1.038 kg

Now, we calculate the heat required to vaporize this amount of water.

q = mH

where,

H = Heat of vaporization of water = 22.6 x 10⁵ J/kg

Therefore,

q = (1.038 kg)(22.6 x 10⁵ J/kg)

q = 23.46 x 10⁵ J

Now, for the rate of heat transfer:

Rate of Heat Transfer = Q = q/t

where,

t = time = (18.6 min)(60 s/1 min) = 1116 s

Therefore,

Q = (23.46 x 10⁵ J)/1116 s

Q = 20.22 x 10³ W = 20.22 KW

Answer:

The atomic number

Explanation:

Answer:

F = umg where u is coefficient of dynamic friction

Explanation:

F = 0.4 x 80 x 9.81 = 313.92 N

Answer:

1 yr = 24 * 3600 * 365 = 3.2 * 10E7 sec

C = 6 R = 1.5 * 10E8 * 6 = 9 * 10E8 km     circumference of orbit

v = C / t = 9 * 10E8 km / 3 * 10E7  sec = 30 km / sec = 18 mi/sec

Answer:

power dissipated in the target is 100 W

Explanation:

given data

electrons = 1 mev = [tex]10^{6}[/tex] eV

1 eV = 1.6 × [tex]10^{-19}[/tex] J

current =  100 microampere = 100 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] A

solution

when energy of beam strike with 1 MeV so energy of electron is

E = e × v   ...................1

e is charge of electron and v is voltage

so put here value and we get voltage

v = 1 ÷ 1.6 × [tex]10^{-19}[/tex]

v =  [tex]10^{6}[/tex] volt

so power dissipated in target

P = voltage × current   ..............2

put here value

P =  [tex]10^{6}[/tex]  × 100 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex]

P = 100 W

so power dissipated in the target is 100 W

Answer:

The two small charged spheres are now 4.382 cm apart

Explanation:

Given;

distance between the two small charged sphere, r = 7.59 cm

The force on each of the charged sphere can be calculated by applying Coulomb's law;

[tex]F = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r^2}[/tex]

where;

F is the force on each sphere

q₁ and q₂ are the charges of the spheres

r is the distance between the spheres

[tex]F = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r^2} \\\\kq_1q_2 = Fr^2 \ \ (keep \ kq_1q_2 \ constant)\\\\F_1r_1^2 = F_2r_2^2\\\\r_2^2 = \frac{F_1r_1^2}{F_2} \\\\r_2 = \sqrt{\frac{F_1r_1^2}{F_2}} \\\\r_2 = r_1\sqrt{\frac{F_1}{F_2}}\\\\(r_1 = 7.59 \ cm, \ F_2 = 3F_1)\\\\r_2 = 7.59cm\sqrt{\frac{F_1}{3F_1}}\\\\r_2 = 7.59cm\sqrt{\frac{1}{3}}\\\\r_2 = 7.59cm *0.5773\\\\r_2 = 4.382 \ cm[/tex]

Therefore, the two small charged spheres are now 4.382 cm apart.

Explanation:

Mass and energy are closely related. Due to mass–energy equivalence, any object that has mass when stationary (called rest mass) also has an equivalent amount of energy whose form is called rest energy, and any additional energy (of any form) acquired by the object above that rest energy will increase the object's total mass just as it increases its total energy. For example, after heating an object, its increase in energy could be measured as a small increase in mass, with a sensitive enough scale.

Answer:

u = 10.02m/s

Explanation:

a = f/m

a = 20/12 = 1.67m/s²

U =2aS

u = 2 x 1.67 x 3

U = 10.02m/s

Answer:

Explanation:

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