What type of variation does the following equation represent:
R = kst / v²
Direct
Joint and Inverse
Inverse
Direct and Inverse
Joint

Answer:=

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

.20

Step-by-step explanation:

because customers are always right

Answer:

Area =25m²

Perimeter = 20m

Step-by-step explanation:

None of the transformations described change the size or shape of the original object, only position and orientation are changed

Answer:

7 and 1/24

Step-by-step explanation:

4 7/8 + 2 1/6

First when adding fractions, we want to have a common denominator. To do that, we must multiply the fractions until we get a desired denominator. We can find LCM.

The LCM of 6 and 8 is 24, so we must multiply accordingly.

We can put this into improper fraction form:

39/8 + 13/6

Then multiply accordingly. Multiply by 3 on both sides for the first fraction, and multiply by 4 on both sides for the second to get a denominator of 24.

117/24 + 52/24

Now, we can add the fractions.

169/24

Simplify

7 and 1/24

The answer is 1,200

First you need to add . + . to get 1.5M and then you need to subtract the rest ( 1.5M - one million four hundred ninety-eight thousand eight hundred )

So then you get 1,200

Hope this helped!

Answer:

do the butterfly method if you don't know how to do that comment and I'll show you a screenshot

Step-by-step explanation:

8b-10

hope it helps. please mark brainliest

Answer:  The correct answer is (8*b) - 10

Step-by-step explanation:

When translating word problems into equations, the term "product" denotes multiplication, and "less than" denotes subtraction.

This wording "10 less than the product of 8 and b" tells us to multiply 8 and b, then subtract 10:

(8*b) - 10

The Maclaurin series of xcos(-x) up to n = 3 is

[tex]m(x)= xcos(-x)= x-\frac{1}{2}x^3+\frac{1}{24}x^5-\frac{1}{720}x^7+\frac{1}{40320}x^9+\ldots \:[/tex]

The function is given in the question as

m(x) = xcos(-x)

Taylor (Maclaurin) series of xcos(x) up to n=5

A Maclaurin series is given by  f(x),

[tex]f\left(x\right)=f\left(a\right)+\frac{f^'\left(a\right)}{1!}\left(x-a\right)+\frac{f^{''}\left(a\right)}{2!}\left(x-a\right)^2+\frac{f^{'''}\left(a\right)}{3!}\left(x-a\right)^3+\ldots[/tex]

[tex]f\left(x\right)=f\left(0\right)+\frac{f^'\left(0\right)}{1!}\left(x\right)+\frac{f^{''}\left(0\right)}{2!}\left(x\right)^2+\frac{f^{'''}\left(0\right)}{3!}\left(x\right)^3+\ldots[/tex]

We need to do to get the desired polynomial is to calculate the derivatives, evaluate them at the given point, and plug the results into the given formula.

f⁽⁰⁾(x) = f(x) = xcos(x)

Evaluate the function at the point: f(0)=0

1st derivative: f(1)(x)=(f(0)(x))′=(xcos(x))′=−xsin(x)+cos(x)

1st derivative at the given point: (f(0))′=1

2nd derivative: f(2)(x)=(f(1)(x))′=(−xsin(x)+cos(x))′=−xcos(x)−2sin(x)

Evaluate the 2nd derivative at the given point: (f(0))′′=0

3rd derivative: f(3)(x)=(f(2)(x))′=(−xcos(x)−2sin(x))′=xsin(x)−3cos(x)

Evaluate the 3rd derivative at the given point: (f(0))′′′=−3

Now, use the calculated values to get a polynomial:

[tex]m(x)=0+\frac{1}{1!}x+\frac{0}{2!}x^2+\frac{-3}{3!}x^3+.....[/tex]

[tex]m(x)=x-\frac{1}{2}x^3+\frac{1}{24}x^5-\frac{1}{720}x^7+\frac{1}{40320}x^9+\ldots \:[/tex]

Thus, the Maclaurin series of xcos(-x) up to n = 3 is

[tex]m(x)= xcos(-x)= x-\frac{1}{2}x^3+\frac{1}{24}x^5-\frac{1}{720}x^7+\frac{1}{40320}x^9+\ldots \:[/tex]

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Answer:

√122

Step-by-step explanation:

first we have to find the missing side with x on the 5 and 9 triangle by using the theorem

a^2+b^2=c^2

9^2+5^2=c^2

81+25=c^2

106=c^2

√106=c

and now we can use this as a side to find x

4^2+√106^2=x^2

16+106=x^2

122=x^2

√122=x

Hopes this helps please mark brainliest

Answer:

uh let's see

Step-by-step explanation:

2,4 and -3,-6

y2-y1/

x2-x1

-6-4

-3-2

-10/-5 = 2

slope is 2

u do the rest I'm tired

Answer:

x=11°

Step-by-step explanation:

Because line t is 180°, (9x-5)°+(6x+20)°=180°

Simplify:

(9x-5)°+(6x+20)°=180°

9x-5+6x+20=180

15x-5+20=180

15x+15=180

15x=165

x=11

The linear equation in the form p(n) = mn + b that gives the price p they can charge for n shirt is p(n) = - 1 / 250n + 34.

Linear equation can be represented in slope intercept form as follows:

y = mx + b

where

Therefore, the clothing business finds there is a linear relationship between the number of shirts, n,  it can sell and the price, p , it can charge per shirt.  1,000 shirts can be sold at a price of $30 , while 3,000 shirts can be sold at a price of $22 .

Therefore,

using  (1000, 30) and (3000, 22) let's find the slope.

m = 22 - 30 / 3000 - 1000

m = - 8 / 2000

m = - 1 / 250

Hence, let's find the y-intercept using (1000, 30)

p(n) = mn + b

where

Therefore,

30 = - 1 / 250 (1000) + b

30 = - 4 + b

b = 30 + 4

b = 34

Hence, the linear equation is p(n) = - 1 / 250n + 34

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

30 dollars to spend she wants to buy at least ten which mean's since 2 times 5 is 10 and 4 times 5 is 20 and 10 plus 20 equals thirty which means she can buy 5 small coffee's and 5 large coffee's

Answer:

8786

Step-by-step explanation:

123,000/14 = 8786  Since it is about, I rounded to the nearest whole number.

Step-by-step explanation:

here is your answer hope it helps you plaz mark me as brainlist

Step-by-step explanation:

The transformation of System A into System B is:

Equation [A2]+ Equation [A 1] → Equation [B 1]"

The correct answer choice is option D

To transform System A into System B as 1 × Equation [A2] + Equation [A1]→ Equation [B1] and 1 × Equation [A2] → Equation [B2].

System A:

-3x + 4y = -23 [A1]

7x - 2y = -5 [A2]

Multiply equation [A2] by 2

14x - 4y = -10

Add the equation to equation [A1]

14x - 4y = -10

-3x + 4y = -23 [A1]

11x = -33 [B1]

Multiply equation [A2] by 1

7x - 2y = -5 ....[B2]

So therefore, it can be deduced from the step by step explanation above that System A is ultimately transformed into System B as 1 × Equation [A2] + Equation [A1]→ Equation [B1] and 1 × Equation [A2] → Equation [B2].

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I believe the answer must be 96x-160

Because we have to multiply 8x12 which is 96. and there is x next to it. so keep the x as it is.

and next to it is minus ( - ) sign so keep it as it is.

now we have to multiply 8x20 which is 160.

so if we write it together it will be:

so if we write it together it will be:96x - 160.

Thank you

The probability exactly three successes in six trials is 31.30%

A binomial distribution can be defined as the probability of a success or failure outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times.

The probability distribution of a binomial distribution is given by :

P(x = k) = n! /k!(n - k)! P^x(1 - P)^(n - k)

In our case :

n = 6

P = 50/100 = 0.5

Now we want the probability that:

x = 3

This is because the question states that we want the probability that the number of successes are exactly 3.

We do the substitution in the probability distribution function as follows :

P(x = 3) = 6!/3!(6 - 3)! × 0.5³ × (1 - 0.5)³

= 0.3125

= 31.25%

= 31.30%

Hence, the probability of exactly three successes in six trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success is 50 is 31.30%

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Answer:

just finished a challenge

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think the answer is 1/2. Given the first die was odd, you rolled either a 1,3, or 5. Now on the second roll only a 6,4, or a 2 will give you a sum of 7. Given that is half of the sample space of the second die, it is 1/2?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 2x²+4x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\displaystyle\\\frac{2x^3-2x-12}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2(x^3-x-6)}{x-2}=\\\\ \frac{2(x^2-8+8-x-6)}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2(x^3-2^3-x+2)}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2((x^3-2^3)-(x-2))}{x-2}=\\\\\frac{2((x-2)(x^2+2x+2^2)-(x-2))}{x-2} =\\\\\frac{2(x-2)(x^2+2x+4-1)}{x-2}=\\\\2(x^2+2x+3)=\\\\2x^2+4x+6[/tex]

Answer:

Product: 191,100

Step-by-step explanation:

Show your work:

(It should look something like this)

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

First: 0 x 0 = 0 (so you put):

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

      0

(everything else times 0 just equals 0 so you'd get this):

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

0000

Next: 3 x 0 = (so you put):

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

0000

    0

Next: 3 x 7 = 21 (so you put):

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

0000

  10

(carry the 2)

Next: 3 x 3 = 9 (so you put):

 2

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

0000

 1 10

(add the number you carried to 9: giving you 11 so you also have to carry a 1 again)

(the first number: 0 of 110 goes under the third 0 of 0000)

(the spacing is just to make sure that the placement is correct: the first 1: of 110 goes under the first 0 of 0000)

Next: 3 x 6 = 18 (so you put):

1 2

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

  0000

191 10

(you add the 1 that you carried to 18 to give you 19)

(again: I only moved the zeros over so that the placement is correct)

Next: Now you add(this is why the placement of the numbers is important):

1 2

6370                                                                                                                              x   30

     0000

+ 191 10

  191,100

(you will put imaginary zeros over 19 because you know that there is already nothing there. You will also add an imaginary zero under the last zero that is hanging there because you know there is nothing there either.)

(Hope this helps! I know its really confusing, if you have any further questions or if the way I explained confused you please tell me or ask me those questions.) :)

Answer:

m=10

Step-by-step explanation:

m/3-6=4

30/3=10

10-6=4

Answer: It is 12 kilometers per minute

Step-by-step explanation:

in the problem that you'll need to simplify your answer and write it as a proper fraction, mixed number, or whole number so I can confirm this is 100% correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of the shaded region will be 150 square kilometers.

In Euclidean geometry, a parallelogram is a simple quadrilateral with two pairs of parallel sides. The opposite or facing sides of a parallelogram are of equal length and the opposite angles of a parallelogram are of equal measure. A triangle is a polygon with three edges and three vertices. The sum of all the angles of a triangle is 180 degrees. Mathematically -

∠x + ∠y + ∠z = 180°

There are different types of triangles such as -

equilateral triangle , scalene triangle , isosceles triangle etc.

Given is a 2- D figure as shown in the image.

The area of the shaded region will be -

A[shaded] = A [square] - {A [Δ1] + A [Δ2] + A [Δ3]}

A[shaded] = (20 X 20) - [{1/2 x 10 x 10} + {1/2 x 10 x 20} + {1/2 x 10 x 20}]

A[shaded] = 400 - [50 + 100 + 100]

A[shaded] = 400 - 250

A[shaded] = 150 square kilometers

Therefore, the area of the shaded region will be 150 square kilometers.

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As the LCM of 5, 8, and 12, which is 60 so it is the smallest length that can be divided exactly into equal sections of length 5 m, 8 m, and 12 m.

The acronym LCM stands for the least common multiple or factor of any two or more specified integers. The least common multiple for the numbers 16 and 20 is 80, hence the LCM of those two numbers will be, for instance, 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 = 80.

8 is the LCM of 4 and 8. The LCM is the number that can be divided by the provided numbers equally. You can discover the least common multiple of 4 and 8 by looking at the common multiples. 4 is a multiple of 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, etc.

finding prime factors of the given numbers by repeated division method in order to find the LCM;

2 | 5,8,12

5 | 5,4,6

2 | 1,4,6

2 | 1,2,3

3 | 1,1,3

0 | 1,1,1

so we get 2x5x3x2=60

As the LCM of 5, 8, and 12, which is 60 so it is the smallest length that can be divided exactly into equal sections of length 5 m, 8 m, and 12 m.

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The shortest length which can be split into equal segments of length 5 meters, 8 meters, or 12 meters is 120.

Your form may be divided into sections with the help of sections, as the name suggests. This enables your users to input responses that might be categorized. The fact that sections divide your form into distinct screens is another significant benefit. For instance, a first screen shows section 1. When concealed lines in external views cannot adequately represent a part's inner design, sections are employed. The internal components can be viewed more clearly by imagining cutting through the thing and removing a section of it.

Finding the LCM by repeatedly dividing the supplied integers to get their prime components:

2 | 5,8,12

2 | 5,4,6

2 | 5,2,3

3 | 5,1,3

5 | 5,1,1

1 | 1,1,1

So we get 2*2*2*3*5*1 = 120

The lowest length that could be divided into precisely equal segments in lengths 5 m, 8 m, and 12 m is 120, which equals the LCM of 5, 8, & 12.

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Answer:

m∠1 = 70

m∠2 = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

41 and 42 are complementary angles:  m∠1 + m∠2 = 90

measure of 41 is 50° more than the measure of 42:  m∠1 = m∠2 + 50

substitute: (m∠2 + 50) + m∠2 = 90

simplify and solve:  2(m∠2) + 50 = 90

                                2(m∠2) = 40

                                m∠2 = 20