Gross primary production (GPP) is the overall rate at which a substance is produced, and net primary production (NPP) is the rate at which a substance accumulates beyond respiration. So NPP is his GPP minus his breath.
Gross primary production: The amount of chemical energy produced by plants and algae from light energy. Net primary production (NPP) is the total minus the energy lost through respiration by plants and algae. Gross primary productivity (GPP) also refers to the rate of the production of the organic matter during the photosynthesis. Net primary productivity: Net primary productivity (NPP) refers to the remainder of the gross production that remains after being used by the grower or plant in the respiratory process. Net primary production are equals gross primary production which minus the energy used by the primary producers for the respiration. Gross primary production is also the amount of the energy from the light converted to the chemical energy per unit of that time
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which scenarios describe ecological conditions that are appropriate for exponential growth to occur?
The correct answer is d) A small flock of birds migrates to an unpopulated island with lush vegetation and abundant insect prey.
Birds migrate in order to shift from low-resource areas to high-resource areas or vice versa. The two main items sought after are food and places to build nests. Birds that breed in the Northern Hemisphere typically migrate northward in the spring to take advantage of the abundance of nesting sites, burgeoning insect populations, and budding plants to a suitable ecological condition. The birds once more migrate south as winter draws near and the amount of insects and other food sources decreases. Escape from the cold is a driving force, but many species, including hummingbirds, can withstand subfreezing temperatures provided they have access to enough food.
The complete question is:
Which of the following scenarios describe ecological conditions that are appropriate for exponential growth to occur?
a) People who live in the area surrounding Mombasa, Kenya are at high risk for contracting malaria.
b) A population of antelope in the African plains experiences high levels of predation from lions, cheetahs, and leopards.
c) Herbivores like elephants, giraffes, antelope, and zebras must compete for limited vegetation during drought seasons in the African savannah.
d) A small flock of birds migrates to an unpopulated island with lush vegetation and abundant insect prey.
e) Excessive snow and cold from a blizzard causes many starvation related deaths in a quail population. Only a small portion of the quail survive to spring to raise their young.
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When all the members of a species or population have the same allele for a certain gene, we say that gene is.
If the 2 alleles are the equal, the character is homozygous for that allele. If the alleles are different, the character is heterozygous.
When a populace is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene, it isn't always evolving, and allele frequencies will live the equal throughout generations. There are 5 fundamental Hardy-Weinberg assumptions: no mutation, random mating, no gene flow, limitless populace size, and no selection.
To "fix" an allele method that the allele is gift at a frequency of 1.0, so all people withinside the populace have the equal allele at a locus.
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The reaction to a stimulus is a
Answer:the reactionto a stimulus is called response
Explanation:brainiest please
Answer: The reaction to a stimulus is called response.
Explanation:
what is the scraping or scooping of the tissue surface of the skin or wall of a tumor cavity
skin, cavity walls, tiny tumors, abortions, to clean out, bodily materials, or infectious materials that have been scraped from the tissue surface. a cancerous melanoma.
What does removing tissue from the body for microscopic analysis entail?A procedure known as a biopsy is carried out by medical professionals to examine a small sample of tissue under a microscope. A tissue sample can be taken from almost any part of the body, including the skin, stomach, kidneys, liver, and lungs.
What is the name of scraping therapy?If you've ever had tendinitis or strained a joint, you can relate to how frustrating it may be. Scraping therapy, also known as Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization, is a service provided by RPT that has a proven track record of expediting soft tissue recovery. like muscles, tendons, ligaments, and fascia.
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The cell membrane exists as a phospholipid bilayer. What characteristics of the membrane allow for the bilayer to exist?
O The membrane has proteins that hold the two layers together.
O Phosphate heads are hydrophilic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophobic.
O Phosphate heads are hydrophobic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophilic.
O The membrane is semipermeable.
Answer:
Phosphate heads are hydrophilic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophobic
Which proteins lends structural support to the chromosome and helps activate or silence gene expression?.
Histones serve as structural proteins. Histones are encircled by DNA, which gives chromosomes their structure. Histones can be changed by adding or removing chemical groups like methyl or acetyl groups.
What protein helps a chromosome maintain its structural integrity?A chromosome's structural support is provided by a protein called a histone. Each chromosome has a long DNA molecule that must fit into the cell nucleus. By wrapping around histone protein complexes, the DNA achieves this and gives the chromosome a more compact shape.
Who or what is responsible for suppressing gene expression?Posttranscriptional gene silencing (PTGS) and transcriptional gene silencing (TGS) both work to degrade already-existing RNA. Although the outcomes are comparable, TGS's processes are species-specific, as are PTGS. De novo DNA methylation is connected to gene silencing in the majority of eukaryotes.
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is tool use unique to members of our own human lineage? if not, name at least one other animal that makes tools.
It is false to say that tool use unique to members of our own human lineage. Chimpanzees are one of those animals who can makes tools.
The capacity to make and utilize tools goes back great many years in our genealogical record. Chimpanzees, our nearest living family members, might on their own devise at any point stick like weapons for hunting and make particular toolboxes for searching insects, recommending our genealogical record might have had wooden apparatuses since the progenitors of people and chimps veered exactly a long time back.
The beginning of stone devices goes back a 2.6 million years to Gona in Ethiopia. Known as the Oldowan, these incorporate not simply clench hand measured hunks of rock for beating, yet additionally the primary known production of stone devices — sharp pieces made by knapping, or striking a hard stone against quartz, obsidian, rock or whatever other stone whose chips can hold an edge. Right now are likewise the most established known butchered creature bones.
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An element crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice, and it has a density of 1. 45 g/cm3. The edge of its unit cell is 4. 52x10-8 cm. How many atoms are in each unit cell? what is the volume of a unit cell? what is the mass of a unit cell? calculate an approximate atomic mass for the element.
The values of the no of atoms in each unit cell, the volume of a unit cell, the mass of a unit cell , Atomic mass for the element respectively are 4, 9.2345*10-23 cm³, 1.34x10 gm, 20.
Given,
Lattice is fcc and has a density of 1.45 g/cm³.
Edge length, a=4.52*10 cm
The total number of atoms in fcc lattice,
At corner = 1/8*8 =1
At face = 1/2*6 =3
Total number of particles = 3 + 1 =4
The volume of the unit cell,
Volume of unit cell = a³ =(4.52*10 cm)
=9.2345*10-23 cm³
The mass of the unit cell
Mass = Density*Volume
Mass = 1.45g/cm * 9.2345x10^-23
=1.34x10 gm
The atomic mass of the element
Mass of one atom =1.34x10/4 g
=3.35x10 gm
Atomic mass of the element = mass in gm/1amu
= 3.35×10 g /1.66x1024 g
= 20
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which one is correct answer
Foetus get antibodies through placenta and injection of Antibodies are the example of Passive Immunity .
What is Passive Immunity ?The transmission of a ready-made antibody's active humoral immunity is known as passive immunity. Natural transmission of maternal antibodies to the fetus via the placenta can result in passive immunity.
The main benefit of passive immunity is that it provides protection right away, as opposed to active immunity, which takes time (a few weeks) to develop. Passive immunity, however, only lasts a few weeks or months. Long-lasting immunity can only be active.When a person acquires antibodies against a disease that were not produced by their own immune system naturally rather than through medical intervention, they are said to have acquired natural passive immunity. This is also known as maternal passive immunity and typically refers to the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus over the placenta.Passive immunity comes in two flavors: synthetic and natural.To know more about Passive Immunity please click here : https://brainly.com/question/21480961
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Muscle contraction depends on ATP hydrolysis. During periods of intense exercise, muscle cells rely on the ATP supplied by three metabolic pathways: glycolysis, mitochondrial respiration, and the phosphagen system. Figure 1 shows the rates at which the three metabolic pathways produce ATP following the start of an intense period of exercise.
Which of the following correctly uses the data to justify the claim that the phosphagen system is an immediate, short-term source of ATP for muscle cells?
Using the data correctly to justify the claim that the phosphagen system is the immediate and short-term source of ATP in muscle cells is the figure that indicates that ATP production by the phosphagen system increases and decreases rapidly following the start of the exercise period.
What is ATP?Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a cellular energy source for use and storage. An adenine-based nitrogenous base, a ribose sugar, and three consecutive phosphate groups form the nucleoside triphosphate structure of ATP. ATP is an important part of the process when macromolecules such as proteins and lipids move in and out of cells. Active transport mechanisms can move these molecules across concentration gradients, as hydrolysis of ATP provides the necessary energy. The energy source for cells is ATP. Cells can safely store energy in small packets and release it only when absolutely necessary. In other words, ATP bridges the gap between energy-requiring activities, such as synthesis, and energy-releasing activities, such as food breakdown.
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you are looking at dna-protein binding data in a 14 kb region of the genome. t/f: this data provides biochemical and evolutionary evidence of functionality for a non-coding region of the genome.
False if findings show biochemical and evolutionary proof that a non-coding portion of the genome functions.
What are the three different genome types?We know from the last example that there are three genome types, AA, AG, and GG, because the mutation is A-G. The GG type of these three genome types has the highest activity against alcohol, whereas the AA type has the lowest activity and can rarely digest alcohol.
What kind of genome is an example of?This same set of instructions can be found in every cell in the body, such as skin cells and liver cells: DNA is the primary component of our genome's instructions. DNA contains a special chemical sequence that directs our growth, development, and health.
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how can variation of traits in a population help in the adaption of the population to its enviornment
Answer:A population has genetic variations, possibly due to mutations. Favorable variations may allow an organism to be better adapted to its environment and survive to reproduce. Beneficial traits are favored in a population so that they may become better represented.
Explanation:
A relatively small area with numerous endemic species and a large number of endangered or threatened species is called a _________.
Certain areas are home to numerous endemic species found nowhere else. Many of them are severely threatened by habitat loss and other human activities. These regions are biodiversity hotspots.
There are 36 locations in the world where effective species conservation can have a substantial impact on global biodiversity conservation. Areas with significant densities of endemic species (species found nowhere else on Earth) and substantial habitat loss are sometimes referred to as "hotspots" in the region and are thus naturally found there.
Endangered species are those that live in restricted habitats such as mountains, lakes, and islands. Extinction rates are exacerbated by habitat loss. Other factors include habitat loss, commercial overexploitation of animals, the introduction of hazardous alien species, pollution, and disease transmission.
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Which statement is TRUE of infant vision?
Because of the sensitivity of their eyes, young infants avoid looking at areas of high contrast.
By around 2 or 3 months of age infants' color vision is similar to that of adults.
Infants tend to look at the center of any display, regardless of what it is.
Visual acuity develops very slowly, but by 18 months infants can see nearly as well as adults.
The TRUE statement regarding infant vision is B. At around 2 or 3 months of age infants color vision is similar to that of adults.
Eyes are a very important person to see life. The baby's sense of sight develops gradually as the baby gets older from birth. Newborn babies aged around 1 month can only see contrasting colors at close range. Baby's retinas are developing so that their pupils dilate to detect light. At the age of 2-3 months babies usually start to be able to see differences in colors clearly and objects with various shapes. When one object is moved to the other side, the baby's eyes are able to follow the object.
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in eukaryotes, there are several different types of rna polymerase. which type is involved in transcription of mrna for a protein?
Transcribing RNA into a protein involves RNA polymerase II. whereas eukaryotes have a variety of RNA polymerase species.
RNA polymerase II, also known as RNAP II or Pol II, is a multiprotein complex that converts DNA into messenger RNA (mRNA), the majority of small nuclear RNA (snRNA), and microRNA precursors. It is one of the three RNAP enzymes that can be found in eukaryotic cells' nuclei. The most researched form of RNA polymerase is RNAP II, a 550 kDa complex with 12 subunits. For it to bind to upstream gene promoters and start transcription, a variety of transcription factors are needed. In eukaryotic genomes, RNA polymerase II (Pol II) transcribes all protein-coding genes and a large number of noncoding RNAs. Though Pol II is complicated.
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review the range shift of oak-hickory forests. this forest type is seen toexpand vigorously from the original range, notably displacing which forest type?
The correct answer is Maple beech birch forest. It is the forest type which is being displaced by range shift of oak hickory forests.
About 25% of Lewisboro is covered by this Maple beech birch forest, which grows on moist, well-drained (not soggy) soils. At the Brownell Preserve, where sugar maples are tapped to generate maple syrup, you can see good examples. There are mostly beech, red maple, and sugar maple trees. Other trees include tulip trees in extremely damp locations, white ash, black birch, black cherry, and basswood. Smaller sugar maple and beech saplings, hornbeam (ironwood), and sassafras trees typically make up the understory. Moreover, the oak-hickory forest is arguably the largest kind of deciduous woodland in eastern North America. Black and white oaks are the two most prevalent large trees in the Big Woods Plot, with pignut and shagbark hickories coming in second and third. These xerophytic (drought-tolerant) species thrive on sand-covered glacier debris.
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which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of tsh from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)?
A The hypothalamic-pituitary axis regulates the release of TSH via hypothalamic neurons that secrete thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH), a hormone that stimulates thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH.
TSH synthesis in the anterior pituitary is stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and inhibited by thyroid hormone in a classic endocrine negative feedback loop. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis regulates the release of TSH. Specifically, neurons in the hypothalamus release TRH, or thyroid-releasing hormone, which stimulates the thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH. Your hypothalamus releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which causes your pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). ), which stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH),synthesize and release thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)
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86) which of the following are defenses that some plants use against herbivory? a) production of the unusual amino acid canavanine b) release of volatile compounds that attract parasitoid wasps c) association of plant tissues with mycorrhizae d) a and b only e) a, b, and c
The correct option for the given question is a. production of the unusual amino acid is canavanine , is a defense some plants use against herbivory.
A plant's first line of defense is the intact and impenetrable barrier of the bark and waxy cuticle. Both protect plants from predators. Other antiherbivore adaptations include hard shells, thorns (modified branches), and spines (modified leaves). Plant structural features such as leaf surface wax, spines or trichomes, cell wall thickness/and lignification form the first physical barriers to herbivore foraging and secondary amino acid metabolites such as toxins, It also affects growth, development and digestibility. Reducers are the next barrier. Plants evade herbivory by hiding, building structural barriers, producing and acquiring chemical toxins, and recruiting predatory "bodyguards."
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i) both recognize antigens using immunoglobulin receptors. ii) both undergo clonal selection after encountering an antigen. iii) both maintain an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens.
The correct options are II) Both B cells and T cells undergo clonal selection after encountering an antigen and III) B cells and T cells both maintain an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens
Clonal selection is a method proposed to explain how a single B or T cell that recognizes an antigen that invades the body is chosen/picked from the pre-existing cell pool containing various antigen specificities, and then its reproduction to generate a clonal cell population that eliminates the invading antigen.
Both B and T cells keep an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens; when exposed to the same antigen again, the immune response is swiftly triggered (memory T cell), or the cell multiplies and makes a lot of a particular antibody (memory B cell).
The complete question is:
Which of the following are similarities between B cells and T cells?
I) They both recognize antigen using immunoglobulin receptors.
II) Both B cells and T cells undergo clonal selection after encountering an antigen.
III) B cells and T cells both maintain an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens.
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which structure is highlighted? posterior view of the thigh. the highlighted structure is a bunch of tissue in its lower portion. it branches laterally from a long bunch of tissue lying along the middle back of the thigh.which structure is highlighted? popliteal nerve tibial nerve tendon of semimembranosus common fibular nerve
The structure which is highlighted in the given picture is c)anterior tibial artery. Popliteal artery give rise to anterior tibial artery in Poplitea. So, correct option is c.
The popliteal artery is a profoundly positioned continuation of the femoral course opening in the distal piece of the adductor magnus muscle. It flows through the popliteal fossa and closures at the lower line of the popliteus muscle, where it branches into the front and back tibial courses.
The most profound (generally front) structure in the fossa, the popliteal course runs near the joint container of the knee as it ranges the intercondylar fossa. Five genicular parts of the popliteal vein supply the container and tendons of the knee joint. The genicular veins are the unrivaled sidelong, predominant average, center, mediocre horizontal, and second rate average genicular corridors.
They partake in the development of the periarticular genicular anastomosis, an organization of vessels encompassing the knee that gives guarantee flow fit for keeping up with blood supply to the leg during full knee flexion, which might wrinkle the popliteal vein.
Hence, correct option is c.
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(Complete question) is:
Which structure is highlighted in the given picture?
a)posterior tibial artery
b)femoral artery
c)anterior tibial artery
d)popliteal artery fibular artery
which organ transplant is the most susceptible to rejection and has the best graft survival rates when the organ is obtained from hla-identical, abo-compatible siblings?
HLA-incompatible organ transplant is the most susceptible to rejection and has the best graft survival rates when the organ is obtained from hla-identical, abo-compatible siblings
A gene complex called human leucocyte antigen (HLA) is responsible for producing the MHC proteins in people. The control of the human immune system is carried out by these cell-surface proteins. The HLA is a crucial factor in organ transplant rejection because it causes the body to create antibodies when the organ from the donor is recognized as non-self.
In identical twins, HLA is identical. Therefore, twins, siblings with some similarity, followed by a parent with some similarity, are the top choices for transplantation. If a family member cannot donate, an unrelated donor will be given the least preference. Therefore, Twin>Sibling>Parent>Unrelated donor is the right order of chances of successful transplantation.
Hence, chances of HLA-incompatible organ transplant success lies in closeness of patient to donor.
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operons are structures in bacterial genomes that organize genes involved in a common metabolic pathway. a specific example is the lac operon, which produces three enzymes involved in the metabolism of lactose (milk sugar) as a food source for escherichia coli. identify the functions of each part of the operon and related structures.
The functions of each part of the Lac operon and related structures are based on the following pairs: (1: E), (2:F), (3:D), (4:B), (5:C), (6:A)
1. The {lacZ} gene encodes the enzyme {β-galactosidase}, which hydrolyzes the disaccharide lactose into two monosaccharides: glucose and galactose.
2. The {lacY} gene encodes the enzyme {permease}, a membrane transport protein that facilitates the movement of lactose into the cell.
3. The {lacA} gene encodes {transacetylase}, an enzyme that detoxifies other molecules that might enter the cell through permease.
4. RNA polymerase binds to the {lac promoter} in order to transcribe the three lac genes.
5. The {lac operator} controls whether or not RNA polymerase can transcribe the genes.
6. The {lacI gene}, which lies just upstream from the lac operon, encodes the {lacI repressor} protein that binds to the operator to regulate the activity of the operon.
The complete question is:
Operons are structures in bacterial genomes that organize genes involved in a common metabolic pathway. A specific example is the lac operon, which produces three enzymes involved in the metabolism of lactose (milk sugar) as a food source for Escherichia coli. Identify the functions of each part of the operon and related structures.
Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all terms will be used.
1. The {lacZ}
2. The {lacY}
3. The {lacA}
4. RNA polymerase
5. The {lac operator}
6. The {lacI gene}
Options are:
(A). which lies just upstream from the lac operon, encodes the {lacI repressor} protein that binds to the operator to regulate the activity of the operon.
(B). binds to the {lac promoter} in order to transcribe the three lac genes.
(C) controls whether or not RNA polymerase can transcribe the genes.
(D) the gene encodes {transacetylase}, an enzyme that detoxifies other molecules that might enter the cell through permease.
(E) the gene encodes the enzyme {β-galactosidase}, which hydrolyzes the disaccharide lactose into two monosaccharides: glucose and galactose.
(F) the gene encodes the enzyme {permease}, a membrane transport protein that facilitates the movement of lactose into the cell.
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why is dna replication considered semi-conservative? two strands of the original dna molecule are separated. half of the dna molecule produced is from an rna precursor. the new double helix has two strands of new dna. the new double helix has one strand from the original dna and one new strand.
DNA replication is considered semi-conservative d. the new double helix has one strand of original DNA and one new strand.
DNA replication is the process of doubling the DNA chain before cell division occurs. By the mechanism of synthesizing a new DNA strand by adding complementary nucleotides to the template strand.
Semiconservative replication is a biologically significant model of DNA replication proposed by Watson and Crick. The semiconservative theory, which states that the double helix strands split into a single helix, then form a new pair of complementary strands. During semiconservative replication, one old DNA strand serves as a template to form a new strand. DNA replication is called semi-analysis because DNA produces a new strand after synthesizing the old strand.
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as they emerge from the ribosome, signal sequences are recognized and bound by a(n) ... select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a trna b signal peptidase c signal recognition particle d signal recognition particle receptor
As they emerge from the ribosome, signal sequences are recognized and bound by a signal recognition particle (SRP).
The majority of newly synthesized proteins that are destined for the secretory pathway contain a short peptide known as a signal sequence at their N-terminus. These proteins include those that are inserted into most cellular membranes, secreted from the cell, or found within specific organelles.
The mechanism by which secretory proteins are targeted to the ER during their translation (the cotranslational pathway) is as follows. A signal recognition particle (SRP) composed of six polypeptides and a small cytoplasmic RNA (7SL RNA) recognizes and binds signal sequences as they emerge from the ribosome. The signal sequences are about 20 amino acids long and typically contain hydrophobic residues near the polypeptide chain's amino terminus.
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to test the service brake on a hydraulic system you push down the pedel firmly to see if the braking action is correct where and when should u do this
You should test the service brake on a hydraulic system you push down the pedel firmly to see if the braking action is correct while during your pre-trip.
Three brake pedal pumps are required. Next, press firmly and hold the pedal position for five seconds. The pedal must not be pressed. If so, there might be a leak or another issue.
What is hydraulic system?
Hydraulic systems use a pressured fluid to operate and carry out duties. Another way to put it is that everything is propelled by a fluid under pressure. Heavy machinery typically employs hydraulics because of how much liquid fuel affects hydraulics.
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when butterflies visit a corpse, which occurs very late in the succession of insects that arrive at a corpse, what are they looking to feed on?
Butterflies visit a corpse, which occurs very late in the succession of insects that arrive at a corpse, what are they looking to feed on salt
Butterflies are fantastic for your garden since they are drawn to vivid flowers and require nectar to survive. Their bodies gather pollen as a result and transport it to other plants. Fruits, vegetables, and flowers can generate more seeds because to this.Plants are not specifically harmed by butterflies. Cabbage moths and white cabbage butterflies are the primary offenders (which we describe below). The majority of butterflies are essentially unharmful.Butterflies, like honeybees, pollinate plants and serve as a food source for birds and other species. They also assist in gauging environmental conditions. This final task is crucial since native pollinators are responsible for one-third of the food generated for human use.
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which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of tsh from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)?
Answer: aTRH hormone
Explanation:
Hairston and colleagues argued that terrestrial ecosystems have a _______ proportion of autotroph biomass consumption compared to aquatic ecosystems because _______ is stronger in terrestrial ecosystems.lower; predation
According to Hairston and colleagues, because predation is more intense in terrestrial ecosystems, they consume a smaller percentage of autotroph biomass than aquatic habitats.
In contrast, according to Hairston (1993), the distribution of biomass throughout the trophic levels and the number of them are determined by ecosystems evolutionary features like body size and eating behavior rather than by energetics or nutrition. Only three functioning trophic levels are present in terrestrial ecosystems food webs, biomass according to Hairston & Hairston (1993). (plants, herbivores and primary predators)
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pouches that form in the walls of the large intestine due to excessive exertion during defecation are called . group of answer choices ulcers phytobezoars diverticula hemorrhoids
Hemorrhoids in the diverticula.
What is large intestine?Diverticula are pouches that emerge from the large intestine's outer wall.
The pancreas secretes insulin, a hormone that tells cells to take up blood sugar for use as fuel or storage when blood sugar levels rise. Blood sugar levels start to decrease as cells begin to absorb it.
Blood glucose levels increase when we eat. By directly stimulating the cells in skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and adipose tissue to take up glucose from the blood, this causes the pancreas to generate the vital hormone insulin.
Physiological hyperinsulinemia in healthy people entirely suppresses glycogenolysis while suppressing gluconeogenesis by 20%. With little impact on glycogen storage, hyperglycemia alone inhibits hepatic glycogenolysis.
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antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed antibiotics. narrow-spectrum drugs. semisynthetic drugs. synthetic drugs. broad-spectrum drugs.
Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed narrow spectrum antibiotics. Thus the correct answer is option (A).
In the fight against bacterial illnesses, antibiotics have become a necessary component of daily life for humans. They are categorized based on the range of bacteria that they attack.
The narrow-spectrum antibiotics, as their name implies, target a particular germ for treatment. When the etiological organism is identified, these drugs target certain infections. They won't kill as many germs as broad-spectrum antibiotics, but they will get rid of the specific bacteria that are the source of that illness.
The complete question is:
Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed ____________ antibiotics.
(A). narrow-spectrum drugs.
(B). semisynthetic drugs.
(C). synthetic drugs.
(D). broad-spectrum drugs.
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