The study of how cells influence gene activity without modifying the DNA sequence is known as epigenetics. In Greek, "epi-"means "above," thus "epigenetic" refers to variables other than the genetic code.
3 examples of epigenetic factors;
DNA Methylation is one type of epigenetic modification. DNA methylation works by introducing a chemical group into the DNA.Histone transformation. DNA wraps around proteins known as histones.Non-coding RNA (non-coding RNA). Your DNA serves as a blueprint for the production of both coding and non-coding RNA.Two epigenetic processes involved in gene expression control are DNA methylation and histone post-translational modifications (PTMs) [4]. Since the 1960s, DNA methylation has been discovered and widely investigated in bacterial DNA.
Histone methylases (HMTs), histone acetyltransferases (HATs), and histone deacetylases (HDACs) regulate gene expression.
Mutagens are exogenous agents that cause genetic alteration. Mutagens frequently induce changes in the chemical structure of nucleotides, resulting in substitutions, insertions, and deletions in the DNA sequence.
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Which scenario will most likely result in a change to the nitrogen cycle that negatively affects plant growth?.
Scenario that will most likely result in a change to the nitrogen cycle that negatively affects plant growth: soil acidification.
What is the affect of soil acidification on nitrogen cycle?Soil acidification is the process where soil pH decreases over time and this process is accelerated by agricultural production and can affect surface soil and subsoil.
Helpful soil micro-organisms is prevented from recycling nutrients for example: nitrogen supply may be reduced. Phosphorus in the soil becomes less available to plants and deficiencies of calcium, magnesium and molybdenum may also occur. Ability of the plants to use subsoil moisture may become limited.
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which of the following is a biotic factor that can limit the distribution and abundance of a species?
A biotic factor that can limit the distribution and abundance of a species is b)climate. So, correct option is b.
Biotic factors are considered as the living parts of an ecosystem. Ecosystem work as very complex systems of competition and cooperation, where the action of every life form can effect all the others – any living thing within an ecosystem can be considered as a biotic factor.
Climate can affect large number of population. Climate directly effects the population. Adaptive climate is welcomed by every population. Severe climate change can be very dangerous to any of the person.
The abundance and distribution of the organisms are affected by the biotic factors, which are factors that are living. All animals require food to live. The availability of the food is a major factor in how many animals live in an ecosystem.
Hence, correct option is b.
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(Complete question) is:
which of the following is a biotic factor that can limit the distribution and abundance of a species?
a)availability of water
b)climate
c)light intensity
d)competition
transcriptome and chromatin landscape of inkt cells are shaped by subset differentiation and antigen exposure. t/f
“Transcriptome and chromatin landscape of iNKT cells are shaped by subset differentiation and antigen exposure.” This statement is: True.
What are iNKT cells and what shaped them?iNKT stands for Invariant natural killer T, which are cells that can initiate or inhibit immune response just like the T lymphocyte. Although most of the iNKT subsets look similar, regardless of the tissue location, two things shape the transcriptome and chromatin landscape of iNKT. These cells are differentiated into three effector cell subsets, which are NKT1, NKT2, and NKT17. Whereas, researchers prove that antigen exposure leads to the remodel of iNKT cells by chromatin. Hence, the statement above is true.
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the body has several mechanisms to fight disease, one of which is sending chemical messengers. the messengers released by lymphocytes, monocytes, and macrophages have differing roles in the immune response. which messenger promotes inflammation, fever, and angiogenesis?
Interleukins messenger promotes inflammation, fever, and angiogenesis.
Interleukins carry messages between leukocytes and tissues that form blood cells. Some interleukins enhance the immune response, whereas others suppress it (Martini & Bartholomew, 2010).
Examples of interleukin activity include the promotion of inflammation and fever, production of antibodies, formation of new blood vessels (known as angiogenesis), etc.
What is the function of interleukins?
The primary function of interleukins is, therefore, to modulate growth, differentiation, and activation during inflammatory and immune responses. Interleukins consist of a large group of proteins that can elicit many reactions in cells and tissues by binding to high-affinity receptors in cell surfaces.
What do interleukins do?
Interleukins regulate immune responses. Interleukins made in the laboratory are used as biological response modifiers to boost the immune system in cancer therapy. An interleukin is a type of cytokine.
Thus, the correct answer is Interleukins.
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Chemoreceptors located in the aortic and carotid bodies stimulate the respiratory control center in the brain when the blood __________ decreases.
Peripheral chemoreceptors that detect a drop in pH or a rise in acidity trigger increased breathing to expel carbon dioxide from the blood.
What happens when central chemosensors pick up on elevated arterial pCO2?Ventilation is increased when a rise in pCO2 is detected. As more CO2 is breathed, the pCO2 drops and stabilizes. Ventilation is reduced when a drop in pCO2 is detected. As the amount of CO2 held in the lungs decreases, the pCO2 rises and returns to normal.
What activates the brain's respiratory center?The two main brain regions that have an impact on breathing are the medulla and the pons. The body's medulla, which houses the respiratory center, is typically stimulated by increased carbon dioxide concentration and, to a lesser extent, by decreased.
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explain how breathing in and breathing out relate to aerobic respiration. be sure to identify the molecules involved.
The process of aerobic respiration uses glucose and oxygen as reactants producing six molecules of carbon dioxide, 6 molecules of water, and 30 molecules of ATP which is used directly to produce energy.
Aerobic respiration is the process by which fuels, such as fats and carbohydrates, are transformed into chemical energy. On the other hand, anaerobic respiration doesn't need oxygen.
Respiration is a process used by all cells to turn fuel into energy that can power cellular processes. As a consequence of respiration, adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a molecule that uses the phosphate bonds' stored energy to fuel chemical reactions. It is often referred to as the "money" of the cell.
Anaerobic respiration produces ATP more slowly and is less efficient than aerobic respiration. This is true because oxygen serves as a fantastic electron acceptor in the chemical reactions that create ATP.
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which of the following would you expect to find at high concentrations in lysosomes? select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a proteins destined for secretion. b glycosylation enzymes c degradative enzymes d recycling endosomes
Degradative enzymes are found at high concentrations in lysosomes. The correct answer is option (C).
The highest concentration of digesting enzymes is found in the Lysosome. The internal acidic pH of this organelle is necessary for these enzymes to operate.
The lysosome is a membrane-bound eukaryotic organelle that has several hydrolytic enzymes to break down cellular constituents.
The endomembrane system, which also consists of the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, transport vesicles, and nuclear envelope, includes this organelle (the lysosome).
The primary roles of lysosomal enzymes include the breakdown and recycling of cellular waste products as well as metabolic functions.
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The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as ________.
Blood in the urine is referred to as Hemoturia. Gross or visible hematuria refers to pee that is red or pink and may indicate the presence of blood in the urine. It is sometimes possible to detect "microscopic" hematuria, which is when there is blood in the urine but it is difficult to observe.
What does red blood cells in urine mean?Cancer of the bladder or urinary tract may be to blame for an abnormally high level of RBCs in the urine. difficulties with the kidneys and other parts of the urinary tract, like infections or stones.
What does pee with tiny blood in it mean?A typical sign of glomerulonephritis, an inflammation of the kidneys' filtration mechanism, is microscopic urine bleeding. Glomerulonephritis can develop on its own or accompany a systemic illness like diabetes.
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In what ways are a promoter and a start codon similar? in what ways are they different? Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. A promoter and a start codon are similar in that both are sequences of that are required to start important processes, and both determine the sites where the process will begin. the key differences are that the promoter is needed to start and the start codon is needed to start. Also, the promoter is a only, and the start codon is a sequence found within a(n). nucleic acids proteins transcription translation mRNA tRNA DNA sequence RNA sequence
A promotor and start codon are similar in that both specify the locations where important processes will start and are sequences of nucleic acids that are necessary to start those processes.
The promotor is required to begin transcription while the start codon is required to begin translation. This is the main distinction. Additionally, only a DNA sequence functions as the promotor, and an mRNA sequence functions as the start codon.
Start codons and promoters are two examples of nucleotide sequences that indicate where to start a critical procedure for gene expression and protein synthesis.
When the ribosome comes across the start codon in the mRNA, which has the sequence AUG, translation, or the building of a protein out of amino acids, begins.
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Resident Microbiota Evaluate the statements below and select those that correctly apply to the role of the resident microbiota in the first line of defense. Check All That Apply Microbial antagoniam contributes to the first line of defense since resident dobioto compete for nutrients and oxygen limiting availability for pathogens. Commensal microbiota are problematic to human defentement should be kept at a minimum Research suggests that chronic ramatory code, che thought to be when the host defenses inappropriately attack the resident biote
The statement which apply to the role of the resident microbiota is option A)Microbial antagoniam contributes to the first line of defense since resident dobioto compete for nutrients and oxygen.
Microbiota are considered as the range of the microorganisms that may be commensal, symbiotic, or the pathogenic which found in and on all multicellular organisms, including plants.
Microbiota includes various type of microorganisms like bacteria, archaea, protists, fungi, and viruses, and have been found to be crucial for the development of immunologic, hormonal, and metabolic homeostasis of their host.
The microbiome and host emerged during the evolution as a synergistic unit from epigenetics and genetic characteristics, sometimes collectively called to as a holobiont. The presence of the microbiota in human and other metazoan guts has been critical in understanding the co-evolution between metazoans and bacteria.
Hence, correct option is A.
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(Complete question) is:
Evaluate the statements below and select those that correctly apply to the role of the resident microbiota in the first line of defense. Check All That Apply.
A)Microbial antagoniam contributes to the first line of defense since resident dobioto compete for nutrients and oxygen
B)Limiting availability for pathogens.
C)Commensal microbiota are problematic to human defentement should be kept at a minimum Research suggests that chronic ramatory code, che thought to be when the host defenses inappropriately attack the resident biote.
Order the structures that a pressure wave passes through in the cochlea, beginning from the oval window and ending at the round window. Oval window Pressure wave formation in the cochlear duct Nerve signal initiated Displacement of the basilar membrane Hair cells of the spiral organ are distorted Vestibular membrane moves Pressure waves generated in scala vestibuli Pressure waves transferred to the scala tympani Round window Reset
Pressure waves in the perilymph of the cochlea's scala vestibuli are produced by mechanical vibrations of the stapes footplate at the oval window.
These waves pass through the helicotrema at the cochlea's tip, the scala tympani, and the cochlea's tip before vanishing when they strike the circular window. Pressure waves are created in the scala vestibuli, the vestibular membrane shifts, pressure waves form in the cochlear duct, the basilar membrane is displaced, the spiral organ's hair cells are warped, a nerve signal is started, and pressure waves are then conveyed to the scala tympani. round window Cochlear duct pressure wave creation initiated by a nerve signal Moving of the basilar membrane Spiral organ hair cells are deformed. Motion of the vestibular membrane In scala vestibuli, pressure waves are produced The scala tympani received pressure waves. oval window Reset.
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Suppose a female fruit fly carries a mutation in her nanos gene that prevents expression of the nanos protein in any eggs she produces. Which effect is likely to be observed?.
All cells get ventralized when cactus, a different maternal effect gene, is absent. These maternal genes create essential proteins that are needed to make eggs.
Which circumstances would cause developing ducks to lose their webbing?Webbing is lost as a result of apoptosis. Duck embryos that have been experimentally implanted with mutant BMP4 have non-webbed feet. Both the growth of a single organism and the evolution of species distinctions are governed by the actions of genes under the direction of genetic switches.
Which role do gap genes play in Drosophila?In Drosophila melanogaster and other insects, the gap gene system regulates the initial steps of the segmentation pathway. This system has a significant role in embryo patterning because to its tractability.
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a skeletal muscle fiber was bathed in thapsigargin, a ca -atpase inhibitor, then stimulated repeatedly to contract. what is the predicted result?
Decreased contraction force as result of a breakdown in Ca gradient across sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. In steady state, quantity of calcium entering cell must match quantity pushed out on each cardiac muscle.
If not, either Ca would be gained or lost by the cell. Only momentary imbalances between Ca entrance and departure can influence the magnitude of the Ca transient, which in turn affects contractility. The electric excitation of the surface membrane is connected to contraction by a mechanism known as excitation-contraction coupling. Numerous studies conducted since the original observations in cardiac muscle have shown the underlying variations in cytoplasmic calcium concentration. Ca attaches to troponin, causing the thick and thin filaments to slide and the cells to shrink. This causes pressure to build up inside the ventricle and blood to be expelled. As a result, force is dependent on how much calcium is bound to troponin. This is going to depend on the height and length of the [Ca2+]i increase. It will also rely on the degree of Ca binding, which can be modified genetically, is regulated by elements like phosphorylation, and could serve as the foundation for therapeutic approaches. However, the amount of intracellular Ca is the main variable that controls contraction. It's crucial to keep in mind that normal cardiac function necessitates that force and that [Ca2+]i relaxes fast to low enough levels so that the heart can refill with blood. This is in addition to concentrating on the elevation of [Ca2+]i during systole. As a result, it is imperative to strictly manage both diastolic and systolic [Ca2+]i; this regulation is the focus of the current paper.
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in an embryo with a complete deficiency of pyruvate kinase, how many net moles of atp are generated in the conversion of 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of pyruvate?
In embryos with a complete deficiency of pyruvate kinase, the net moles of ATP converted from 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of pyruvate is 0.
Pyruvate kinase is an enzyme involved in the last step of glycolysis that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), yielding one molecule of pyruvate and one molecule of ATP.
The 2 molecules formed are used for several chemical reactions that are endergonic. Thus, the total ATP produced in this reaction is 2 ATP.
Net ATP = 2 ATP produced - needed 2 ATP = net 0 ATP produced.
Thus the net ATP production will be zero. It is unlikely that the embryo will survive with a complete lack of this enzyme.
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Ligase catalyzes a reaction between the 5'-phosphate and the 3'-hydroxyl at the ends of DNA molecules. The enzyme calf intestinal phosphatase catalyzes the removal of the 5'-phosphate from DNA molecules.
What would be the consequence of treating the vector, before ligation, with calf intestinal phosphatase?
A) It would prevent the ends of the plasmids from being ligated.
B) It would prevent the plasmid's DNA from reversing polarity during ligation.
C) It would reverse the polarity of plasmids' DNA
D) It would ligate the ends of the plasmids.A) It would prevent the ends of the plasmids from being ligated.
Ligase catalyzes a reaction between the 5'-phosphate and the 3'-hydroxyl at the ends of DNA molecules. consequence of treating the vector, before ligation, with calf intestinal phosphatase would prevent the ends of the plasmids from being ligated.
Ligation is the fusion of two nucleic acid pieces by an enzyme in molecular biology. It is a crucial laboratory procedure in DNA cloning in which DNA fragments are joined to form recombinant DNA molecules (such as when a foreign DNA fragment is inserted into a plasmid). Phosphodiester bonds are formed between the 3'-hydroxyl of one DNA terminus and the 5'-phosphoryl of another to join the ends of DNA fragments. RNA can also be ligated in the same way. In most cases, a co-factor, such as ATP or NAD+, is involved in the reaction.
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Consider the types of mutations and the circumstances in which mutations arise to label the TRUE statements below. (Select all that apply.) 16 Check All That Apply a. All mutations are harmful to the organism's genome, b. Mutagens and meiosis are two sources of mutation c. A single-base insertion is usually more harmful than a single-base substitution d. Insertions, but not deletions, can change the codon reading frome. e. Mutations can be useful to the organism.
The reading of a codon can vary due to insertions but not due to deletions. The organism can benefit from mutations.
Environmental factors including UV light (sunlight), nuclear radiation, or specific chemicals can result in mutations. When a cell duplicates their DNA during replication is order to prepare for cell division, mutations can also take place. Environmental organism known as mutagens are what trigger mutations. The reading of a codon can vary due to insertions but not due to deletions. The organism can benefit from mutations.Mutations may occur naturally spontaneously. Errors with DNA replication during cellular division, exposure to mutagens, or viral infection can all cause mutations. Somatic mutations (which happen in body cells) cannot be passed on to children, but germline mutations (which happen in eggs and sperm) may.
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when bp increases and baroreceptors increase their firing rate, it causes the to be inhibited, which will ultimately cause of blood vessels which will lower bp
when bp increases and baroreceptors increase their firing rate, it causes the to be inhibited, baroreflex will ultimately cause of blood vessels which will lower bp
The baroreflex, also known as the baroreceptor reflex, is a homeostatic mechanism that helps to keep blood pressure at nearly constant levels. The baroreflex creates a rapid negative feedback loop in which increased blood pressure causes a decrease in heart rate. In response to high blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex eventually:
-reduces peripheral resistance through vasodilation and lowers TPR
-reduces cardiac output by decreasing contraction force (lowering stroke volume) via L-type Ca channel inhibition
-reduces heart rate by inhibiting funny current in the SA node ——all are mediated by a decrease in sympathetic firing, but HR is also mediated by an increase in parasympathetic activity.
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which property explains why a sponge laid on a puddle of water begins to soak it up? which property explains why a sponge laid on a puddle of water begins to soak it up? sublimation capillary action cohesive forces viscosity surface tension
Liquids rise or absorb through tiny holes and gaps in some materials, a process is known as capillary action or capillarity. Because they have pores and are permeable, paper towels allow both liquid and air to pass through their small spaces.
To help them stay above water, water striders rely on the water's high surface tension and their long, hydrophobic legs. With their specially adapted legs and evenly distributed weight, water striders take advantage of this surface tension.
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5. the phenotypic ratio for a monohybrid cross, a cross between parents that differ in only one character, for the f2 generation was found to be
The Phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents in the f2 offspring is 3:1.
Gregor John Mendel who is considered the father of genetics gave the phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross.Phenotypic ratio is the quantifiable relationship between phenotypes that shows how often the frequency of one phenotype equals the frequency of another phenotype.Two homozygous crossed plants considering that the progeny was heterozygous.He called this cross a monohybrid cross. The phenotypic ratio in the f2 offspring differs from the original ratio due to this incomplete inheritance process.This can be explained by the Punnett square.
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Root Words The root word of
the word codon is the word code.
Why does this root word make
sense?
Answer:
Explanation:
The reason why this root word makes sense is because the units used to code DNA are called codons. There is a unique protein for each codon used to compose the double helix of DNA.
What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped viruses?.
A membrane fusion reaction transports the viral genome across the virus's lipid bilayer and a cellular membrane in enveloped viruses. The viral genome is typically delivered along a cellular membrane by a pore formed by protein components of a viral capsid in nonenveloped viruses.
Non-enveloped viruses, including such coxsackieviruses, rotaviruses, and polioviruses, can survive on surfaces for long periods of time, whereas enveloped viruses, such as H1N1 and human coronaviruses, continue to stay infectious on surfaces for several days. The persistence of dried viruses is influenced by a variety of environmental conditions and factors including such heat, moisture, pH, and surface type.
A virus with an outer envelope or wrapping. This envelope is produced by the infected cell, or host, through a process known as "budding off." During the budding process, recently created virus particles are "enveloped," or wrapped in an outer coat composed of a small piece of a cell's plasma membrane. Influenza A (H1N1) is a single-stranded RNA enveloped virus with a diameter of 80-120 nm that belongs to the Orthomyxoviridae family.
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A taxon that includes a single common ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants is a _____ group.
A paraphyletic group is a taxon that includes a single common ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants.
A paraphyletic group collected from an accumulation of animals, containing the ultimate current low ancestor of all those structures. Unlike a monophyletic group, a paraphyletic taxon does not contain all the scion of the ultimate current accepted forebear.
A paraphyletic group involves a sole forebear and few allure descendants; it is comparable to a monophyletic group, but few scions are expelled. A taxon is a group of individuals or more peoples of a structure or animals visualized by taxonomists to form a whole. Although neither is necessary, a taxon is generally known by its name and likely the rating, exceptionally if and when it is sanctioned or enhanced settled.
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which photosystem is responsible for the production of atp and o2? which photosystem is responsible for the production of nadph?
Thus, in order to convert CO2 to carbohydrates, the Calvin cycle enzymes in the chloroplast stroma use both ATP and NADPH, which are created when electrons pass through photosystems I and II.
The photosystem is what?
The pigments needed to gather photons and use light energy to catalyse the basic photosynthetic endergonic reactions that result in high energy molecules are found in the two multi-protein complexes known as photosystem I and photosystem II.
Photosystem II activates chemiosmosis and ATP production in the chloroplast. The thylakoid membrane's electron transport chain receives electrons from the reduced pheophytin. Both in terms of structure and function, this ETC is similar to the mitochondrial ETC.
Light energy is used to catalyse the transfer of electrons from plastocyanin to ferredoxin across the thylakoid membrane by the essential membrane protein complex known as photosystem I. The electrons that Photosystem I transfers are ultimately used to produce the moderate-energy hydrogen carrier NADPH.
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select all that apply choose all that are characteristics of neural pools. multiple select question. they consist of complex patterns of interneurons. they may be concerned with a particular body function. they classify neurons based on shape. they consist of sensory neurons that synapse directly onto motor neurons.
The CNS's billions of neurons are organized in neural pools. Information received from receptors is processed by these functioning neuronal groups.
Specifications of neuronal pools:
consists of a large number of neurons.able to house both excitatory and inhibitory neurons.Other areas of the CNS may be stimulated or depressed depending on the output of the overall neuronal pool.Neuronal pools are how the CNS's billions of neurons are arranged. These functional clusters of neurons process information coming in from receptors or various neuronal pools before sending it on to other places. Contrary to diverging circuits, converging circuits direct input from numerous nerve fibers toward a single neuron or neuronal pool.
A brain region responsible for balance can get information from your eyes, inner ears, and stretch receptors in your neck thanks to such a configuration. A respiratory center in your brainstem receives information from various areas of your brain, from blood chemical receptors in your arteries, and from stretch receptors in your lungs through neuronal convergence.
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Please help! which statement best distinguishes between the function of genes and alleles? responses genes provide variation in traits, while alleles express traits.
A genes provide variation in traits, while alleles express traits.
B. alleles are responsible for variation in traits, while genes are responsible for the expression of traits.
C. alleles provide duplicate copies in case of mutation, while genes express all mutations
D. alleles provide duplicate copies in case of mutation, while genes express all mutations.
The statement (A) is correct. Genes provide variation in traits, while alleles express traits.
What are alleles?An allele is a variation of the same sequence of nucleotides at the same place on a long DNA molecule, as described in leading textbooks on genetics and evolution. "The chromosomal or genomic location of a gene or any other genetic element is called a locus and alternative DNA sequences at a locus are called alleles."
Moreover, an allele is one of two or more versions of DNA sequence (a single base or a segment of bases) at a given genomic location. An individual inherits two alleles, one from each parent, for any given genomic location where such variation exists.
Therefore, if the two alleles are the same, the individual is homozygous for that allele. The different versions of the genes are known as alleles. One is inherited from the father, and one from the mother.
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Answer:
The statement (A) is correct. Genes provide variation in traits, while alleles express traits.
until recently it was the widely accepted explanation of macroevolution. this model stated that small changes occur at a steady rate over many millions of years. this is the model of evolution.
Origins, diversifications, & extinctions are examples of macroevolutionary processes that occur on a large scale and require a long period, called geologic time.
Studying patterns just on tree of life just above species level is a part of macroevolution, as is determining the mechanisms that are probable to have caused these patterns. In order to provide a more full understanding of the evolutionary extinctions past of primates, macroevolutionary thinking is helpful. Origins, diversifications, & extinctions are examples of macroevolutionary processes that occur on a large scale and require a long period, called geologic time. It need historical evidence, such as fossils from hundreds of millions of years ago or slowly evolving genetic sequences, to comprehend such processes. Macroevolutionary is the term used to describe broad, long-term evolutionary changes.
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Variations of a specific gene, which code for slightly different proteins, are called.
An allele is a gene's variant form. Some genes exist in a variety of forms and are found at the same location on a chromosome, or genetic locus. Thus the correct option are Alleles.
Leading textbooks on genetics and evolution explain an allele modern formation, which is a variant of the same sequence of nucleotides at the same location on a lengthy DNA molecule.
The variant DNA sequences at a locus are known as alleles, and the chromosomal or genomic location of a gene or any other genetic element is referred to as a locus.
SNPs, or single nucleotide polymorphisms, are the most basic alleles (SNP).
however they can also involve base pair-sized insertions and deletions, up to thousands of them.
Typical popular definitions of "allele" only mention various alleles found within genes. For instance, the ABO gene, which has six common alleles, regulates the ABO blood grouping.
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what makes the visible light microspectrophotometer a useful tool with which to analyze fibers the pyrolysis products generated are used to chemically identify polymer type.
The main benefit of microspectrophotometers is the ability to measure features smaller than one micron in size by acquiring spectra from microscopic sample areas.
Microspectrophotometry's capacity to analyse optical spectra of samples with a spatial resolution on the micron scale is its principal benefit. Both tiny samples and bigger samples with micron-scale spatial resolution can have optical spectra collected. Microspectrophotometry is advantageous because it allows measurements to be taken without compromising the materials. This is crucial when working with stained or unstained histological or cytochemical biological sections, measuring film thickness in semiconductor integrated circuits, comparing paints and fibres (in forensic science), studying gems and coal (in geology), and analysing paint/ink/colors in paint chemistry or artwork.
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when systemic blood pressure increases, how does the kidney respond to maintain glomerular filtration rate
when systemic blood pressure increases, how does the kidney respond to maintain glomerular filtration rate, it will decrease the glomerular filtration rate.
What is blood pressure?
Your blood pushing up against the artery walls is what causes your blood pressure. Blood is pumped into the arteries by your heart with each heartbeat. When your heart is pumping blood through your body, your blood pressure is at its highest. Systolic pressure refers to this.
What is glomerular filtration rate?
The volume of glomerular filtrate produced in each nephron of both kidneys each minute is known as the glomerular filtration rate. Approximately 125 mL per minute in a healthy person.
A higher GFR will result from a higher blood volume and blood pressure. GFR will decrease if the efferent arterioles exiting the glomerulus expand and the afferent arterioles entering the glomerulus constrict. GFR will be reduced as a result of hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
Therefore, when systemic blood pressure increases, how does the kidney respond to maintain glomerular filtration rate, it will decrease the glomerular filtration rate.
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of nitrogen and phosphorus, which is the most limiting nutrient to primary production early in primary succession, and why?
Primary succession is the emergence of a new community in an ecosystem where there was no community at first. Primary succession is formed due to the disturbance of the old community causing the community to disappear from the place, then the new community inhabits the community. Disturbance of the old community could be due to a disaster or other natural phenomena that made it possible for the old community to not survive in that environment.
The primary production of an area is influenced by several factors such as physical, chemical, and biological factors. Some nutrients such as nitrate and phosphate greatly affect primary production as a source of nutrition for plants and animals. Phosphate is a form of the chemical element of phosphorus, because of that phosphorus is very influential in the primary production stage at the beginning of the primary succession because it is easily soluble and will provide nutrients to plants and animals.
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