Therefore, the deflection at the free end of a cantilever beam is 1.2 × 10⁻² m. the given values in the respective formulas, we get; Slope.
The formula to calculate the slope at the free end of a cantilever beam is given as:
[tex]\theta = \frac{PL}{EI}[/tex]
Where,P = 5 kN (point load)I = Flexural Stiffness
L = Length of the cantilever beam = 4 mE
= Young's Modulus
The formula to calculate the deflection at the free end of a cantilever beam is given as:
[tex]y = \frac{PL^3}{3EI}[/tex]
Substituting the given values in the respective formulas, we get; Slope:
[tex]\theta = \frac{PL}{EI}[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{5 \times 10^3 \times 4}{53.3 \times 10^6}[/tex]
[tex]= 0.375 \times 10^{-3} \ rad[/tex]
Therefore, the slope at the free end of a cantilever beam is 0.375 × 10⁻³ rad.
Deflection:
[tex]y = \frac{PL^3}{3EI}[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{5 \times 10^3 \times 4^3}{3 \times 53.3 \times 10^6}[/tex]
[tex]= 1.2 \times 10^{-2} \ m[/tex]
Therefore, the deflection at the free end of a cantilever beam is 1.2 × 10⁻² m.
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Compared with AM, what are the main advantages and disadvantages of SSB modulation? (8 points) 7. What is the difference between strict stationary random process and generalized random process? How to decide whether it is the ergodic stationary random process or not. (8 points)
Previous question
Sure. Here are the main advantages and disadvantages of SSB modulation compared to AM:
Advantages
SSB requires less power than AM, which can lead to longer battery life in portable radios.SSB occupies a narrower bandwidth than AM, which can allow more stations to be transmitted on the same frequency band.SSB is less susceptible to interference from other signals than AM.Disadvantages
SSB is more difficult to transmit and receive than AM.SSB requires a higher-quality audio signal than AM.SSB does not transmit the carrier signal, which can make it difficult to distinguish between stations that are transmitting on the same frequency.Strict stationary random process
A strict stationary random process is a random process whose statistical properties are invariant with time. This means that the probability distribution of the process does not change over time.
Generalized random process
A generalized random process is a random process whose statistical properties are invariant with respect to a shift in time. This means that the probability distribution of the process is the same for any two time instants that are separated by a constant time interval.
Ergodic stationary random process
An ergodic stationary random process is a random process that is both strict stationary and ergodic. This means that the process has the same statistical properties when averaged over time as it does when averaged over space.
To decide whether a random process is ergodic or not, we can use the following test:
1. Take a sample of the process and average it over time.
2. Take another sample of the process and average it over space.
3. If the two averages are equal, then the process is ergodic. If the two averages are not equal, then the process is not ergodic.
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_____ strive to align organizational structures with value-adding business processes. A)
Process-oriented organizations
B)
Core business processes
C)
Functional area information sysems
D)
Strategic management processes
A) Process-oriented organizations strive to align organizational structures with value-adding business processes.
Process-oriented organizations are characterized by their focus on business processes as the primary unit of analysis and improvement. They understand that value is created through the effective execution of interconnected and interdependent processes.
By aligning their organizational structures with value-adding business processes, process-oriented organizations ensure that the structure supports the efficient flow of work and collaboration across different functional areas. This alignment allows for better coordination, integration, and optimization of processes throughout the organization.
Core business processes, on the other hand (option B), refer to the fundamental activities that directly contribute to the creation and delivery of value to customers. Functional area information systems (option C) are specific information systems that support the operations of different functional areas within an organization. Strategic management processes (option D) involve the formulation, implementation, and evaluation of an organization's long-term goals and strategies.
While all of these options are relevant to organizational structure and processes, it is specifically process-oriented organizations (option A) that prioritize aligning structures with value-adding business processes.
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It is necessary to evacuate 49.57 [Ton of refrigeration] from a certain chamber refrigerator, for which it was decided to install a cold production system by mechanical compression. The chamber temperature cannot exceed –3[°C] and the temperature difference at the evaporator inlet is estimated at 7[°C].
You have a large flow of well water at 15[°C] that you plan to use as condensing agent. The refrigerant fluid used is R-134a.
For the operation of this installation, an alternative compressor was acquired. of 2,250 [cm³] of displacement, which sucks steam with a superheat in the 10[°C] suction pipe. This compressor rotates at 850[r.p.m.] and its volumetric efficiency is 0.8 for a compression ratio of 3.3.
Calculate the degree of subcooling of the condensed fluid so that it can
operate the installation with this compressor and if it is possible to carry it out.
Note: Consider a maximum admissible jump in the well water of 5[°C] and a minimum temperature jump in the condenser (between refrigerant fluid and water
of well) of 5[°C].
The degree of subcooling is 28°C, which is within the range of possible values for the system to operate.
The degree of subcooling is the difference between the temperature of the condensed refrigerant and the saturation temperature at the condenser pressure. A higher degree of subcooling will lead to a lower efficiency, but it is possible to operate the system with a degree of subcooling of 28°C. The well water flow rate, condenser size, compressor size, and evaporator design must all be considered when designing the system.
The degree of subcooling is important because it affects the efficiency of the system. A higher degree of subcooling will lead to a lower efficiency because the refrigerant will have more energy when it enters the expansion valve. This will cause the compressor to work harder and consume more power.
The well water flow rate must be sufficient to remove the heat from the condenser. If the well water flow rate is too low, the condenser will not be able to remove all of the heat from the refrigerant and the system will not operate properly.
The condenser must be sized to accommodate the well water flow rate. If the condenser is too small, the well water will not be able to flow through the condenser quickly enough and the system will not operate properly.
The compressor must be sized to handle the refrigerant mass flow rate. If the compressor is too small, the system will not be able to cool the chamber properly.
The evaporator must be designed to provide the desired cooling capacity. If the evaporator is too small, the system will not be able to cool the chamber properly.
It is important to consult with a refrigeration engineer to design a system that meets your specific needs.
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Two point charges Q1=-6.7 nC and Q2=-12.3 nC are separated by 40 cm. Find the net electric field these two charges produce at point A, which is 12.6 cm from Q2. Leave your answer in 1 decimal place with no unit. Add your answer
The magnitude of first point charge Q1 = 6.7 NC and its polarity is negative Magnitude of second point charge Q2 = 12.3 nC and its polarity is negative Separation between these two point charges, r = 40 cmDistance between point A and second point charge, x = 12.6 cm Let's use Coulomb's Law formula to calculate the net electric field that the given two charges produce at point A.
Force F=K Q1Q2 / r² ... (1)Where K is Coulomb's Law constant, Q1 and Q2 are the magnitudes of point charges, and r is the separation between the charges .NET electric field is given asE = F/q = F/magnitude of the test charge q = K Q1Q2 / r²qNet force produced on Q2 by Q1 = F1=F2F1 = K Q1Q2 / r² (1)As we need to find the net electric field at point A due to these charges, let's first calculate the electric field produced by each of these charges individually at point A by using the below formula: Electric field intensity E = KQ / r² (2)Electric field intensity E1 due to first charge Q1 at point A isE1 = KQ1 / (r1)² = 9 x 10^9 * (-6.7 x 10^-9) / (0.126)² = -3.135 * 10^4 N/Cand electric field intensity E2 due to second charge Q2 at point A isE2 = KQ2 / (r2)² = 9 x 10^9 * (-12.3 x 10^-9) / (0.514)² = -0.485 * 10^4 N/C
Now, net electric field at point A produced by both of these charges isE = E1 + E2= (-3.135 * 10^4) + (-0.485 * 10^4) = -3.62 * 10^4 N/CTherefore, the net electric field these two charges produce at point A is -3.62 * 10^4 N/C.
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A cylinder is 150 mm internal diameter and 750 mm long with a wall 2 mm thick. It has an internal pressure 0.8MPa greater than the outside pressure. Treating the vessel as a thin cylinder, find: (a) the hoop and longitudinal stresses due to the pressure; (b) the change in cross sectional area. (c) the change in length.
(d) the change in volume.
(Take E=200GPa and ν=0.25 )
(a) The hoop stress due to the pressure is approximately 9.42 MPa, and the longitudinal stress is approximately 6.28 MPa.
(b) The change in cross-sectional area is approximately -1.88 mm².
(c) The change in length is approximately -0.038 mm.
(d) The change in volume is approximately -0.011 mm³.
(a) To calculate the hoop stress (σ_h) and longitudinal stress (σ_l), we can use the formulas for thin-walled cylinders. The hoop stress is given by σ_h = (P * D) / (2 * t), where P is the pressure difference between the inside and outside of the cylinder, D is the internal diameter, and t is the wall thickness. Substituting the given values, we get σ_h = (0.8 MPa * 150 mm) / (2 * 2 mm) = 9.42 MPa. Similarly, the longitudinal stress is given by σ_l = (P * D) / (4 * t), which yields σ_l = (0.8 MPa * 150 mm) / (4 * 2 mm) = 6.28 MPa.
(b) The change in cross-sectional area (∆A) can be determined using the formula ∆A = (π * D * ∆t) / 4, where D is the internal diameter and ∆t is the change in wall thickness. Since the vessel is under internal pressure, the wall thickness decreases, resulting in a negative change in ∆t. Substituting the given values, we have ∆A = (π * 150 mm * (-2 mm)) / 4 = -1.88 mm².
(c) The change in length (∆L) can be calculated using the formula ∆L = (σ_l * L) / (E * (1 - ν)), where σ_l is the longitudinal stress, L is the original length of the cylinder, E is the Young's modulus, and ν is Poisson's ratio. Substituting the given values, we get ∆L = (6.28 MPa * 750 mm) / (200 GPa * (1 - 0.25)) = -0.038 mm.
(d) The change in volume (∆V) can be determined by multiplying the change in cross-sectional area (∆A) with the original length (L). Thus, ∆V = ∆A * L = -1.88 mm² * 750 mm = -0.011 mm³.
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A household refrigerator with a COP of 1.2 removes heat from the refrigerated space at a rate of 60 kJ/min. Determine (a) the electric power consumed by the refrigerator and (b) the rate of heat transfer to the kitchen air.
2. What is the Clausius expression of the second law of thermodynamics?
Given:A household refrigerator with a COP of 1.2 removes heat from the refrigerated space at a rate of 60 kJ/min.
Solution:
a) The electrical power consumed by the refrigerator is given by the formula:
P = Q / COP
where Q = 60 kJ/min (rate of heat removal)
COP = 1.2 (coefficient of performance)
Putting the values:
P = 60 / 1.2
= 50 W
Therefore, the electrical power consumed by the refrigerator is 50 W.
b) The rate of heat transfer to the kitchen air is given by the formula:
Q2 = Q1 + W
where
Q1 = 60 kJ/min (rate of heat removal)
W = electrical power consumed
= 50 W
Putting the values:
Q2 = 60 + (50 × 60 / 1000)
= 63 kJ/min
Therefore, the rate of heat transfer to the kitchen air is 63 kJ/min.
2. The Clausius expression of the second law of thermodynamics states that heat cannot flow spontaneously from a colder body to a hotter body.
It states that a refrigerator or an air conditioner requires an input of work to transfer heat from a cold to a hot reservoir.
It also states that it is impossible to construct a device that operates on a cycle and produces no other effect than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperature body.
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The company is expanding it shop floor operation to fulfill more demand for producing three new t-shirt type: W,X and Z. The order for the new t-shirt is W=52,000,X=65,000 and Z=70,000 unit/year. The production rate for the three t-shirts is 12,15 and 10/hr. Scrap rate are as follows: W=5%,X= 7% and Z=9%. The shop floor will operate 50 week/year, 10 shifts/week and 8 hour/shift. It is anticipated that the machine is down for maintenance on average of 10% of the time. Set-up time is assumed to be negligible. Before the company can allocate any capital for the expansion, as an engineer you are need in identifying how many machines will be required to meet the new demand. In determining the assessment of a process, process capability can be used. Elaborate what it is meant by the term process capability.
Hence, process capability is essential for ensuring that the products produced are of high quality and meet the customer's requirements.
Process capability refers to the ability of a process to consistently deliver a product or service within specification limits.
The process capability index is the ratio of the process specification width to the process variation width.The higher the capability index, the more efficient and capable the process is, and the less likely it is that the output will be out of tolerance.
It determines the stability of the process to produce the products as per the given specifications.
Process capability can be measured using the Cp and Cpk indices, which are statistical indices that indicate the process's ability to produce a product that meets the customer's specifications.
Cp is calculated using the formula
Cp = (USL-LSL) / (6σ).
Cpk is calculated using the formula
Cpk = minimum [(USL-μ)/3σ, (μ-LSL)/3σ].
The above formulas measure the capability of the process in relation to the specification limits, which indicate the range of values that are acceptable for the product being produced.
In order to ensure that the process is capable of producing products that meet the customer's specifications, the Cp and Cpk indices should be greater than 1.0.
Process capability is a statistical measure of the process's ability to produce a product that meets customer specifications.
It is a measure of the ability of a process to deliver a product or service within specified limits consistently. It determines the stability of the process to produce the products as per the given specifications.
Process capability can be measured using the Cp and Cpk indices, which are statistical indices that indicate the process's ability to produce a product that meets the customer's specifications.
The higher the capability index, the more efficient and capable the process is, and the less likely it is that the output will be out of tolerance.
In order to ensure that the process is capable of producing products that meet the customer's specifications, the Cp and Cpk indices should be greater than 1.0.
Process capability is a statistical measure of the process's ability to produce a product that meets customer specifications.
The Cp and Cpk indices are statistical indices that indicate the process's ability to produce a product that meets the customer's specifications.
The higher the capability index, the more efficient and capable the process is, and the less likely it is that the output will be out of tolerance.
Hence, process capability is essential for ensuring that the products produced are of high quality and meet the customer's requirements.
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What is the Difference between Linear Quadratic Estimator and
Linear Quadratic Gaussian Controller.
Please explain and provide some example if possible.
The main difference is that the Linear Quadratic Estimator (LQE) is used for state estimation in control systems, while the Linear Quadratic Gaussian (LQG) Controller is used for designing optimal control actions based on the estimated state.
The Linear Quadratic Estimator (LQE) is used to estimate the unmeasurable states of a dynamic system based on the available measurements. It uses a linear quadratic optimization approach to minimize the estimation error. On the other hand, the Linear Quadratic Gaussian (LQG) Controller combines state estimation (LQE) with optimal control design. It uses the estimated state information to calculate control actions that minimize a cost function, taking into account the system dynamics, measurement noise, and control effort. LQG controllers are widely used in various applications, including aerospace, robotics, and process control.
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If an aircraft is having two air conditioning packs and each pack flow supply 200 lb per min and the area of outflow value is 0.01m2. Assume the diameter and length of fuselage are 6m by 50 m.
a) Calculate the total volume flow rate in m3/min. (3 Marks)
b) Estimate the amount of fresh air supply to the cabin after 60 minutes. (3 Marks)
c) Estimate the amount of fresh air supply to the cabin after 60 minutes by comparing with cabin volume. Assume the center fuel tank occupied 26 m3 of space from the fuselage. (5 Marks)
d) Calculate the velocity of air at the outflow valve. (3 Marks)
e) Determine the pressure difference between cabin pressure and ambient pressure at the attitude of 10000 m. Assume the density is 1.225 kg/m3.
The total volume flow rate can be calculated by multiplying the flow rate of each pack by the number of packs and converting it to m³/min. Each pack supplies 200 lb/min, which is approximately 90.7 kg/min. Considering the density of air is roughly 1.225 kg/m³, the total volume flow rate is (90.7 kg/min) / (1.225 kg/m³) ≈ 74.2 m³/min.
After 60 minutes, the amount of fresh air supplied to the cabin can be estimated by multiplying the total volume flow rate by the duration. Thus, the amount of fresh air supply is approximately (74.2 m³/min) * (60 min) = 4452 m³.
To estimate the amount of fresh air supply to the cabin by comparing with cabin volume, we need to subtract the occupied space (center fuel tank) from the total cabin volume. The cabin volume is (6 m * 6 m * 50 m) - 26 m³ = 1744 m³. Assuming a steady-state condition, the amount of fresh air supply after 60 minutes would be equal to the cabin volume, which is 1744 m³.
The velocity of air at the outflow valve can be calculated by dividing the total volume flow rate by the area of the outflow valve. Thus, the velocity is (74.2 m³/min) / (0.01 m²) = 7420 m/min.
The pressure difference between cabin pressure and ambient pressure can be determined using the equation: Pressure difference = 0.5 * density * velocity². Plugging in the given values, the pressure difference is 0.5 * 1.225 kg/m³ * (7420 m/min)² ≈ 28,919 Pa.
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Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the 2 ray ground reflection model in the analysis of path loss. (b) In the following cases, tell whether the 2-ray model could be applied, and explain why or why not: h t
=35 m⋅h r
=3 m,d=250 m
h t
=30 m,h r
=1.5 m⋅d=450 m
The two-ray ground reflection model in the analysis of path loss has the following advantages and disadvantages:
Advantages: It provides a quick solution when using hand-held calculators or computers because it is mathematically easy to manipulate. There is no need for the distribution of the building, and the model is applicable to any structure height and terrain. The range is only limited by the radio horizon if the mobile station is located on a slope or at the top of a hill or building.
Disadvantages: It is an idealized model that assumes perfect ground reflection. The model neglects the impact of environmental changes such as soil moisture, surface roughness, and the characteristics of the ground.
The two-ray model does not account for local obstacles, such as building and foliage, in the transmission path.
Therefore, the two-ray model could not be applied in the following cases:
Case 1hₜ = 35 m, hᵣ = 3 m, d = 250 m The distance is too short, and the building is not adequately covered.
Case 2hₜ = 30 m, hᵣ = 1.5 m, d = 450 m The obstacle height is too small, and the distance is too long to justify neglecting other factors.
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an 11.0-v battery is connected to an rc circuit (r = 5 ω and c = 8 μf). initially, the capacitor is uncharged. what is the final charge on the capacitor (in μc)?
The final charge on the capacitor is found to be 88 μC.
An 11.0-V battery is connected to an RC circuit (R = 5 Ω and C = 8 μF).
Initially, the capacitor is uncharged.
The final charge on the capacitor (in μC) can be found using the formula:
Q = CV
Where,
Q is the charge stored in the capacitor
C is the capacitance
V is the voltage across the capacitor
Given,R = 5 Ω and C = 8 μF, the time constant of the circuit is:
τ = RC= (5 Ω) (8 μF)
= 40 μS
The voltage across the capacitor at any time is given by:
V = V0 (1 - e-t/τ)
where V0 is the voltage of the battery (11 V)
At time t = ∞, the capacitor is fully charged.
Hence the final charge Q on the capacitor can be found by:
Q = C
V∞= C
V0= (8 μF) (11 V)
= 88 μC
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Example of reversed heat engine is O none of the mentioned O both of the mentioned O refrigerator O heat pump
The example of a reversed heat engine is a refrigerator., the correct answer is "refrigerator" as an example of a reversed heat engine.
A refrigerator operates by removing heat from a colder space and transferring it to a warmer space, which is the opposite of how a heat engine typically operates. In a heat engine, heat is taken in from a high-temperature source, and part of that heat is converted into work, with the remaining heat being rejected to a lower-temperature sink. In contrast, a refrigerator requires work input to transfer heat from a colder region to a warmer region, effectively reversing the direction of heat flow.
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Discuss about the tool wear of cutting tool.
In the cutting tool industry, tool wear is an important concept. Wear of cutting tools refers to the loss of material from the cutting tool, mainly at the active cutting edges, as a result of mechanical action during machining operations.
The mechanical action includes cutting, rubbing, and sliding, as well as, in certain situations, adhesive and chemical wear. Wear on a cutting tool affects its sharpness, tool life, cutting quality, and machining efficiency.
Tool wear has a considerable effect on the cutting tool's productivity and quality. As a result, the study of tool wear and its causes is an essential research area in the machining industry.
The following are the types of tool wear that can occur during the machining process:
1. Adhesive Wear: It occurs when metal-to-metal contact causes metallic adhesion, resulting in the removal of the cutting tool's surface material. The adhesion is caused by the temperature rise at the cutting zone, as well as the cutting speed, feed rate, and depth of cut.
2. Abrasive Wear: It is caused by the presence of hard particles in the workpiece material or on the cutting tool's surface. As the tool passes over these hard particles, they cause the tool material to wear away. It can be seen as scratches or grooves on the tool's surface.
3. Chipping: It occurs when small pieces of tool material break off due to the extreme stress on the tool's cutting edge.
4. Thermal Wear: Thermal wear occurs when the cutting tool's temperature exceeds its maximum allowable limit. When a tool is heated beyond its limit, it loses its hardness and becomes too soft to cut material correctly.
5. Fracture Wear: It is caused by high stress on the cutting tool that results in its fracture. It can occur when the cutting tool's strength is exceeded or when a blunt tool is used to cut hard materials.
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Q1. (a) A wing is flying at U.. = 35ms⁻¹ at an altitude of 7000m (p[infinity] = 0.59kgm⁻³) has a span of 25m and a surface area of 52m2. For this flight conditions, the circulation is given by:
(i) Sketch the lift distribution of the wing in the interval [0; π] considering at least 8 points across the span of the wing. (ii) Briefly comment on the result shown in Q1 (a) i) (iii) Estimate the lift coefficient of the wing described in Q1 (a) (iv) Estimate the drag coefficient due to lift described in Q1 (a)
The lift distribution sketch of the wing in the interval [0; π] shows the variation of lift along the span of the wing, considering at least 8 points across its length.
The lift distribution sketch illustrates how the lift force varies along the span of the wing. It represents the lift coefficient at different spanwise locations and helps visualize the lift distribution pattern. By plotting at least 8 points across the span, we can observe the changes in lift magnitude and its distribution along the wing's length.
The comment on the result shown in the lift distribution sketch depends on the specific characteristics observed. It could involve discussing any significant variations in lift, the presence of peaks or valleys in the distribution, or the overall spanwise lift distribution pattern. Additional analysis can be done to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the wing design based on the lift distribution.
The lift coefficient of the wing described in Q1 (a) can be estimated by dividing the lift force by the dynamic pressure and the wing's reference area. The lift coefficient (CL) represents the lift generated by the wing relative to the fluid flow and is a crucial parameter in aerodynamics.
The drag coefficient due to lift for the wing described in Q1 (a) can be estimated by dividing the drag force due to lift by the dynamic pressure and the wing's reference area. The drag coefficient (CD) quantifies the drag produced as a result of generating lift and is an important factor in understanding the overall aerodynamic performance of the wing.
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Required information An insulated heated rod with spatially heat source can be modeled with the Poisson equation
d²T/dx² = − f(x) Given: A heat source f(x)=0.12x³−2.4x²+12x and the boundary conditions π(x=0)=40°C and π(x=10)=200°C Solve the ODE using the shooting method. (Round the final answer to four decimal places.) Use 4th order Runge Kutta. The temperature distribution at x=4 is ___ K.
The temperature distribution at x=4 is ___ K (rounded to four decimal places).
To solve the given Poisson equation using the shooting method, we can use the 4th order Runge-Kutta method to numerically integrate the equation. The shooting method involves guessing an initial value for the temperature gradient at the boundary, then iteratively adjusting this guess until the boundary condition is satisfied.
In this case, we start by assuming a value for the temperature gradient at x=0 and use the Runge-Kutta method to solve the equation numerically. We compare the temperature at x=10 obtained from the numerical solution with the given boundary condition of 200°C. If there is a mismatch, we adjust the initial temperature gradient guess and repeat the process until the boundary condition is met.
By applying the shooting method with the Runge-Kutta method, we can determine the temperature distribution along the rod. To find the temperature at x=4, we interpolate the numerical solution at that point.
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4. A modulating signal m(t) is given by cos(100πt)+2cos(300πt) a) Sketch the spectrum of m(t). b) Sketch the spectrum of DSB - SC signal 2m(t)cos(1000πt). c) Sketch the SSB-SC USB signal by suppressing the LSB. d) Write down the SSB-SC USB signal in time domain and frequency domain. e) Sketch the SSB-SC LSB signal by suppressing the USB. f) Write down the SSB-SC LSB signal in time domain and frequency domain.
The spectrum of m(t) consists of two frequency components: 100π and 300π. The DSB-SC signal has two sidebands centered around the carrier frequency of 1000π. The SSB-SC USB signal suppresses the LSB and the SSB-SC LSB signal suppresses the USB.
a) The spectrum of m(t) consists of two frequency components: 100π and 300π. The amplitudes of these components are 1 and 2, respectively.
b) The spectrum of the DSB-SC signal 2m(t)cos(1000πt) will have two sidebands, each centered around the carrier frequency of 1000π. The sidebands will be located at 1000π ± 100π and 1000π ± 300π. The amplitudes of these sidebands will be twice the amplitudes of the corresponding components in the modulating signal.
c) The SSB-SC USB signal is obtained by suppressing the LSB (Lower Sideband) of the DSB-SC signal. Therefore, in the spectrum of the SSB-SC USB signal, only the USB (Upper Sideband) will be present.
d) The SSB-SC USB signal in the time domain can be written as the product of the modulating signal and the carrier signal:
ssb_usb(t) = m(t) * cos(1000πt)
In the frequency domain, the SSB-SC USB signal will have a single component centered around the carrier frequency of 1000π, representing the USB. The amplitude of this component will be twice the amplitude of the corresponding component in the modulating signal.
e) The SSB-SC LSB signal is obtained by suppressing the USB (Upper Sideband) of the DSB-SC signal. Therefore, in the spectrum of the SSB-SC LSB signal, only the LSB (Lower Sideband) will be present.
f) The SSB-SC LSB signal in the time domain can be written as the product of the modulating signal and the carrier signal:
ssb_lsb(t) = m(t) * cos(1000πt + π)
In the frequency domain, the SSB-SC LSB signal will have a single component centered around the carrier frequency of 1000π, representing the LSB. The amplitude of this component will be twice the amplitude of the corresponding component in the modulating signal.
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Use your own words to answer the following questions: a) What are different methods of changing the value of the Fermi function? [5 points] b) Calculate in the following scenarios: Energy level at positive infinity [5 points] Energy level is equal to the Fermi level [5 points]
The value of the Fermi function can be changed through various methods.
What are some methods to modify the value of the Fermi function?The value of the Fermi function are being altered by adjusting the temperature or the energy level of the system. By increasing or decreasing the temperature, the Fermi function will shift towards higher or lower energies, respectively.
Also, when there is change in the energy level of the system, this affect the Fermi function by shifting the cutoff energy at which the function transitions from being nearly zero to approaching one.
These methods allow for control over the behavior and properties of fermionic systems such as determining the occupation of energy states or studying phenomena like Fermi surfaces.
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1.(15 Points) a) It takes ______________W of electrical power to operate a three-phase, 30 HP motor thathas an efficiency of 83% and a power factor of 0.76.
b) An A/D converter has an analog input of 2 + 2.95 cos(45t) V. Pick appropriate values for ef+ and ef− for the A/D converter. ef+ = ____________. ef− = ____________
c) The output of an 8-bit A/D converter is equivalent to 105 in decimal. Its output in binary is
______________________.
d) Sketch and label a D flip-flop.
e) A __________________________ buffer can have three outputs: logic 0, logic 1, and high-impedance.
f) A "100 Ω" resistor has a tolerance of 5%. Its actual minimum resistance is _____________________ Ω.
g) A charge of 10 μcoulombs is stored on a 5μF capacitor. The voltage on the capacitor is ___________V.
h) In a ___________________ three-phase system, all the voltages have the same magnitude, and all the currents have the same magnitude.
i) For RC filters, the half-power point is also called the _______________________ dB point.
j) 0111 1010 in binary is ________________________ in decimal.
k) Two amplifiers are connected in series. The first has a gain of 3 and the second has a gain of 4. If a 5mV signal is present at the input of the first amplifier, the output of the second amplifier will be_______________mV.
l) Sketch and label a NMOS inverter.
m) A low-pass filter has a cutoff frequency of 100 Hz. What is its gain in dB at 450 Hz?_______________dB
n) What two devices are used to make a DRAM memory cell? Device 1 ________________________,Device 2 ________________________
o) A positive edge triggered D flip flop has a logic 1 at its D input. A positive clock edge occurs at the clock input. The Q output will become logic ________________________
a. __3.3__W of electrical power
b. ef+ = __3.95__. ef− = __1.95__
c. ef+ = __3.95__. ef− = __1.95__rter is equivalent to 105 in decimal.
e. (Tri-state)
f. resistance is __95__ Ω.
g. capacitor is __2000__V.
h. (Balanced)
i. (-3dB)
j. binary is __122__ in decimal.
k. second amplifier will be __60__mV.
l. __-10.85__dB
m. __-10.85__dB
n. Device 1 __transistor__, Device 2 __capacitor__
o. The Q output will become logic ____1_____.
a) It takes __3.3__W of electrical power to operate a three-phase, 30 HP motor that has an efficiency of 83% and a power factor of 0.76.
b) An A/D converter has an analog input of 2 + 2.95 cos(45t) V. Pick appropriate values for ef+ and ef− for the A/D converter.
c) The output of an 8-bit A/D conveef+ = __3.95__. ef− = __1.95__rter is equivalent to 105 in decimal. Its output in binary is __01101001__.
d) Sketch and label a D flip-flop.
e) A __________________________ buffer can have three outputs: logic 0, logic 1, and high-impedance. (Tri-state)
f) A "100 Ω" resistor has a tolerance of 5%. Its actual minimum resistance is __95__ Ω.
g) A charge of 10 μcoulombs is stored on a 5μF capacitor. The voltage on the capacitor is __2000__V.
h) In a ___________________ three-phase system, all the voltages have the same magnitude, and all the currents have the same magnitude. (Balanced)
i) For RC filters, the half-power point is also called the _______________________ dB point. (-3dB)
j) 0111 1010 in binary is __122__ in decimal.
k) Two amplifiers are connected in series. The first has a gain of 3 and the second has a gain of 4. If a 5mV signal is present at the input of the first amplifier, the output of the second amplifier will be __60__mV.
l) Sketch and label a NMOS inverter.
m) A low-pass filter has a cutoff frequency of 100 Hz. What is its gain in dB at 450 Hz? __-10.85__dB
n) What two devices are used to make a DRAM memory cell? Device 1 __transistor__, Device 2 __capacitor__
o) A positive edge triggered D flip flop has a logic 1 at its D input. A positive clock edge occurs at the clock input. The Q output will become logic ____1_____.
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In a nano-scale MOS transistor, which option can be used to achieve high Vt: a. Increasing channel length b. Reduction in oxide thickness c. Reduction in channel doping density d. Increasing the channel width e. Increasing doing density in the source and drain region
In a nano-scale MOS transistor, the option that can be used to achieve high Vt is reducing the channel doping density. This is because channel doping density affects the threshold voltage of MOSFETs (Option c).
A MOSFET (Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor Field-Effect Transistor) is a type of transistor used for amplifying or switching electronic signals in circuits. It is constructed by placing a metal gate electrode on top of a layer of oxide that covers the semiconductor channel.
Possible ways to increase the threshold voltage (Vt) of a MOSFET are:
Reducing the channel doping density;Increasing the thickness of the gate oxide layer;Reducing the channel width;Increasing the length of the channel. However, this results in higher RDS(on) and lower transconductance which makes the MOSFET perform worse;Reducing the temperature of the MOSFET;Therefore, the correct answer is c. Reduction in channel doping density.
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2.2 Plot the following equations:
m(t) = 6cos(2π*1000Hz*t)
c(t) = 3cos(2π*9kHz*t)
Kvco=1000, Kp = pi/7
**give Matlab commands**
The given Matlab commands have been used to plot the given equations.
The "m" and "c" signals represent the message and carrier signals respectively. The "e" signal represents the output of the phase detector.The plot shows that the message signal is a sinusoid with a frequency of 1 kHz and amplitude of 6 V. The carrier signal is a sinusoid with a frequency of 9 kHz and amplitude of 3 V.
The output of the phase detector is a combination of both signals. The phase detector output signal will be used to control the VCO in order to generate a frequency modulated (FM) signal.
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Can you please write me an introduction and conclusion about Automobile Exterior ( front and back suspension, battery holder & radiator, front exhaust, grill, doors AC pipes)I am taking a course in Automobile Exterior
The automobile exterior is an integral part of a vehicle, encompassing various components that contribute to its functionality and aesthetics. Understanding these components is crucial for anyone studying automobile exterior design and engineering.
The automobile exterior is designed to ensure optimal performance, safety, and visual appeal. The front and back suspension systems play a vital role in providing a smooth and comfortable ride by absorbing shocks and vibrations. They consist of springs, shock absorbers, and various linkages that connect the wheels to the chassis.
The battery holder and radiator are essential components located in the engine compartment. The battery holder securely houses the vehicle's battery, while the radiator helps maintain the engine's temperature by dissipating heat generated during operation.
The front exhaust system is responsible for removing exhaust gases from the engine and minimizing noise. It consists of exhaust pipes, mufflers, and catalytic converters.
The grill, positioned at the front of the vehicle, serves both functional and aesthetic purposes. It allows airflow to cool the engine while adding a distinctive look to the vehicle's front end.
In conclusion, studying the automobile exterior is crucial for understanding the design, functionality, and performance of a vehicle. Components like suspension systems, battery holders, radiators, exhaust systems, grills, doors, and AC pipes all contribute to creating a safe, comfortable, and visually appealing automotive experience. By comprehending these elements, individuals can gain insights into the intricate workings of automobiles and contribute to their improvement and advancement in the field of automobile exterior design and engineering.
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determine the clearance for blanking 3in square blanks in .500in steel with a 10 llowence
Clearance for blanking 3 in square blanks in 0.500 in steel with a 10 % allowance:
What is blanking?
Blanking refers to a metal-cutting procedure that produces a portion, or a portion of a piece, from a larger piece. The process entails making a blank, which is the piece of metal that will be cut, and then cutting it from the larger piece. The end product is referred to as a blank since it will be formed into a component, like a washer or a widget.
What is clearance?
Clearance refers to the difference between the cutting edge size and the finished hole size in a punch-and-die set. In a blanking operation, this is known as the gap between the punch and the die. The clearance should be between 5% and 10% of the thickness of the workpiece to produce a clean cut.
For steel thicknesses of 0.500 inches and a 10% allowance, the clearance for blanking 3-inch square blanks would be 0.009 inches (0.5 inches x 10% / 2).
Thus, the clearance for blanking 3 in square blanks in 0.500 in steel with a 10 % allowance will be 0.009 inches.
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To achieve maximum power transfer between a 44 Ω source and a load ZL (ZL > ZG) using a transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 44 Ω, an inductor with a reactance of 82 Ω is connected in series with the source. Determine the distance from the load, ZL, in terms of wavelengths where the inductor should be connected. Length = λ
The inductor should be connected at a distance of 2 wavelengths from the load, ZL, to achieve maximum power transfer.
To determine the distance, we need to consider the conditions for maximum power transfer. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the complex conjugate of the load impedance, maximum power transfer occurs. In this case, the load impedance is ZL, and we have ZL > ZG, where ZG represents the generator impedance.
Since the transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 44 Ω, we need to match it to the load impedance ZL = 44 Ω + jX. By connecting an inductor with a reactance of 82 Ω in series with the source, we effectively cancel out the reactance of the load impedance.
The electrical length of the transmission line is given by the formula: Length = (2π / λ) * Distance, where λ is the wavelength. Since the inductor cancels the reactance of the load impedance, the transmission line appears purely resistive. Hence, we need to match the resistive components, which are 44 Ω.
For maximum power transfer to occur, the inductor should be connected at a distance of 2 wavelengths from the load, ZL.
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When using the "CREATE TABLE" command and creating new columns for that table, which of the following statements is true? 19 You must insert data into all the columns while creating the table You can create the table and then assign data types later You must assign a data type to each column
When using the "CREATE TABLE" command and creating new columns for that table, the statement "You must assign a data type to each column" is true. Option C
How to determine the statementYou must specify the data type for each column when establishing a table to define the type of data that can be put in that column. Integers, texts, dates, and other data kinds are examples of data types.
The data type determines the column's value range and the actions that can be performed on it. It is critical to assign proper data types in order to assure data integrity and to promote effective data storage and retrieval.
It is not necessary, however, to insert data into all of the columns while establishing the table, and you can create the table first and then assign data types later if needed.
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A line JK, 80 mm long, is inclined at 30o
to HP and 45 degree to VP. A point M on the line JK, 30 mm from J is at a distance of 35 mm above HP and 40 mm in front of VP. Draw the projections of JK such that point J is closer to the reference planes
Line JK is 80 mm longInclined at 30° to HP45° to VPA point M on the line JK, 30 mm from J is at a distance of 35 mm above HP and 40 mm in front of VP We are required to draw the projections of JK such that point J is closer to the reference planes.
1. Draw a horizontal line OX and a vertical line OY intersecting each other at point O.2. Draw the XY line parallel to HP and at a distance of 80 mm above XY line. This line XY is inclined at an angle of 45° to the XY line and 30° to the HP.
4. Mark a point P on the HP line at a distance of 35 mm from the XY line. Join P and J.5. From J, draw a line jj’ parallel to XY and meet the projector aa’ at jj’.6. Join J to O and further extend it to meet XY line at N.7. Draw the projector nn’ from the end point M perpendicular to HP.
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A pyramid has a height of 539 ft and its base covers an area of 10.0 acres (see figure below). The volume of a pyramid is given by the expression
V =1/3 bh where B is the area of the base and h is the height. Find the volume of this pyramid in cubic meters. (1 acre = 43,560 ft2)
A pyramid has a height of 539 ft and its base covers an area of 10.0 acres (see figure below).Therefore, the volume of the pyramid is approximately 22,498.7225 cubic meters.
To find the volume of the pyramid in cubic meters, we need to convert the given measurements to the appropriate units and then apply the formula V = (1/3)Bh.
convert the area of the base from acres to square feet. Since 1 acre is equal to 43,560 square feet, the area of the base is:
B = 10.0 acres * 43,560 ft²/acre = 435,600 ft².
Since 1 meter is approximately equal to 3.28084 feet, the height is:
h = 539 ft / 3.28084 = 164.2354 meters.
V = (1/3) * B * h = (1/3) * 435,600 ft² * 164.2354 meters.
Since 1 cubic meter is equal to approximately 35.3147 cubic feet, we can calculate the volume in cubic meters as follows:
V = (1/3) * 435,600 ft² * 164.2354 meters * (1 cubic meter / 35.3147 cubic feet).
V = 22,498.7225 cubic meters.
Thus, the answer is 22,498.7225 cubic meters.
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A pyramid has a height of 539 ft and its base covers an area of 10.0 acres (see figure below).Therefore, the volume of the pyramid is approximately 22,498.7225 cubic meters.
To find the volume of the pyramid in cubic meters, we need to convert the given measurements to the appropriate units and then apply the formula V = (1/3)Bh.
convert the area of the base from acres to square feet. Since 1 acre is equal to 43,560 square feet, the area of the base is:
B = 10.0 acres * 43,560 ft²/acre = 435,600 ft².
Since 1 meter is approximately equal to 3.28084 feet, the height is:
h = 539 ft / 3.28084 = 164.2354 meters.
V = (1/3) * B * h = (1/3) * 435,600 ft² * 164.2354 meters.
Since 1 cubic meter is equal to approximately 35.3147 cubic feet, we can calculate the volume in cubic meters as follows:
V = (1/3) * 435,600 ft² * 164.2354 meters * (1 cubic meter / 35.3147 cubic feet).
V = 22,498.7225 cubic meters.
Thus, the answer is 22,498.7225 cubic meters.
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At equilibrium the Fermi level at the Drain and the Fermi level at the Source are: Select one: Different by an amount equals to V Different by an amount equals to q None of the other answers Different by an amount equal to qV O Different by an amount equals to -qV
The Fermi level is determined by the intrinsic properties of the semiconductor material and is independent of any applied voltage. Hence, the correct answer is "None of the other answers."
In the context of semiconductor devices, such as MOSFETs (Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor Field-Effect Transistors), the Fermi level plays a crucial role in determining the behavior of carriers (electrons or holes) within the device. At equilibrium, which occurs when there is no applied voltage or current flow, the Fermi level at the Drain and the Fermi level at the Source are equal.
The Fermi level represents the energy level at which the probability of finding an electron (or a hole) is 0.5. It serves as a reference point for determining the availability of energy states for carriers in a semiconductor material. In equilibrium, there is no net flow of carriers between the Drain and the Source regions, and as a result, the Fermi levels in both regions remain the same.
The statement "Different by an amount equals to V" implies that there is a voltage difference between the Drain and the Source that affects the Fermi levels. However, this is not the case at equilibrium. The Fermi level is determined by the intrinsic properties of the semiconductor material and is independent of any applied voltage. Hence, the correct answer is "None of the other answers."
Understanding the equilibrium Fermi level is essential for analyzing and designing semiconductor devices, as it influences carrier concentrations, conductivity, and device characteristics. It provides valuable insights into the energy distribution of carriers and helps in predicting device behavior under various operating conditions.
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Since current normally flows into the emitter of a NPN, the emitter is usually drawn pointing up towards the positive power supply. Select one: O True O False Check
The statement "Since current normally flows into the emitter of a NPN, the emitter is usually drawn pointing up towards the positive power supply" is FALSE because the current in an NPN transistor flows from the collector to the emitter. In an NPN transistor, the collector is positively charged while the emitter is negatively charged.
This means that electrons flow from the emitter to the collector, which is the opposite direction of the current flow in a PNP transistor. Therefore, the emitter of an NPN transistor is usually drawn pointing downwards towards the negative power supply.
This is because the emitter is connected to the negative power supply, while the collector is connected to the positive power supply. The correct statement would be that the emitter of an NPN transistor is usually drawn pointing downwards towards the negative power supply.
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Topics 4 & 5: Thévenin's and Norton's principles for D.C. Linear Circuits 14. [20] Two rechargeable NiCad batteries are connected in parallel to supply a 1000 resistive load. Battery 'A' has an open circuit voltage of 7.2V and an internal resistance of 80m2, while Battery 'B' has an open circuit voltage of 6.0V and an internal resistance of 200m2. (a) [5] Sketch the circuit (b) [5] Determine the Thevenin parameters and sketch the Thevenin equivalent circuit of the parallel battery combination that does not include the load resistor. Answer: VTH = 6.857V, RTH = 0.0571 2
(a) The circuit diagram can be sketched as follows:
Battery A Battery B
┌──────────┐ ┌──────────┐
│ │ │ │
│ 7.2V │ │ 6.0V │
│ │ │ │
└───┬──────┘ └──────┬───┘
│ │
┌───┴─────────────────┴───┐
│ │
│ Load │
│ 1000Ω │
│ │
└──────────────────────────┘
(b) To determine the Thevenin parameters, we consider the parallel combination of the batteries. The Thevenin voltage (Vth) is equal to the open circuit voltage of the combination, which is the same as the higher voltage between the two batteries. Therefore, Vth = 7.2V.
To find the Thevenin resistance (Rth), we need to calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination. We can use the formula:
1/Rth = 1/Ra + 1/Rb
where Ra and Rb are the internal resistances of batteries A and B, respectively.
1/Rth = 1/80mΩ + 1/200mΩ
1/Rth = 25/2000 + 8/2000
1/Rth = 33/2000
Rth = 2000/33 ≈ 60.61Ω
The Thevenin equivalent circuit can be sketched as follows:
```
Vth = 7.2V
┌──────────┐
│ │
│ │
─┤ Rth ├─
│ │
│ │
└──────────┘
```
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In a circuit contains single phase testing (ideal) transformer as a resonant transformer with 50kVA,0.4/150kV having 10% leakage reactance and 2% resistance on 50kVA base, a cable has to be tested at 500kV,50 Hz. Assuming 1\% resistance for the additional inductor to be used at connecting leads and neglecting dielectric loss of the cable,
The inductance of the cable is calculated to be 16.5 mH (approx).
Single-phase testing (ideal) transformer 50 kVA, 0.4/150 kV50 Hz10% leakage reactance 2% resistance on 50 kVA base1% resistance for the additional inductor to be used at connecting leads
The inductance of the cable can be calculated by using the resonant circuit formula.Let;L = inductance of the cableC = Capacitance of the cable
r1 = Resistance of the inductor
r2 = Resistance of the cable
Xm = Magnetizing reactance of the transformer
X1 = Primary reactance of the transformer
X2 = Secondary reactance of the transformer
The resonant frequency formula is; [tex]f = \frac{1}{{2\pi \sqrt{{LC}}}}[/tex]
For the resonant condition, reactance of the capacitor and inductor is equal to each other. Therefore,
[tex]\[XL = \frac{1}{{2\pi fL}}\][/tex]
[tex]\[XC = \frac{1}{{2\pi fC}}\][/tex]
So;
[tex]\[\frac{1}{{2\pi fL}} = \frac{1}{{2\pi fC}}\][/tex] Or [tex]\[LC = \frac{1}{{f^2}}\][/tex] ----(i)
Also;
[tex]Z = r1 + r2 + j(Xm + X1 + X2) + \frac{1}{{j\omega C}} + j\omega L[/tex] ----(ii)
The impedence of the circuit must be purely resistive.
So,
[tex]\text{Im}(Z) = 0 \quad \text{or} \quad Xm + X1 + X2 = \frac{\omega L}{\omega C}[/tex]----(iii)
Substitute the value of impedance in equation (ii)
[tex]Z = r1 + r2 + j(0.1 \times 50 \times 1000) + \frac{1}{j(2\pi \times 50) (1 + L)} + j\omega L = r1 + r2 + j5000 + \frac{j1.59}{1 + L} + j\omega L[/tex]
So, [tex]r1 + r2 + j5000 + \frac{j1.59}{1 + L} + j\omega L = r1 + r2 + j5000 + \frac{j1.59}{1 + L} - j\omega L[/tex]
[tex]j\omega L = j(1 + L) - \frac{1.59}{1 + L}[/tex]
So;
[tex]Xm + X1 + X2 = \frac{\omega L}{\omega C} = \frac{\omega L \cdot C}{1}[/tex]
Substitute the values; [tex]0.1 \times 50 \times 1000 + \omega L (1 + 0.02) = \frac{\omega L C}{1} \quad \omega L C - 0.02 \omega L = \frac{5000 \omega L}{1 + L} \quad \omega L (C - 0.02) = \frac{5000}{1 + L}[/tex] ---(iv)
Substitute the value of L from equation (iv) in equation (i)
[tex]LC = \frac{1}{{f^2}} \quad LC = \left(\frac{1}{{50^2}}\right) \times 10^6 \quad L (C - 0.02) = \frac{1}{2500} \quad L = \frac{{C - 0.02}}{{2500}}[/tex]
Put the value of L in equation (iii)
[tex]0.1 \times 50 \times 1000 + \omega L (1 + 0.02) = \frac{\omega L C}{1} \quad \frac{\omega L C - 0.02 \omega L}{1} = \frac{5000 \omega L}{1 + L} \quad \frac{\omega L C - 0.02 \omega L}{1} = \frac{5000}{1 + \left(\frac{C - 0.02}{2500}\right)} \quad \frac{\omega L C - 0.02 \omega L}{1} = \frac{5000}{1 + \frac{C + 2498}{2500}} \quad \frac{\omega L C - 0.02 \omega L}{1} = \frac{12500000}{C + 2498}[/tex]
Now, substitute the value of ωL in equation (iv);[tex]L = \frac{{C - 0.02}}{{2500}} = \frac{{12500000}}{{C + 2498}} \quad C^2 - 49.98C - 1560.005 = 0[/tex]
Solve for C;[tex]C = 41.28 \mu F \quad \text{or} \quad C = 37.78 \mu F[/tex] (neglect)
Hence, the inductance of the cable is (C-0.02) / 2500 = 16.5 mH (approx).
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