Two children are balanced on a seesaw, but one child weighs twice as much as the other child. The heavier child is sitting half as far from the pivot as is the lighter child. Since the seesaw is balanced, the heavier child is exerting on the seesaw:_______.
a. a force that is less than the force the lighter child is exerting.
b. a force that is equal in amount but oppositely directed to the force the lighter child is exerting.

Answer:

F = umg where u is coefficient of dynamic friction

Explanation:

F = 0.4 x 80 x 9.81 = 313.92 N

Answer:

C. R^2

Explanation:

A cyclotron is a particle accelerator which employs the use of electric and magnetic fields for its functioning. It consists of two D shaped region called dees and the magnetic field present in the dee is responsible for making sure the charges follow the half-circle and then to a gap in between the dees.

R is denoted as the radius of the final orbit then the final particle energy is proportional to the radius of the two dees. This however translates to the energy being proportional to R^2.

Answer:

Explanation:

Mass ( m ) = 2 kg

Speed of the object (v) = 6 metre per second

Kinetic energy =?

Now,

We have,

Kinetic Energy = [tex] \frac{1}{2} \times m \times {v}^{2} [/tex]

Plugging the values,

[tex] = \frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times {(6)}^{2} [/tex]

Reduce the numbers with Greatest Common Factor 2

[tex] = {(6)}^{2} [/tex]

Calculate

[tex] = 36 \: joule[/tex]

Hope this helps...

Good luck on your assignment...

The Kinetic energy of the object will be "36 joules".

The excess energy of moving can be observed as that of the movement of an object, component, as well as the group of components. There would never be a negative (-) amount of kinetic energy.

According to the question,

Mass of object, m = 2 kg

Speed of object, v = 6 m/s

As we know the formula,

→ Kinetic energy (K.E),

= [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × m × v²

By substituting the values, we get

= [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2 × (6)²

=  [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] × 2 × 36

= 36 joule

Thus the above answer is appropriate.

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Answer:

  a = 1.15 10³ g

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use the relations of the centripetal acceleration

     a = v² / r

where is the linear speed of the rotor and r is the radius of the rotor

let's use the relationships between the angular and linear variables

          v = w r

let's replace

          a = w² r

let's reduce the angular velocity to the SI system

        w = 550 rev / min (2pi rad / 1 rev) (1 min / 60 s)

         w = 57.6 rad / s

let's calculate

       a = 57.6²  3.4

       a = 1.13 10⁴ m / s²

To calculate this value in relation to g, let's find the related

       a / g = 1.13 10⁴ / 9.8

       a = 1.15 10³ g

Answer:

b. only ray that reflects back in the same direction it came from

Explanation:

C-rays can be said to be a ray that comes from the center of the curvature. It is known that any ray that comes from the center of the curvature reflects back in the same direction it came from, this is because the line joining from the center of the curvature to any point in the mirror is perpendicular to the mirror.

Correct answer is option B.

C-ray is the only ray that reflects back in the same direction it came from.

Option A is incorrect because for other rays, angle of incidence = angle of reflection. This is not a property of c-ray.

Answer:

Force of Rope = 122.5 N

Force of Rope = 480.2N

Explanation:

given data

length = 3.00 m

mass = 25.0 kg

clown mass = 79.0 kg

angle = 30°

solution

we get here Force of Rope on with and without Clown that is

case (1) Without Clown

pivot would be on the concrete pillar so Force of Rope will be

Force of Rope × 3m = (25kg)×(9.8ms²)×(1.5m)

solve it and we get

Force of Rope = 122.5 N

and

case (2) With Clown

so here pivot is still on concrete pillar and clown is standing on the board middle  and above the centre of mass so Force of Rope will be

Force of Rope × 3m = (25kg+73kg)×(9.8ms²)×(1.5m)

solve it and we get

Force of Rope = 480.2N

The period of a wave is the time it takes the wave to complete one cycle (at a fixed location).

So if a wave completes one cycle in 2 seconds, then that is its period.

Answer:

T= 2p√m/k

Explanation:

This is because the period of oscillation of the mass of spring system is directly proportional to the square root of the mass and it is inversely proportional to the square root of the spring constant.

The period of a mass on a spring is given by the equation

T=2π√m/k.

Where T is the period,

M is mass

K is spring constant.

An increase in mass in a spring increases the period of oscillation and decrease in mass decrease period of oscillation.

When there is the relationship between the Period (T) caused by the oscillation of the mass should be considered as the T= 2p√m/k.

The mass of the spring system with respect to period of oscillation should be directly proportional to the square root of the mass and it is inversely proportional to the square root of the spring constant.

So the following equation should be considered

T=2π√m/k.

Here,

T is the period,

M is mass

K is spring constant.

An increase in mass in a spring rises the period of oscillation and reduce in mass decrease period of oscillation.

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Answer:

t = 3.4 s

The box will come to rest in 3.4 s

Explanation:

For the block to come to rest, the friction force must become equal to the unbalanced force. Therefore:

Unbalanced Force = Frictional Force

but,

Unbalanced Force = ma

Frictional Force = μR = μW = μmg

Therefore,

ma = μmg

a = μg

where,

a = acceleration of box = ?

μ = coefficient of sliding friction = 0.45

g = 9.8 m/s²

Therefore,

a = (0.45)(9.8 m/s²)

a = -4.41 m/s²  (negative sign due to deceleration)

Now, for the time to stop, we use first equation of motion:

Vf = Vi + at

where,

Vf = Final Speed = 0 m/s (since box stops at last)

Vi = Initial Speed = 15 m/s

t = time to stop = ?

Therefore,

0 m/s = 15 m/s + (-4.41 m/s²)t

(-15 m/s)/(-4.41 m/s²) = t

t = 3.4 s

The box will come to rest in 3.4 s

Answer:

The definition of that same given problem is outlined in the following section on the clarification.

Explanation:

The Q seems to be endless (hardly any R on the circuit). So energy equations to describe and forth through the inducer as well as the condenser.  

Presently take a gander at the energy stored in your condensers while charging is Q.

⇒  [tex]U =\frac{Qmax^2}{C}[/tex]

So conclude C doesn't change substantially as well as,

When,

⇒  [tex]Q=\frac{Qmax}{2}[/tex]

⇒  [tex]Q^2=\frac{Qmax^2}{4}[/tex]

And therefore only half of the population power generation remains in the condenser that tends to leave this same inductor energy at 3/4 U.

Answer:

a) 43.98 V

b) E = 21.37 MJ

Explanation:

Parameters given:

Length of cable = 180 km = 180000 m

Diameter of cable = 11 cm = 0.11 m

Radius = 0.11 / 2 = 0.055 m

Current, I = 135 A

a) To find the potential drop, we have to find the voltage across the wire:

V = IR

=> V = IρL / A

where R = resistance

L = length of cable

A = cross-sectional area

ρ = resistivity of the copper wire = 1.72 * 10^(-8) Ωm

Therefore:

V = (135 * 1.72 * 10^(-8) * 180000) / (π * 0.055^2)

V = 43.98 V

The potential drop across the cable is 43.98 V

b) Electrical energy is given as:

E = IVt

where t = time taken = 1 hour = 3600 s

Therefore, the energy dissipated per hour is:

E = 135 * 43.98 * 3600

E = 21.37 MJ (mega joules, 10^6)

Answer:

Explanation:

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Answer:

(a) V = 65.625 Volts

(b) V = 131.25 Volts

(c) V = 131.25 Volts

Explanation:

Recall that:

1) in a metal sphere the charges distribute uniformly around the surface, and the electric field inside the sphere is zero, and the potential is constant equal to:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{R}[/tex]

2) the electric potential outside of a charged metal sphere is the same as that of a charge of the same value located at the sphere's center:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{r}[/tex]

where k is the Coulomb constant ( [tex]9\,\,10^9\,\,\frac{N\,m^2}{C^2}[/tex] ), Q is the total charge of the sphere, R is the sphere's radius (0.24 m), and r is the distance at which the potential is calculated measured from the sphere's center.

Then, at a distance of:

(a) 48 cm = 0.48 m, the electric potential is:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{r}=9\,\,10^9 \,\frac{3.5\,\,10^{-9}}{0.48} =65.625\,\,V[/tex]

(b) 24 cm = 0.24 m, - notice we are exactly at the sphere's surface - the electric potential is:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{r}=9\,\,10^9 \,\frac{3.5\,\,10^{-9}}{0.24} =131.25\,\,V[/tex]

(c) 12 cm (notice we are inside the sphere, and therefore the potential is constant and the same as we calculated for the sphere's surface:

[tex]V=k\frac{Q}{R}=9\,\,10^9 \,\frac{3.5\,\,10^{-9}}{0.24} =131.25\,\,V[/tex]

Answer:

c) a difference in electric potential

Explanation:

my insta: priscillamarquezz

Answer:

20.9 volts

Explanation:

R = 27.7 Ω

I = 753 mA = 0.753 A

V = ?

From Ohms law, V = IR

V = 0.753×27.7

V = 20.8581

V = 20.9 volts

Answer:

9,375

Explanation:

Data provided

The mass of the car m = 1500 Kg.

The diameter of the circular track D = 200 m.

For the computation of magnitude and direction of the net force on the car first we need to find out the radius of the circular path which is shown below:-

The radius of the circular path is

[tex]R = \frac{D}{2}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{200}{2}[/tex]

= 100 m

after the radius of the circular path we can find the magnitude of the centripetal force with the help of below formula

[tex]Force F = \frac{mv^2}{R}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{1500\times (25)^2}{100}[/tex]

= 9,375

Therefore for computing the magnitude of the centripetal force we simply applied the above formula.

Answer:

The atomic number

Explanation:

Answer:

A.  Z = 185.87Ω

B.  I  =  0.16A

C.  V = 1mV

D.  VL = 68.8V

E.  Ф = 30.59°

Explanation:

A. The impedance of a RL circuit is given by the following formula:

[tex]Z=\sqrt{R^2+\omega^2L^2}[/tex]       (1)

R: resistance of the circuit = 160-Ω

w: angular frequency = 220 rad/s

L: inductance of the circuit = 0.430H

You replace in the equation (1):

[tex]Z=\sqrt{(160\Omega)^2+(220rad/s)^2(0.430H)^2}=185.87\Omega[/tex]

The impedance of the circuit is 185.87Ω

B. The current amplitude is:

[tex]I=\frac{V}{Z}[/tex]                     (2)

V: voltage amplitude = 30.0V

[tex]I=\frac{30.0V}{185.87\Omega}=0.16A[/tex]

The current amplitude is 0.16A

C. The current I is the same for each component of the circuit. Then, the voltage in the resistor is:

[tex]V=\frac{I}{R}=\frac{0.16A}{160\Omega}=1*10^{-3}V=1mV[/tex]            (3)

D. The voltage across the inductor is:

[tex]V_L=L\frac{dI}{dt}=L\frac{d(Icos(\omega t))}{dt}=-LIsin(\omega t)\\\\V_L=-(0.430H)(160\Omega)sin(220 t)=68.8sin(220t)\\\\V_L_{max}=68.8V[/tex]

E. The phase difference is given by:

[tex]\phi=tan^{-1}(\frac{\omega L}{R})=tan^{-1}(\frac{(220rad/s)(0.430H)}{160\Omega})\\\\\phi=30.59\°[/tex]

Answer:

clockwise

Explanation:

when current flows through a ring in a clockwise direction, it produces the equivalent magnetic effect of a southern pole of a magnet on the coil.

Since the current is decreasing, there is a flux change on the lower ring; generating an induced current on the lower ring. According to Lenz law of electromagnetic induction, "the induced current will act in such a way as to oppose the motion or the action producing it". In this case, the induced current will have to be the same  polarity to the polarity of the current change producing it so as to repel the two rings far enough to stop the electromagnetic induction. The induced current will then be in the clockwise direction on the lower ring.

The direction of the induced current in the bottom ring is in the clockwise direction.

The given problem is based on the concept and fundamentals of the induced current and the direction of flow of the induced current.

Thus, we can conclude that the direction of the induced current in the bottom ring is in the clockwise direction.

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Answer:

The horizontal force acting on m2 is F + 9.8m1

Explanation:

Given;

Block m1 on left of block m2

Make a sketch of this problem;

                         F →→→→→→→→→→→-------m1--------m2

Apply Newton's second law of motion;

F = ma

where;

m is the total mass of the body

a is the acceleration of the body

The horizontal force acting on block m2 is the force applied to block m1 and force due to weight of block m1

F₂ = F + W1

F₂ = F + m1g

F₂ = F + 9.8m1

Therefore, the horizontal force acting on m2 is F + 9.8m1

The force acting on the block of mass m₂ is  [tex]\frac{m_2F}{m_1+m_2}[/tex]

Given that there are two blocks of mass m₁ and m₂.

m₁ is on the left of block m₂. They are in contact with each other.

A force F is applied on m₁ to the right.

According to Newton's laws of motion:

The equation of motion of the blocks can be written as:

F = (m₁ + m₂)a

here, a is the acceleration.

so, acceleration:

a = F / (m₁ + m₂)

Now, the force acting on the block of mass m₂ is:

f = m₂a

[tex]f = \frac{m_2F}{m_1+m_2}[/tex]

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Explanation:

Mass and energy are closely related. Due to mass–energy equivalence, any object that has mass when stationary (called rest mass) also has an equivalent amount of energy whose form is called rest energy, and any additional energy (of any form) acquired by the object above that rest energy will increase the object's total mass just as it increases its total energy. For example, after heating an object, its increase in energy could be measured as a small increase in mass, with a sensitive enough scale.

Answer:

a) ±7.08×10⁻⁷ C/m²

b) 1.77×10⁻⁷ C

Explanation:

For a conductor,

σ = ±Eε₀,

where σ is the charge density,

E is the electric field,

and ε₀ is the permittivity of space.

a)

σ = ±Eε₀

σ = ±(8×10⁴ N/C) (8.85×10⁻¹² F/m)

σ = ±7.08×10⁻⁷ C/m²

b)

σ = q/A

7.08×10⁻⁷ C/m² = q / (0.5 m)²

q = 1.77×10⁻⁷ C

The  lens is designed to work in the visible, near-infrared, and near-ultraviolet. The best resolution of this lens from a diffraction standpoint is: in the near-ultraviolet.

The act of bending light around corners such that it spreads out and illuminates regions where a shadow is anticipated is known as diffraction of light. In general, since both occur simultaneously, it is challenging to distinguish between diffraction and interference. The diffraction of light is what causes the silver lining we see in the sky. A silver lining appears in the sky when the sunlight penetrates or strikes the cloud.

Longer wavelengths of light are diffracted at a greater angle than shorter ones, with the amount of diffraction being dependent on the wavelength of the light. Hence, among the light waves of  the visible, near-infrared, and near-ultraviolet range, near-ultraviolet waves have the shortest wavelengths. So,  The best resolution of this lens from a diffraction standpoint is in the near-ultraviolet, where diffraction is minimum.

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Answer:

(a) force is 1066.56N

Explanation:

(a) MV²/R

Answer:

Increasing population

Explanation:

As we can see that the death rate is decreasing while at the same time the birth rate is increasing due to which it increased the population that directly impact the planet so great

Day by day the population of the villages, cities, states, the country is increasing which would create a direct human impact on the planet  

Therefore the increasing population is the one and single most important reason

Answer:

Seismic attenuation describes the energy loss experienced by seismic waves as they propagate. It is controlled by the temperature, composition, melt content, and volatile content of the rocks through which the waves travel.

Explanation:

Answer:

power dissipated in the target is 100 W

Explanation:

given data

electrons = 1 mev = [tex]10^{6}[/tex] eV

1 eV = 1.6 × [tex]10^{-19}[/tex] J

current =  100 microampere = 100 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] A

solution

when energy of beam strike with 1 MeV so energy of electron is

E = e × v   ...................1

e is charge of electron and v is voltage

so put here value and we get voltage

v = 1 ÷ 1.6 × [tex]10^{-19}[/tex]

v =  [tex]10^{6}[/tex] volt

so power dissipated in target

P = voltage × current   ..............2

put here value

P =  [tex]10^{6}[/tex]  × 100 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex]

P = 100 W

so power dissipated in the target is 100 W

Answer:

  F ’= F 0.25

Explanation:

This problem refers to the electric force, which is described by Coulomb's law

        F = k q₁ q₂ / r²

where k is the Coulomb constant, q the charges and r the separation between them.

The initial conditions are

       F = k q_A q_B / d²

they indicate that the loads are reduced to ¼ q and the distance is reduced to ½ d

       F ’= k (q / 4 q / 4) / (0.5 d)²

       F ’= k q / 16 / 0.25 d²

       F ’= k q² / d²    0.0625 / 0.25

       F ’= F 0.25

Two identically charged point-like objects A and B exert a force of magnitude F on each other when separated by distance d. If the charges are reduced to one-fourth of their original values and the distance is halved, the new force will be one-fourth of the original force.

Two identically charged point-like objects A and B exert a force of magnitude F on each other when separated by distance d. This can be explained through Coulomb's law.

Coulomb's law is a law stating that like charges repel and opposite charges attract, with a force proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

[tex]F = k \frac{q_Aq_B}{d^{2} } = k \frac{q^{2} }{d^{2} } [/tex]

where,

If you reduce the charge of A to one-fourth its original value, and the charge of B to one-fourth, and reduce the distance between the objects by half, the new force will be:

[tex]F_2 = k \frac{(0.25q_A)(0.25q_B)}{(0.5d)^{2} } = 0.25k\frac{q^{2} }{d^{2} } = 0.25 F[/tex]

Two identically charged point-like objects A and B exert a force of magnitude F on each other when separated by distance d. If the charges are reduced to one-fourth of their original values and the distance is halved, the new force will be one-fourth of the original force.

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Answer:

  d sin tea = m λ

Explanation:

When we have a two-slit system, the optical path difference determines whether the intensity reaching an observation screen is maximum or zero.

To find this difference in optical path, we assume that the screen is much farther than the gap is, we draw a perpendicular from ray 1 to the second ray

       OP = d sin θ

now to have constructive interference and see a bright line this leg must be an integer number of wavelengths, ose

            d sin tea = m λ

where

d             is the distance between the two slits

θ     complexion the angle sea the point hold it between the two slits

λ    the wavelength of the coherent light used

m   an integer, which counts the number of lines of interference

Units in the SI system

d, lam in meters

θ degrees

m an integer

Answer:

The current and the applied emf can be in phase if either of the two changes are made.

1) The inductance of the inductor is doubled, with everything else remaining constant.

2) The capacitance of the capacitor is doubled, with everything else remaining constant.

Explanation:

The current and applied emf for this type of circuit would be in phase when there is no phase difference between the two quantities. That is, Φ = 0°.

The phase difference between current and applied emf is given as

Φ = tan⁻¹ [(XL - Xc)/R]

XL = Impedance due to the inductor

Xc = Impedance due to the capacitor

R = Resistance of the resistor.

For Φ to be 0°, tan⁻¹ [(XL - Xc)/R] = 0

But only tan⁻¹ 0 = 0 rad

So, for the phase difference to be 0,

[(XL - Xc)/R] = 0

Meaning

XL = Xc

But for this question,

XL = 100 Ω, Xc = 200 Ω

For them to be equal, we have to find a way to increase the impedance of the inductor or reduce the impedance of the capacitor.

The impedance are given as

XL = 2πfL

Xc = (1/2πfC)

f = Frequency

L = Inductance of the inductor

C = capacitance of the capacitor

The impedance of the inductor can be increased from 100 Ω to 200 Ω by doubling the inductance of the inductor.

And the impedance of the capacitor can be reduced from 200 Ω to 100 Ω by also doubling the capacitance of the capacitor.

So, these are either of the two ways to make the current and applied emf to be in phase.

Hope this Helps!!!