Answer:
Explanation:
Brachii: H - It means of the arm.
Palmaris: H - It means of the palm of hands.
Longus : G - Longus means long
Brachio: C - It refers to origin on the upper arm.
Radialis: C - It refers to insertion on the radius of the forearm.
Pronator: A - Pronation is inward rotation of part of the body towards middle of the body.
Teres: B - meaning round or cylindrical shape
Deltoid: B - meaning triangular shape
in humans unattached earlobes are dominant over attached earlobes. which could be the genotybe for someone with attached earlobs/Answer/a is Ee/b is e/c is ee/D is E
Answer:
C. ee
Explanation:
attached earlobes isn't the dominant trait, if it isn't dominant then it'll have lower case letters to represent it
Answer:
C
Explanation
hopes this helps :]
At the neuromuscular junction, _______ must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________ can enter the muscle fiber.
Answer:
At the neuromuscular junction, calcium must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of acetylcholine, which binds to ligand gates so sodium ions can enter the muscle fiber.
Explanation:
Skeletal fiber contractions are based on different physiological and biochemical phenomena that happen in every cell. These phenomena are due to stimulation produced by somatic motor neurons, which axons get in contact with muscle fibers through a neuromuscular synapse. In rest, attraction strengths between myosin and actin filaments are inhibited by the tropomyosin. When an action potential is originated in the central nervous system, it travels to the somatic motor neuron membrane: the muscle fiber, and activates the calcium channels releasing it in the neuron. Calcium makes vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter named acetylcholine (Ach) into the synaptic space in the juncture. Then, Ach binds to its receptors on the skeletal muscle fiber. This causes the ion channels to open, and positively charged sodium ions cross the membrane to get into the muscle fiber (sarcoplasm) and potassium get out. The difference in charges caused by the migration of sodium and potassium makes the muscle fiber membrane to become more positively charged (depolarized). The action potential caused by this depolarization enters the t-tubules depolarizing the inner portion of the muscle fiber. This activates calcium channels in the T tubules membrane, that make the calcium be released into the sarcolemma. At this point, tropomyosin is obstructing binding sites for myosin on the thin filament. When calcium binds to the troponin C, the troponin T alters the tropomyosin by moving it and then unblocks the binding sites. Myosin binds to the uncovered actin-binding sites, and while doing it ATP is transformed into ADP and inorganic phosphate. Z-bands are then pulled toward each other, thus shortening the sarcomere and the I-band, and producing muscle fiber contraction.
Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition
Answer:
seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors
Explanation:
Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.
Hurry please!!!
Which statement accurately describes long-term environmental changes?
Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup.
Long-term environmental changes happen suddenly with little warning,
Long-term environmental changes occur in hundreds of years.
Long-term environmental changes immediately affect organisms in the environment
Answer:
A. or #1 -- Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
The women has had two miscarriages. What is the chance that she could have a normal child? a. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.b. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.c. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers.d. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers
Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?
maggots feed on dead and decaying organisms for energy. what are maggots
Answer:
Decomposers, or as they're alternatively known, detritovores.
Explanation:
Their job is to break down decaying/dead organic matter to recycle it into the soil for plants (mainly). Fungi and bacteria make up the vast majority of decomposers.
During which phase of the cell cycle do chromatids form?
The process of succession is necessary to maintain and establish stable communities. T or F
Answer: True it is necessary
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?
a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Answer:
The correct answer would be:
Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Explanation:
The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.
This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.
Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).
This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.
How Can Regulation be Accomplished? Chemotaxis by Pseudomonas aeruginosa requires regulation of macromolecules in response to signals. Protein regulation is very important and can be grouped into two categories: those that are based on protein activity and those that are based on the amount of protein present ,write the type of regulation described that does not affect the amount of protein present.
1. regulating amount of mRNA made
2. catabolite repression
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
4. attenuation controlling whether mRNA is translated
Answer:
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
Explanation:
The post-translational modification does not affect the amount of protein present because this type of change is only done to the protein when the translation process has finished, and there is a protein as a result. After the translation, the final product can suffer modifications such as the addition of different components, or enzymatic modifications. In other words, they are chemical changes that the protein experiences that do not affect the amount of protein present.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
Answer:
to protect the cell from it's surroundings
Explanation:
the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells
Explanation:
The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings.
Sorry if the ans is wrong
2. Where does cellular respiration take places in the cell?
Answer:
Explanation:mitochondria
The enzymatic reactions of cellular respiration begin in the cytoplasm, but most of the reactions occur in the mitochondria. Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion. The folds in the inner membrane are called cristae.
Answer:
IT TAKES PLACE IN THE CYTOPLASM BUT MOST OF THE REACTIONS TAKE PLACE IN THE MITOCHONDRIA
Explanation:
Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion
HOPE IT HELPS
Which gas is a major contributor to ocean acidification? A. oxygen B. sulfur dioxide C. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen
Answer:C, carbon dioxide.
Explanation:Carbon Dioxide reacts with water forming Carbonic acid. This acid increases the acidity of the ocean.
Answer:
Explanation: got it correct
Second class levers are best described as follows:___________.
A) "The muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum, and the effort required to move the load is at a mechanical advantage"
B) "The muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum, but the effort required to move the load is at a mechanical disadvantage"
C) "The muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, with a longer moment arm for the effort than for the load"
D) "The muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, with a longer moment arm for the load than for the effort"
Answer:
A, B, C, D!
Explanation:
Please describe the regulation of the blood glucose 6 hours after a meal?
Please include all relevant organs, hormones, and actions.
Answer:
Find the description below in the explanation section
Explanation:
The body system regulates the blood sugar level via the hand-in-hand working of insulin and glucagon hormones, both produced by the Pancreas. After a meal, the food undergoes digestion and is broken down into glucose, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Insulin hormone is released by the pancreas (stimulated by a negative feedback) when the sugar level of the blood increases. This secretion of insulin causes cells to absorb glucose as source of energy, while liver and muscle cells store some of the excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN.
However, after about 6 hours of taking the meal, the blood sugar (glucose) level must have decreased. This triggers the secretion of Glucagon hormone by the Pancreas. Glucagon hormone, acts in an opposite manner as Insulin hormone, by causing the stored GLYCOGEN in the liver and muscle cells to be converted back to Glucose in order for cells to make use of it.
This continuous process occurs and it is how the body regulates the blood glucose levels.
Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction?
Answer:
all but the last one
Explanation:
NADH is not a product of the light reaction of photosynthesis.
• The role of NAD+ is that it acts as an electron carrier.
• NADH is formed from NAD when it oxidizes the compound by accepting electrons and adding hydrogen ions to the compound.
What do NADH mean?
NADH stands for "Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) + Hydrogen (H)." This chemical occurs naturally in the body and plays a role in the chemical process that produces energy.People use NADH supplements as medicine.Learn more about NADH here.
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Explain TWO strategic ways employed by microbes of extreme environments that enable them withstand harsh environmental and physical conditions
Answer:
Explanation:
Some microbes are thermophiles and they can survive in area with high temperature between 45 -80°C, they are chemoautotroph in nature, oxidizing sulphur to products acids such as sulfur in the environment. This acid also help them to better adapt to the environment as many thermophiles likes acidic environment.
Thermophiles body has saturated and straight chain fatty acid that helps prevent denaturation which enables them grow and thrive in harsh weather condition by providing the fluidity that is needed in membrane function.
Thermophiles are also small in sizes this ensure there stability.
In 1668 Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze will exclude the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, fies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The experiment was inconclusive because it did not nun long enough
B. The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
C. The expertment supports the hwpothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flhes
D. The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat
Answer:
The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies; that is only from reproduction and development.
Explanation:
The objective of this experimental set up by Francesco Radi was to demonstrate the concept of spontaneous generation. He concluded that, Maggots are not spontaneous generated from rotten meats, rather they are products of eggs laid by houseflies who visited the rotten meat to lay eggs. The maggots (larva) are products of complete metamorphosis, from egg to larva to pupa and adult. This is an indication that, new organisms are not formed form spontaneously, but are products of well-defined process of reproduction and development which in this case is a complete metamorphosis.
Based on this premise he concluded that, if maggots were products of laid eggs, then they should appear only when rotten meat is exposed to open air.However,if they are f products of spontaneous generation they should appear irrespective of the meat exposure to air or not.
g If a pair of sister chromatids fail to separate during anaphase II (meiosis II), what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)
Answer:
The result will be two gametes with a normal haploid number (n), one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) and one gamete missing one chromosome (n − 1).
Explanation:
Nondisjunction is caused by the failure in the mechanism of separation of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids during meiosis and/or mitosis. The failure in the separation of sister chromatids during meiosis II is referred to as 'secondary nondisjunction' and it produces two daughter cells with abnormal chromosome numbers.
The fusion of one gamete containing an extra chromosome (n + 1) with a normal (n) gamete will lead to trisomy (2n + 1), while the fusion of one gamete missing one chromosome (n - 1) with a normal gamete will lead to monosomy (2n-1).
molecular genetics experiment: In what way do the percentages of yellow leaves vary between dishes on Day 2? How do you account for this difference? Compare the percentage of yellow seedlings in dish 2 on day 2 with the percentage on day 4. What is the difference? What experimental variable accounts for this difference? How can you account for the difference between the seedlings in dish 1? Is the yellow color genetically or environmentally controlled? How can environmental factors affect inheritance? (Use human height as an example.)
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
There were yellow seedlings in Dish #1 during the light phase and also during the dark in Dish #2. The difference in these results is likely due to the period of exposure to light.
There are more number of yellow seedlings on Day 4. This is probably because of being kept in the dark for a long period of time. Light intensity is the experimental variable that accounts for this difference in appearance.
The yellow color is being environmentally controlled since the parent phenotype was wildtype in this experiment. The environment has an effect on which genes are expressed in the organism, which in turn influences the phenotype observed.
Why would damage to the nervous tissue in the spinal cord lead to paralysis?
Damage results in the loss of signals to muscles to produce movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to produce connective tissue to support movement.
Damage results in the decreased production of actin and myosin for contraction
Answer:
B. Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement
Explanation:
Answer:
b
Explanation:
"Rank the sequence of cross bridge cycling, starting with the myosin-binding sites being exposed and ending with relaxation due to cross bridge cycling ending. Do not overlap any events."
Sequence:
a. Calcium ions pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Myosin head forms cross bridge with actin
c. Myosin binding sites covered
d. Power stroke moves thin filament
e. Cross bridges detach from actin
f. Myosin head is re-energized
g. Calcium ion concentration decreases below the threshold for binding to troponin
h. ATP attaches to myosin head
Answer:
Explanation:
This is the process of muscle contraction and relaxation in the muscle. The type of muscle involved is the skeleton muscle.
The process is initiated in the Central nervous system. Examples are in contraction of biceps and triceps.
It involves myosin head and actin filament coupled with the release of calcium ion from the sarcoplasm reticulum: this ion activates this process in the muscles. With the exposure of the music binding site on the acting filament, myosin is able to bind to acting filament bringing about this process.
a. ATP attaches to myosin head
b. Myosin head is re-energized
c. Myosin head forms cross bridge with actin
d. Power stroke moves thin filament
e. Cross bridges detach from actin
f. Myosin binding sites covered
g. Calcium ions pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
h. Calcium ion concentration decreases below the threshold for binding to troponin.
Muscle contraction results from the interaction between actin and myosin filament proteins.
During muscle contraction, ATP binds to myosin, which passes to a high-energy state and it allows actin and myosin to detach from each other.The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a specialized type of endoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells that acts to regulate the concentration of cytosolic calcium (Ca2+).The sequential steps are as follow:
Myosin head forms cross bridge with actinPower stroke moves thin filamentATP attaches to myosin headCross bridges detach from actinMyosin head is re-energizedCalcium ions pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulumCalcium ion concentration decreases below the threshold for binding to troponinMyosin binding sites coveredIn conclusion, muscle contraction results from the interaction between actin and myosin filament proteins.
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The largest taxon and consists of all the other taxis called
Answer:
Domain
Explanation:
-Lab-
"Why are cells so small"
Answer:
Explanation:
Because we need a lot of cells and if they were big only a small about would fit.
who is Charles darwin
Answer:
Charles Darwin came up with the theory of evolution.
Charles Darwin is a writer who wrote the book Orgin of species . He is the one that gave the idea of evolution . his proposition that all species of life have decended over time from common ancestors. He is a english naturalist, geologist and biologist
If two people with sickle cell trait have children, what is thechance that a child will have normal RBCs in both high-and low-oxygen environments? What is the chance that a child will have sickle cell disease? Write the possible genotypes in the Punnettsquare.
Answer:
See the answer below
Explanation:
The chance that a child from two people with sickle cell trait will have normal RBCs remains the same irrespective of the amount of oxygen in the environment. From the cross:
AS x AS
AA AS AS SS
Hence, the chance of having a child with normal RBCs in both high and low-oxygen environments is 1/4 or 25%.
The chance that a child will have sickle cell disease is also 1/4 or 25%.
The possible genotypes in a Punnet's square can be seen in the attached image
How are lysosomes pro-nuclear dense bodies?
Answer:i hope this answers ur question
Explanation:
The allosteric effector molecule 2,3-BPG facilitates transfer of oxygen between maternal and fetal blood in the placenta. Which of the following correctly describes the role of BPG in this process?
a. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is unable to cross the placenta into fetal blood, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
c. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
d. Fetal hemoglobin releases oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds more effectively to fetal hemoglobin causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
Answer:
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
Explanation:
BPG is a chemical compound which is found in red blood cells. It is known for decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen and thus helps in unloading oxygen from hemoglobin.
Owing to the structural difference, fetal hemoglobin binds to BPG with less affinity as compared to maternal hemoglobin thus it shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the left i.e. causes fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state. Due to this, fetal hemoglobin can carry up to 30% more oxygen as compared to maternal hemoglobin. As a result of this, oxygen is readily transferred to fetal blood when maternal blood enters placenta which restricts hypoxia in fetus.
Comparison of glycogen synthesis and breakdown in muscle and liver reveals: A. Stimulation of glycogen breakdown in both tissues by epinephrine leads to enhanced glucose uptake by liver cells and enhanced glucose export from muscle cells. B. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues leads to glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle. C. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis in both tissues by epinephrine leads to glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle. D. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues is accompanied by decreased glycogenolysis. E. Epinephrine stimulates glycogen uptake in liver and breakdown in muscle.
Answer:
The correct options are C and D:
C- The inhibition of glycogen synthesis in both tissues by epinephrine leads to glycogenolysis in both the liver and muscle.
D- The stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues is accompanied by a decrease in glycogenolysis.
Explanation:
The presence of epinephrine causes the glycogen reserve that is present in the liver and muscle to enter the glycogenolysis stage, that is, the chemical structures of glycogen are broken and simplified in energy coins (ATP) so that the activity muscle contract against stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system.
The adrenergic nervous system is one that promotes physical activity, physiological stress, flight from danger, and other activities, is also known as the sympathetic system and is where epinephrine or adrenaline predominates as a neurotransmitter.
The liver and muscle are the only possible organs to reserve glycogen in a limited way, once its reserve limits are exceeded it will begin to deposit in the form of adipose tissue, glycogenogenesis or formation of glycogen as reserve is promoted by insulin and the system parasympathetic nerve, visceversa to what we explained above with the sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine, since the latter break the glycogen reserves releasing glucose into the blood for muscle contraction.