There are multiple lines of Evidence that provide support for common ancestry and evolution are as follows:
anatomy and embryologyhomologous featuresfossil records1. Anatomy and Embryology:
according to Darwin a multigenerational process in which species change and give rise to new species.2. Homologous features:
Homologous physical traits are those that are shared due to a common ancestor.for instance forelimbs of whales, humans, birds, and dogs all appear to be quite different but the pattern of bones is extremely similar.3. Fossil record:
Fossils are the preserved remnants or traces of previously existing species from the distant past.photosynthetic blue-green algae is associated with land plants.Thus,
There are multiple lines of Evidence that provide support for common ancestry and evolution are as follows:
anatomy and embryologyhomologous featuresfossil recordsLearn more:
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1. D Value is determined as a
A. Removing of microorganisms by washing
B. Concentration of disinfectant required to reduce microbial population 10 times
C. Time required to kill 10% of microbial population
D. Time frame in which microbial population of 5,600,000 cells would decrease to 560,000 cells
E. None of the above
2. The betadine or alcohol swab before blood donation is an example of A. Pasteurization
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. Preservation
E. None of the above
Answer:
1. D. Time frame in which microbial population of 5,600,000 cells would decrease to 560,000 cells.
2. Disinfection
Explanation:
Hope it helps .
How Can Regulation be Accomplished? Chemotaxis by Pseudomonas aeruginosa requires regulation of macromolecules in response to signals. Protein regulation is very important and can be grouped into two categories: those that are based on protein activity and those that are based on the amount of protein present ,write the type of regulation described that does not affect the amount of protein present.
1. regulating amount of mRNA made
2. catabolite repression
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
4. attenuation controlling whether mRNA is translated
Answer:
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
Explanation:
The post-translational modification does not affect the amount of protein present because this type of change is only done to the protein when the translation process has finished, and there is a protein as a result. After the translation, the final product can suffer modifications such as the addition of different components, or enzymatic modifications. In other words, they are chemical changes that the protein experiences that do not affect the amount of protein present.
Which gas is a major contributor to ocean acidification? A. oxygen B. sulfur dioxide C. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen
Answer:C, carbon dioxide.
Explanation:Carbon Dioxide reacts with water forming Carbonic acid. This acid increases the acidity of the ocean.
Answer:
Explanation: got it correct
Comparison of glycogen synthesis and breakdown in muscle and liver reveals: A. Stimulation of glycogen breakdown in both tissues by epinephrine leads to enhanced glucose uptake by liver cells and enhanced glucose export from muscle cells. B. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues leads to glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle. C. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis in both tissues by epinephrine leads to glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle. D. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues is accompanied by decreased glycogenolysis. E. Epinephrine stimulates glycogen uptake in liver and breakdown in muscle.
Answer:
The correct options are C and D:
C- The inhibition of glycogen synthesis in both tissues by epinephrine leads to glycogenolysis in both the liver and muscle.
D- The stimulation of glycogen synthesis by insulin in both tissues is accompanied by a decrease in glycogenolysis.
Explanation:
The presence of epinephrine causes the glycogen reserve that is present in the liver and muscle to enter the glycogenolysis stage, that is, the chemical structures of glycogen are broken and simplified in energy coins (ATP) so that the activity muscle contract against stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system.
The adrenergic nervous system is one that promotes physical activity, physiological stress, flight from danger, and other activities, is also known as the sympathetic system and is where epinephrine or adrenaline predominates as a neurotransmitter.
The liver and muscle are the only possible organs to reserve glycogen in a limited way, once its reserve limits are exceeded it will begin to deposit in the form of adipose tissue, glycogenogenesis or formation of glycogen as reserve is promoted by insulin and the system parasympathetic nerve, visceversa to what we explained above with the sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine, since the latter break the glycogen reserves releasing glucose into the blood for muscle contraction.
In 1668 Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze will exclude the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, fies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The experiment was inconclusive because it did not nun long enough
B. The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
C. The expertment supports the hwpothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flhes
D. The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat
Answer:
The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies; that is only from reproduction and development.
Explanation:
The objective of this experimental set up by Francesco Radi was to demonstrate the concept of spontaneous generation. He concluded that, Maggots are not spontaneous generated from rotten meats, rather they are products of eggs laid by houseflies who visited the rotten meat to lay eggs. The maggots (larva) are products of complete metamorphosis, from egg to larva to pupa and adult. This is an indication that, new organisms are not formed form spontaneously, but are products of well-defined process of reproduction and development which in this case is a complete metamorphosis.
Based on this premise he concluded that, if maggots were products of laid eggs, then they should appear only when rotten meat is exposed to open air.However,if they are f products of spontaneous generation they should appear irrespective of the meat exposure to air or not.
How are lysosomes pro-nuclear dense bodies?
Answer:i hope this answers ur question
Explanation:
The function of the plasma membrane is....
Answer:
to protect the cell from it's surroundings
Explanation:
the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells
Explanation:
The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings.
Sorry if the ans is wrong
Please describe the regulation of the blood glucose 6 hours after a meal?
Please include all relevant organs, hormones, and actions.
Answer:
Find the description below in the explanation section
Explanation:
The body system regulates the blood sugar level via the hand-in-hand working of insulin and glucagon hormones, both produced by the Pancreas. After a meal, the food undergoes digestion and is broken down into glucose, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Insulin hormone is released by the pancreas (stimulated by a negative feedback) when the sugar level of the blood increases. This secretion of insulin causes cells to absorb glucose as source of energy, while liver and muscle cells store some of the excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN.
However, after about 6 hours of taking the meal, the blood sugar (glucose) level must have decreased. This triggers the secretion of Glucagon hormone by the Pancreas. Glucagon hormone, acts in an opposite manner as Insulin hormone, by causing the stored GLYCOGEN in the liver and muscle cells to be converted back to Glucose in order for cells to make use of it.
This continuous process occurs and it is how the body regulates the blood glucose levels.
Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?
a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Answer:
The correct answer would be:
Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Explanation:
The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.
This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.
Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).
This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.
maggots feed on dead and decaying organisms for energy. what are maggots
Answer:
Decomposers, or as they're alternatively known, detritovores.
Explanation:
Their job is to break down decaying/dead organic matter to recycle it into the soil for plants (mainly). Fungi and bacteria make up the vast majority of decomposers.
Which is NOT a characteristic of the
climax community?
a) it had a well-drained spatial structure
b) it has a wide variety of species
c) it has an unbalanced ecosystem
d) it has complex food chains
The largest taxon and consists of all the other taxis called
Answer:
Domain
Explanation:
-Lab-
"Why are cells so small"
Answer:
Explanation:
Because we need a lot of cells and if they were big only a small about would fit.
Jack has just returned from the hospital where Jack's father is recovering from a heart attack. The doctors told Jack that his dad's atherosclerosis is very serious. Jack and his wife, Melanie, are worried about Jack's father and also are starting to think about Jack's risk of also having heart disease in his lifetime. He sets up an appointment at his doctor's office and has his blood lipid levels evaluated for the first time. Let's see if you can answer some of the questions that Jack and Melanie have. Which risk factor does Jack have no control over?a. Obesityb. Geneticsc. Stressd. Atherogenic diete. Jack can change all of these risk factors.
The correct answer is B. Genetics
Explanation:
In health, a risk factor is a variable that can make a patient more likely to develop a disease or condition. Additionally, some of these factors can be controlled or changed by the patient, while others cannot be modified. Factors that can be controlled include stress, diet, weight, alcohol intake, and habits. This does not apply to factors such as age or genetics, for example, in the case of genetics, this is determined by the genes of each parent when a human being is formed, and therefore there is not any way to change this; although factors such as diet, stress, or smoking affect the expression of mutations in genes. Thus, the risk factor Jack has no control over is genetics.
in humans unattached earlobes are dominant over attached earlobes. which could be the genotybe for someone with attached earlobs/Answer/a is Ee/b is e/c is ee/D is E
Answer:
C. ee
Explanation:
attached earlobes isn't the dominant trait, if it isn't dominant then it'll have lower case letters to represent it
Answer:
C
Explanation
hopes this helps :]
Juan conducted an experiment and asked Catherine to replicate it. Juan’s values are 16, 15, 15, 16, and 15. Catherine’s values are 16, 14, 16, 15, and 15.
Answer:
i think inexact
Explanation:
Answer:
c
Explanation:
i took the exam i promise
The process of succession is necessary to maintain and establish stable communities. T or F
Answer: True it is necessary
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Hurry please!!!
Which statement accurately describes long-term environmental changes?
Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup.
Long-term environmental changes happen suddenly with little warning,
Long-term environmental changes occur in hundreds of years.
Long-term environmental changes immediately affect organisms in the environment
Answer:
A. or #1 -- Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
WORLD POPULATION GROWTH
20.000
10.000
World
5.000
Asia
Millions of people
2.000
Africa
1.000
Europe
500
200
United States
Mexico, Canada, & Greenland
100
Central America,
50 Caribbean Islands, &
South America
Oceania (Australia &
nearby islands in the Pacific)
10
1980
1950
1960
1970
1990
Year
Based on the information in the graph, which region's population will grow the
most in the next 40 years?
2000
2010
2020
2030
2040
2050
O A. Europe
O B. United States
O C. Asia
D. Africa
Answer:
option D
Explanation:
more than half of global population growth between now and 2050 is expected to occur in Africa. Africa has the highest rate of population growth among major areas
Based on the information in the graph, it is clear that Africa's population will grow the most in the next 40 years. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
Population refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in a specific geographic area at a given time. It is an important concept in ecology, as the size of a population can have significant impacts on the environment, other species, and human societies.
Populations can be studied at different levels of organization, from individual organisms to entire ecosystems, and can be characterized by a range of variables, including age structure, sex ratio, population density, and growth rate. Understanding population dynamics and how they are affected by factors such as competition, predation, disease, and human activities is crucial for effective conservation and management of natural resources.
Africa's population is currently only at 1,000 million people, which is much smaller than the population of Asia, which is at millions of people. Additionally, the graph shows that Africa's population is projected to increase rapidly in the coming decades, while other regions are projected to have more modest increases.
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During which phase of the cell cycle do chromatids form?
The women has had two miscarriages. What is the chance that she could have a normal child? a. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.b. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.c. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers.d. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers
The allosteric effector molecule 2,3-BPG facilitates transfer of oxygen between maternal and fetal blood in the placenta. Which of the following correctly describes the role of BPG in this process?
a. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is unable to cross the placenta into fetal blood, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
c. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
d. Fetal hemoglobin releases oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds more effectively to fetal hemoglobin causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
Answer:
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
Explanation:
BPG is a chemical compound which is found in red blood cells. It is known for decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen and thus helps in unloading oxygen from hemoglobin.
Owing to the structural difference, fetal hemoglobin binds to BPG with less affinity as compared to maternal hemoglobin thus it shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the left i.e. causes fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state. Due to this, fetal hemoglobin can carry up to 30% more oxygen as compared to maternal hemoglobin. As a result of this, oxygen is readily transferred to fetal blood when maternal blood enters placenta which restricts hypoxia in fetus.
Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction?
Answer:
all but the last one
Explanation:
NADH is not a product of the light reaction of photosynthesis.
• The role of NAD+ is that it acts as an electron carrier.
• NADH is formed from NAD when it oxidizes the compound by accepting electrons and adding hydrogen ions to the compound.
What do NADH mean?
NADH stands for "Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) + Hydrogen (H)." This chemical occurs naturally in the body and plays a role in the chemical process that produces energy.People use NADH supplements as medicine.Learn more about NADH here.
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Second class levers are best described as follows:___________.
A) "The muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum, and the effort required to move the load is at a mechanical advantage"
B) "The muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum, but the effort required to move the load is at a mechanical disadvantage"
C) "The muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, with a longer moment arm for the effort than for the load"
D) "The muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, with a longer moment arm for the load than for the effort"
Answer:
A, B, C, D!
Explanation:
Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?
2. Where does cellular respiration take places in the cell?
Answer:
Explanation:mitochondria
The enzymatic reactions of cellular respiration begin in the cytoplasm, but most of the reactions occur in the mitochondria. Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion. The folds in the inner membrane are called cristae.
Answer:
IT TAKES PLACE IN THE CYTOPLASM BUT MOST OF THE REACTIONS TAKE PLACE IN THE MITOCHONDRIA
Explanation:
Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion
HOPE IT HELPS
At the neuromuscular junction, _______ must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________ can enter the muscle fiber.
Answer:
At the neuromuscular junction, calcium must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of acetylcholine, which binds to ligand gates so sodium ions can enter the muscle fiber.
Explanation:
Skeletal fiber contractions are based on different physiological and biochemical phenomena that happen in every cell. These phenomena are due to stimulation produced by somatic motor neurons, which axons get in contact with muscle fibers through a neuromuscular synapse. In rest, attraction strengths between myosin and actin filaments are inhibited by the tropomyosin. When an action potential is originated in the central nervous system, it travels to the somatic motor neuron membrane: the muscle fiber, and activates the calcium channels releasing it in the neuron. Calcium makes vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter named acetylcholine (Ach) into the synaptic space in the juncture. Then, Ach binds to its receptors on the skeletal muscle fiber. This causes the ion channels to open, and positively charged sodium ions cross the membrane to get into the muscle fiber (sarcoplasm) and potassium get out. The difference in charges caused by the migration of sodium and potassium makes the muscle fiber membrane to become more positively charged (depolarized). The action potential caused by this depolarization enters the t-tubules depolarizing the inner portion of the muscle fiber. This activates calcium channels in the T tubules membrane, that make the calcium be released into the sarcolemma. At this point, tropomyosin is obstructing binding sites for myosin on the thin filament. When calcium binds to the troponin C, the troponin T alters the tropomyosin by moving it and then unblocks the binding sites. Myosin binds to the uncovered actin-binding sites, and while doing it ATP is transformed into ADP and inorganic phosphate. Z-bands are then pulled toward each other, thus shortening the sarcomere and the I-band, and producing muscle fiber contraction.
"Rank the sequence of cross bridge cycling, starting with the myosin-binding sites being exposed and ending with relaxation due to cross bridge cycling ending. Do not overlap any events."
Sequence:
a. Calcium ions pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Myosin head forms cross bridge with actin
c. Myosin binding sites covered
d. Power stroke moves thin filament
e. Cross bridges detach from actin
f. Myosin head is re-energized
g. Calcium ion concentration decreases below the threshold for binding to troponin
h. ATP attaches to myosin head
Answer:
Explanation:
This is the process of muscle contraction and relaxation in the muscle. The type of muscle involved is the skeleton muscle.
The process is initiated in the Central nervous system. Examples are in contraction of biceps and triceps.
It involves myosin head and actin filament coupled with the release of calcium ion from the sarcoplasm reticulum: this ion activates this process in the muscles. With the exposure of the music binding site on the acting filament, myosin is able to bind to acting filament bringing about this process.
a. ATP attaches to myosin head
b. Myosin head is re-energized
c. Myosin head forms cross bridge with actin
d. Power stroke moves thin filament
e. Cross bridges detach from actin
f. Myosin binding sites covered
g. Calcium ions pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
h. Calcium ion concentration decreases below the threshold for binding to troponin.
Muscle contraction results from the interaction between actin and myosin filament proteins.
During muscle contraction, ATP binds to myosin, which passes to a high-energy state and it allows actin and myosin to detach from each other.The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a specialized type of endoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells that acts to regulate the concentration of cytosolic calcium (Ca2+).The sequential steps are as follow:
Myosin head forms cross bridge with actinPower stroke moves thin filamentATP attaches to myosin headCross bridges detach from actinMyosin head is re-energizedCalcium ions pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulumCalcium ion concentration decreases below the threshold for binding to troponinMyosin binding sites coveredIn conclusion, muscle contraction results from the interaction between actin and myosin filament proteins.
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Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition
Answer:
seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors
Explanation:
Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.
10. How is Soil formed? What is Soil Erosion?
Answer:
soil is formed by weathering of rocks
soil erosion is the removal of the top soil by agents of erosion such as water, wind and ice
Soil is formed by various factors:
The Sun heats up rocks during the day so that they expand. At night, these rocks cool down and contract. Since all parts of the rock do not contract and expand at the same rate, this results in crack formation and huge rocks break up into smaller pieces.Water is another factor for soil formation. Water could get into the cracks in the rocks formed due to uneven heating by the Sun. If this water later freezes, it would cause the cracks to widen. Flowing water wears away even hard rock over long periods of time. Fast flowing water often carries big and small rock particles downstream. These rocks rub against each other and the resultant abrasion causes the rocks to wear into smaller and smaller particles. The water takes these particles along with it and deposits it further down its path. Soil is thus formed in places far away from its parent-rock.Wind also erode rocks down. The wind also sand from one place to the other.Living organisms also influence the formation of soil. The lichens grow on the rock surfaces. It releases certain substances that cause the rock surface to powder down and form a thin layer of soil. Other small particles like moss, are able to grow on this surface now and they cause the rock to break up further. The roots of big trees sometimes go into cracks in the rocks and as the roots grow bigger, the crack is forced bigger.Thus, soil is formed like this.Removal of the topsoil is known as the soil erosion.Hope you could get an idea from here.
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