The red line in the figure is an altitude of triangle HJL. Using right angle trigonometry, write an equation involving sinL

Answer:

T < -25

Step-by-step explanation:

Was correct on TTM

Answer:

Parallel!

Step-by-step explanation:

If you put these points on a graph and connect the dots to be two lines, they are perfectly side to side :)

Answer: 25 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Simply do 40(UN)-15(CN) to get 25(UC)

Hope it helps <3

Answer:

Option D is the correct option

Solution,

Here,

UN = 40

CN = 15

Now,

UN = UC + CN

plugging the values,

40 = UC + 15

-UC = 15 - 40

-UC = -25

The difference sign (-) will be cancelled in both sides:

UC = 25

hope this helps...

Good luck on your assignment..

Answer:

x = 6 and y = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

2x + 3y = 18 .......... Eqn 1

3x - 3y = 12 ........... Eqn 2

Add both Equations to eliminate y

we have

2x + 3x + 3y - 3y = 18 + 12

5x = 30

Divide both sides by 5

5x / 5 = 30/5

x = 6

Substitute x = 6 into any of the Equations

Using equation 1

we have

2(6) + 3y = 18

3y = 18 - 12

3y = 6

Divide both sides by 3

That's

3y/3 = 6/3

y = 2

Therefore x = 6 and y = 2

Hope this helps

Responda:

13 gramas

Explicação passo a passo:

Answer:

60-|||

61-

62-||

62

64-|||

65

66

67-|

68-|||

69-|

70-||

71

72-||

73

74-||

75

76-||

77

78-|

This is a stem and leaf plot.

mean is 138.2/20=6.91

median of 20 is half way between 10th and 11th or an ordered plot. The 10th and the 11th are both 6.8, so that is the median.

6.4 and 6.8 are modes, but they are so minimal I would say there isn't a clear mode.

The range is 1.8, the largest-the smallest

This is not a normal distribution.

z=(x-mean) sd

a.(72-70.5)/1.5=1 so z>1 is the probability or 0.1587.

b.shorter than 67.5 inches is (67.5-70.5)/1.5 or z < = -2, and probability is 0.0228.

c.Between 69 and 72 inches is +/- 1 sd or 0.6826.

95% is 1.96 sd s on either side or +/- 1.96*1.5=+/- 2.94 interval on either side of 70.5

(67.56, 73.44)units in inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, notice that we can cancel out an x in the second term. Thus:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{3x^2}{x^2+x} =\frac{3x^2}{x(x+1)} =\frac{3x}{x+1}[/tex]

As with the last question, change the sign to multiplication and "flip" the second term:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{2x-1}{x+1}\cdot \frac{x+1}{3x}[/tex]

Multiply straight across:

[tex]\displaystyle =\frac{(2x-1)(x+1)}{(x+1)(3x)}[/tex]

We can cancel the (x + 1) term:

[tex]\displaystyle =\frac{2x-1}{3x}[/tex]

This cannot be simplified further. Hence, our answer is B.

Answer:

It is B)

Step-by-step explanation:

Ap3x Approved

Answer:

j = -37

Step-by-step explanation:

First find the slope of 2x + 3y = 21

Solve for y

Subtract 2x from each side

2x-2x + 3y =-2x+ 21

3y = -2x+21

Divide by 3

3y/3 = -2x /3 + 21/3

y = -2/3 x +7

This is in slope intercept form y = mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept

m = -2/3

The slope of parallel lines are equal

Using the two points

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

-2/3 = (17 - -9)/(j-2)

-2/3 = (17 +9)/(j-2)

Using cross products

-2(j-2) = 3 ( 17+9)

-2j +4 = 26*3

-2j +4 = 78

Subtract 4 each side

-2j = 78-4

-2j = 74

Divide by -2

-2j/-2 = 74/-2

j = -37

Answer:

40x - 16

Step-by-step explanation:

(see attached for reference)

By utilizing the distributive property:

4(10x -4)

= (10x)(4) -4 (4)

= 40x - 16

Answer:

4x10x= 40x           -4x4=-16         40xtimes-4<-----------thats your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

  f(x) = –x^2 – 12x – 36

Step-by-step explanation:

The parent function, x^2, touches the x-axis at x=0. Translating it 6 units left replaces x with x-(-6) = x+6, so the function is ...

  f(x) = (x+6)^2 = x^2 +12x +36

Reflecting the graph across the x-axis doesn't change the x-intercept, so Heather could be writing ...

  f(x) = -x^2 -12x -36

It's D.

I have to have at least 20 characters.

Answer:

5 5/12

Step-by-step explanation:

you find the common denominator which is 12

2 6/12

8/12

2 3/12

now u add them all

hope this helps

Answer:

5 5/12 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

no solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

y = − 3 x + 9

3 y = − 9 x + 9

Multiply the first equation  by -3

-3(y )=-3( − 3 x + 9)

-3y = 9x -27

3 y = − 9 x + 9

-------------------------

0 = 0 -18

0 = -18

This is never true so there are no solutions

Answer:

for kahn academy -- b -- ( no solutions)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

  2.908 s

Step-by-step explanation:

The "work" is most easily done by a graphing calculator. We only need to tell it the equation of motion.

For speeds in feet per second, the appropriate equation for vertical ballistic motion is ...

  h(t) = -16t² +v₀t +s₀

where v₀ is the initial vertical velocity in ft/s and s₀ is the initial height in feet. The vertical velocity is the vertical component of the initial velocity vector, so is (65 ft/s)(sin(44°)). We want to find t for h=0.

  0 = -16t² +65sin(44°) +4

Dividing by -16 gives ...

  0 = t^2 -2.82205t -0.2500

Using the quadratic formula, we find ...

  t ≈ (2.82205 ±√(2.82205² -4(1)(-0.25))/2 ≈ 1.41103 +√2.24099

  t ≈ 2.90802

It will take about 2.908 seconds for the discus to reach the ground.

_____

Comment on the question

You're apparently supposed to use the equation for ballistic motion even though we know a discus has a shape that allows it to "fly". It doesn't drop like a rock would.

Answer:

given,

selling price (sp)=rs 5 ×30

=rs 150

now, gain %=20%

cost price (cp)=

[tex] \frac{sp \times 100}{100 + gain\%} [/tex]

[tex] = \frac{150 \times 100}{100 + 20} [/tex]

therefore cp= rs125

now,

again in 2nd case

sp= rs 27×5

therefore sp=rs 135

and cp= rs125

now, sp>cp so,

[tex]gain\% = \frac{sp - cp}{cp} \times 100\%[/tex]

or, gain=

[tex] = \frac{135 - 125}{125} \times 100\%[/tex]

therefore gain %= 8%.... is answer

hope it helps..

The value is 44.977

Feel pleasure to help u

Answer:

44.977

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. 2,589.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Salary=$3500

Less:

Federal income withheld

15% of $3500

=15/100×$3500

=$525

Social security tax of 6.2%

6.2% of $3500

=6.2/100 × $3500

=$217

Medicare tax of 1.45%

1.45% of $3500

1.45/100 × $3500

=$50.75

Health insurance premium=$48

Savings plan of 2%

2% of $3500

=2/100 × $3500

=$70

Total less:= $525 + $217 + $50.75 + $48 + $70

Eric's net pay =$3500 - $910.75

=$2,589.25

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(6,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

1) convert both equations  to slope intercept form:

y=-x+8

and

y=x-4

now graph both equations separately by intercepts:

x int:  0=-x+8

-8=-x

8=x

y int:  y=0+8

y=8

so the two coordinate points for first equation are (0,8) and (8,0)

lets move on two second equation: y=x-4

x int:  0=x-4

4=x

y int y=0-4

y=-4

so the 2 coordinate points are (4,0) and (0,4)

lets graph these two equations and see where they intersect:

(see graph below), the intersection is at (6,2) so (6,2) is our answer

hope this helps

Answer:

23.14

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve for the area of the figure by dividing it up into parts.  You can divide into a half-circle and a triangle

Half-Circle

The diameter is 6.  This means that the radius is 3.  Use the formula for area of a circle.  Divide the answer by two since you only have a half-circle.

A = πr²

A = π(3)²

A = 9π

A = 28.274

28.274/2 = 14.137

Triangle

The base is 3 and the height 6.  Use the formula for area of a triangle.

A = 1/2bh

A = 1/2(6)(3)

A = 3(3)

A = 9

Add the two areas together.

14.137 + 9 = 23.137 ≈ 23.14

The area is 23.14.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The figure consists of a semi circle and a triangle

Area of the figure = Area of semi circle + Area of triangle

Area of semi circle is 1/2πr²

where r is the radius

radius = diameter/2

radius = 6/2 = 3

Area of semi circle is

1/2π(3)²

1/2×9π

14.14 sq. units

Area of a triangle is 1/2×b×h

h is the height

b is the base

h is 6

b is 3

Area of triangle is

1/2×3×6

9 sq. units

Area of figure is

14.14 + 9

= 23.14

Which is 23 sq. units to the nearest hundredth

Hope this helps you.

Answer:

QUESTION 2 -> Correct option: A.

QUESTION 3 -> Correct option: C.

Step-by-step explanation:

QUESTION 2

To find the amount of tax we just need to multiply the tax rate by the original price of the product:

[tex]Tax = 29\% * 53.93[/tex]

[tex]Tax = 0.29 * 53.93[/tex]

[tex]Tax =\$15.64[/tex]

Then, to find the total selling price, we need to sum the original price to the tax value:

[tex]Total = tax + price[/tex]

[tex]Total = 15.64 + 53.93[/tex]

[tex]Total = \$69.57[/tex]

Correct option: A.

QUESTION 3

To find the final value after 2 years, we can use the formula:

[tex]P = Po * (1 + r*t)[/tex]

Where P is the final value, Po is the inicial value, r is the interest and t is the amount of time. Then, we have that:

[tex]P = 10000 * (1 + 0.08 * 2)[/tex]

[tex]P = \$11600[/tex]

Correct option: C.

Answer:

it takes

[tex]\boxed {\red {2 \: \: months}}[/tex]

for 10 builders

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]4 \: \: \: builders = 5 \: month \\ 10 \: builders = x[/tex]

Let us solve

[tex]4 = 5 \\ 10 = x[/tex]

so

[tex]4 = x \\ 10 = 5[/tex]

use cross multiplication

[tex]5 \times 4 = 10 \times x \\ 20 = 10x \\ \frac{20}{10} = \frac{10x}{10} \\ \green {x = 2}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{2months}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

B1 = 4

M1 = 5

B2 = 10

M2 = x (we have to find this)

Since it is an inverse proportion (more builders will take less time and vive versa), we'll write it in the order of

=> B1 : B2 = M2 : M1

=> 4:10 = x : 5

Product of Means = Product of Extremes

=> 10*x = 4*5

=> 10x = 20

Dividing both sides by 10

=> x = 2 months

So, it will take 2 months to build classrooms by 10 builders.

Answer:

line passes through the vertex

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=-3(x+2)^2+4

x=-2 it is the x of the vertex

Answer:

14.0008 grams of 27% and 7.9992 grams of 52%

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that in the end we want 22 grams of 36.09% copper, meaning in the end we want 36.09% of the 22 grams to be copper. This means we can multiply 36.09% by 22 to see how much copper we want in the end.

To find out how much of each alloy to use, we can multiply the percentage of copper in the alloy be a variable x, which will be how much of that alloy we use. For the other alloy, we can multiply the percentage by (22-x) grams as we know in the end we want 22 grams and if x+y=22, than y would equal 22-x, and in this case this simplifies it to only use a single variable.

Now finally, making the equation we get 27x+52(22-x)=36.09(22). We can solve this and get 27x+1144-52x=793.98, then combine like terms and get -25x+1144=793.98. Next you have to subtract 1144 from both sides to get -25x=-350.02. Dividing both sides by -25 we get x=14.0008. This is how many grams of 27% copper was used. Now we can subtract this from 22 to get how much 52% copper was used, and we get 22-14.0008=7.9992 grams of 52% copper.

Answer:

[tex] P(X=8)[/tex]

And using the probability mass function we got:

[tex]P(X=8)=(20C8)(0.58)^8 (1-0.58)^{20-8}=0.0486[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

[tex]X \sim Binom(n=20, p=1-0.42=0.58)[/tex]

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

[tex]P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

[tex]nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}[/tex]

And we want to find this probability:

[tex] P(X=8)[/tex]

And using the probability mass function we got:

[tex]P(X=8)=(20C8)(0.58)^8 (1-0.58)^{20-8}=0.0486[/tex]

The probability of exactly eight successful trials is 0.0486 and this can be determined by using the formula of the probability mass function.

Given :

According to the binomial distribution, the probability mass function is given by:

[tex]\rm P(X) = \; (^nC_x )(p^x)(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

where the value of n is 20 and the value of (p = 1 - 0.42 = 0.58).

Now, substitute the values of known terms in the above expression of probability mass function.

[tex]\rm P(X=8) = \; (^{20}C_8 )((0.58)^8)(1-0.58)^{20-8}[/tex]

Simplify the above expression in order to determine the probability of exactly eight successful trials.

P(X = 8) = 0.0486

For more information, refer to the link given below:

https://brainly.com/question/23017717

Answer:

Mean increase or decrease (same quantity) according to the quantity of the increment or reduction

As all elements were equally affected the standard deviation will remain the same

Step-by-step explanation:

For the original set of salaries: ( In thousands of $ )

51, 53, 48, 62, 34, 34, 51, 53, 48, 30, 62, 51, 46

Mean = μ₀ = 47,92

Standard deviation  =  σ = 9,56

If we raise all salaries in the same amount  ( 5 000 $ ), the nw set becomes

56,58,53,67,39,39,56,58,53,35,67,56,51

Mean   =  μ₀´  = 52,92

Standard deviation  =  σ´ = 9,56

And if we reduce salaries in the same quantity ( 2000 $ ) the set is

49,51,46,60,32,32,49,51,46,28,60,49,44

Mean μ₀´´ = 45,92

Standard deviation  σ´´ = 9,56

What we observe

1.-The uniform increase of salaries, increase the mean in the same amount

2.-The uniform reduction of salaries, reduce the mean in the same quantity

3.-The standard deviation in all the sets remains the same.

We can describe the situation as a translation of the set along x-axis (salaries). If we normalized the three curves we will get a taller curve (in the first case) and a smaller one in the second, but the  data spread around the mean will be the same

Any uniform change in the data will directly affect the mean value

Uniform changes in values in data set will keep standard deviation constant

Answer:

1.875

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the expected winnings, we need to find the probability of all cases possible, multiply each case by the value of the case, and sum all these products.

In the die, we have 6 possible values, each one with a probability of 1/6, and the value of each output is half the value in the die, so we have:

[tex]E_1 = \frac{1}{6}\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{6}\frac{2}{2} +\frac{1}{6}\frac{3}{2} +\frac{1}{6}\frac{4}{2} +\frac{1}{6}\frac{5}{2} +\frac{1}{6}\frac{6}{2}[/tex]

[tex]E_1 = \frac{1}{12}(1+2+3+4+5+6)[/tex]

[tex]E_1 = \frac{21}{12} = \frac{7}{4}[/tex]

Now, analyzing the coin, we have heads or tails, each one with 1/2 probability. The value of the heads is 2 wins, and the value of the tails is the expected value of the die we calculated above, so we have:

[tex]E_2 = \frac{1}{2}2 + \frac{1}{2}E_1[/tex]

[tex]E_2 = 1 + \frac{1}{2}\frac{7}{4}[/tex]

[tex]E_2 = 1 + \frac{7}{8}[/tex]

[tex]E_2 = \frac{15}{8} = 1.875[/tex]

Answer:

5/7

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given two points so we can find the slope by using

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

    = (15-5)/(21-7)

    =10/14

   5/7