The peripheral nervous system is divided into two main parts: Autonomic nervous system (ANS) and Somatic nervous system (SNS).
The peripheral nervous system is one of two components that make up a bilateral animal's nervous system, the other being the central nervous system. The PNS is made up of nerves and ganglia that are located outside of the brain and spinal cord.
The two components are the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). The CNS, which includes the brain and spinal cord, is the site of information processing and control, whereas the PNS includes all nerves in the body that are connected to the CNS (brain and spinal cord).
The nerves and ganglia are peripheral nervous system organs. Nerves are made up of bundles of nerve fibers, just like muscles are made up of bundles of muscle fibers. Cranial and spinal nerves connect the CNS to peripheral organs like muscles and glands.
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Which tissue type forms binding supporting and transporting structures and usually contains collagen for strength.
Collagen, which gives muscle tissue its strength, also produces structures that are binding, supporting, and transporting.
What kind of tissue provides binding and support?In addition to holding structures together and providing support for organs and the body as a whole, connective tissues also function to repair damaged tissues, store fat, transport substances, and defend against disease. They exist everywhere over the body.
What type of connective tissue contains the most collagen?In comparison to loose connective tissue, dense connective tissue includes more collagen fibers. Fibers are arranged in tidy, parallel bundles in dense regular connective tissue, It contains collagen fibers as well as elastic fibers, both of which offer excellent tensile strength and elasticity in one direction.
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1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of a molecule that controls a
repressible operon?
A) The molecule binds to the promoter region and decreases the affinity of RNA polymerase for
the promoter.
B) The molecule binds to the operator region and blocks the attachment of RNA polymerase to
the promoter.
C) The molecule increases the production of inactive repressor proteins.
D) The molecule binds to the repressor protein and activates it.
An operon is referred to as repressible if its transcription is typically on until a repressor protein inhibits it.The operator does not readily attach to the repressor protein.It must have the presence of the its corepressor because it is generated in an inactive state.
C) The chemical stimulates the synthesis of dormant repressor proteins.
What causes repressor protein production?As a result, in a functional group known as an operon, structural genes are connected to an operator gene.
In the end, a regulator gene that generates a little protein molecule is called a repressor regulates the operon's activity.
What triggers repressor activation?Repressor,an amino acid binds with met repressor and activates it when it is present.The repressor's presence just on DNA strand prevents RNA production,The repressor separates from the operator whenever the amino acid is absent, and RNA production continues.
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mimosine is a natural product found in large quantities in the seeds and foliage of some legume plants. what functional groups are present in mimosine?
The functional groups present in Mimosine are carboxylic acid, ketone, amine, and alcoholic groups.
Mimosine is a natural substance that is abundant in some legume plants' seeds and foliage. It has been demonstrated to cause hair loss and hair growth suppression in mice. Alcohol, ketone, amine, and carboxylic acid make up the chemical known as mimosine. Six carbon atoms with sp2 hybridization and two carbon atoms with sp3 hybridization make up the chemical "mimosine." 24-alpha bonds and 4 pi-bonds make up mimosine.
One of the main effects of the amitotic drug mimosine is to inhibit the development of hair. It has undergone testing to determine whether it might be used to chemically shear sheep. In Indonesia, leucaena seed, which is high in mimosine, is typically only used sparingly in human diets as a curry sambal.
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course hero what are homologous features? explain why they are important in biological classification, and give an example of a homologous feature.
They point to linkages in evolution. One such instance is the humerus bone, which is present in all vertebrates with limbs and was passed down from the ancestor of all vertebrates with limbs (an early amphibian).
What is the humerus bone and what does it do?The bone in your upper arm between your elbow and shoulder is called the humerus. Its primary job is to give your shoulder support and a wide range of arm movements.
What makes the humerus significant?The humerus supports the arm structurally and serves as the place at which numerous significant upper body muscles, including the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and rotator cuff muscles, insert.
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know of them as packrats. let's assume that the trait of bringing home shiny objects (h) is dominant to the trait of carrying home only dull objects (h). suppose two heterozygous individuals are crossed a: hh 1 b: hh 2 c: hh 1 what will be the genotypic ratio of the offspring? what will be the phenotypic ratio?
The genotypic ratio can be determined by calculating Punnett square ratios as 1:2:1. Consequently, these are the monohybrid cross-ratios: For a monohybrid cross, the genotypic ratio is 1:2:1. A 3:1 phenotypic ratio would be appropriate.
How can I determine the phenotypic ratio of a progeny?We examine the alleles of the parent organisms and predict the frequency at which those genes will be expressed by the offspring in order to determine a phenotypic ratio. nearly always.
What does the phenotypic 9 3 3 1 ratio mean?The ratio of 9:3:3:1 simply implies that nine of them are wild-type, or normal; six of them display one mutant and one normal character; three of them are normal for one trait while the other three are normal for the opposite trait; and one of them exhibits both mutant traits.
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When something heats up, new energy is created, and when something cools down, energy is destroyed.
Whilst you calm down some thing, the motion of debris or atoms inside that decreases, now no longer strength. Therefore, the given statement "whilst some thing heats up, new strength is created, and whilst some thing cools down, strength is destroyed" is clearly false.
Energy can't be created or destroyed, it could handiest be moved or alternate form. The handiest manner to chill an item down is to take away the heat (strength) from it.
When a substance heats up, the upward thrust in temperature makes those debris flow quicker and encounter every other. Thermal strength is the strength that comes from the heated up substance. The warmer the substance, the extra its debris flow, and the better its thermal strength.
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what is the appropriate order of test positivity with different types of laboratory tests following infection with hiv?
The appropriate order of test positivity with different types of laboratory tests following infection with hiv are HIV RNA comes after the HIV p24 antigen, then HIV antibody.
Even though HIV tests are very accurate, the virus cannot be found right away after infection. The sort of test performed will determine how quickly HIV can be detected. The three HIV testing methods are antibody, antigen/antibody, and nucleic acid assays (NAT). Antibody tests look for HIV antibodies in a person's blood or oral fluid. After exposure, it may take 23 to 90 days for an antibody test to show HIV. Antibody tests, which are also the quickest available tests, are the only HIV self-tests authorized by the FDA. HIV is often more difficult to detect using tests that require blood from a vein than it is with tests that use oral fluid or blood from a fingerstick. Antigen/antibody testing can identify both HIV antibodies and antigens. A person's immune system creates antibodies in response to viral exposure, such as HIV. An individual's immune system is triggered by foreign chemicals known as antigens.
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At embryonic day 7.0 in mouse embryos, BMP4 and BMP8b are secreted from the extraembryonic ectoderm. In response to these factors a small population of cells at the posterior/caudal end of the embryo will _____. Finish the sentence with the best answer.
A. express Blimp1 and become oocytes
B. express Fragilis, Blimp1 and Stella and become primordial germ cells
C. express Fragilis, Blimp1 and Stella and become spermatozoa
D. express retinoic acid and undergo meiosis.
In response to these factors a small population of cells at the posterior/caudal end of the embryo will B. express Fragilis, Blimp1 and Stella and become primordial germ cells.
A common generic model for the development of mammals is the mouse embryo. They differ from ordinary gastrulating/neurulating mammalian embryos, though. Mouse and rat embryos take on the shape of a "egg cylinder" before rotating, but most mammalian embryos, including those of humans, assume a flat disc shape.
As the fertilized egg moves through the oviduct and into the uterus, it splits and grows. This procedure takes 4-5 days in mice. The zona pellucida, a protective membrane on the egg, prevents the egg from implanting in the oviduct wall.
The embryonic origins of sperm and eggs known as primordial germ cells (PGCs) transmit genetic and epigenetic information from one generation to the next. In mammals, BMP signaling from the surrounding tissues induces them from a subpopulation of cells in the peri-implantation epiblast.
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some biologists prefer to focus efforts on preserving endangered species while others prefer to focus on preserving ecosystems. what is your advice to biologists that are choosing which way to follow?
The correct answer is b) Preserving ecosystems is the first thing to do because this problem is more closely related to us, as human beings.
Healthy ecosystems maintain our soil, purify our air, regulate our climate, recycle nutrients, and provide us with food. For the production of medicines and other items, they provide resources and raw materials. They are the foundation of all civilizations and support our economies. Simply put, without these "ecosystem services," we could not survive. They are known as our natural capital.
The biodiversity of an environment is the most crucial indicator of its health. A wide variety of species will be able to reject threats more successfully than a small number of them in large populations. Even if some species are killed by pollution, climate change, or human activities, the ecosystem may adapt and continue to exist.
The complete question is:
Some biologists prefer to focus efforts on preserving endangered species while others prefer to focus on preserving ecosystems. What is your advice to biologists that are choosing which way to follow?
a) Both types of efforts are not needed; the decreasing biodiversity is a natural process of mass extinction.
b) Preserving ecosystems is the first thing to do because this problem is more closely related to us, as human beings.
c) It is important to preserve the species first as humans can create artificial ecosystems.
d) Both types of efforts are needed; their relative importance depends on the circumstances.
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5. in an area with a heterogeneous distribution of suitable habitats, the dispersion pattern of a population is probably
In an area with a heterogeneous distribution of suitable habitats, the dispersion pattern of a population is probably clumped.
What is meant by heterogenous distribution?Heterogeneity means that your populations, samples and results are different. It is the opposite of homogeneity, which means that the population, data and results are the same. A heterogeneous population is the one where every member has a different value for the characteristic you're interested in.
Homogenous means alike whereas heterogenous means distinct from one another. Therefore, homogenous population has little variation and you could refer to a specific trait such as hair color or you could also refer to genetic diversity.
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mr. r has beta-thalassemia minor; he is heterozygous for the beta-thalassemia gene, so he only makes half as many beta chains as normal. the red blood cells containing abnormal hemoglobin are destroyed more rapidly, so mr. r suffers from mild anemia (low hematocrit). what are the beta chains, and why are they important in the hemoglobin molecule? choose the best answer. mr. r has beta-thalassemia minor; he is heterozygous for the beta-thalassemia gene, so he only makes half as many beta chains as normal. the red blood cells containing abnormal hemoglobin are destroyed more rapidly, so mr. r suffers from mild anemia (low hematocrit). what are the beta chains, and why are they important in the hemoglobin molecule? choose the best answer. beta chains are the part of the erythrocyte that holds the hemoglobin in position so it can properly receive oxygen. beta chains are the part of the hemoglobin that carries oxygen. all of the protein in hemoglobin is beta chains; therefore, hemoglobin could not exist without them. beta chains are two of the four protein chains that hold heme groups in position and modulate their oxygen-binding properties.
Beta chains are two of the four protein chains that hold heme groups in position and modulate their oxygen-binding properties
What is Hemoglobin ?
A blood test is necessary to determine how much hemoglobin is present in your blood. Hemoglobin is the main substance found in your red blood cells. Hemoglobin is a protein made up of the substances heme and globin. Heme is made composed of iron and porphyrin, a pigment that gives your blood its red color.
Hemoglobin's essential job is to move oxygen and carbon dioxide through your blood. Hemoglobin is carried around in your body by red blood cells. If your hemoglobin level is too low, you might not be able to give the other cells in your body the oxygen they need to survive.
Four iron atoms are included in each hemoglobin protein, which allows it to carry four oxygen molecules. Anywhere that blood flows, hemoglobin connects to red blood cells and distributes oxygen throughout the body. The billions of cells that make up the body each require oxygen to maintain and repair themselves.
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Why do you think that it is important for body functions to return normal after exercise?
Answer: Think about it when you exercise your heating up inside so you body is functioning every part inside your body but then after a while you start to calm down and your back to normal again. But then the next day your going to feel all sorts of your body parts feeling like its bruised up but that's just your body still functioning of all the exercise you did that day!
Explanation: Hope this helps?
consider a negatively charged protein adsorbed on anion-exchange gel at ph 8. (a) how will a gradient from ph 8 to some lower ph be use- ful for eluting the protein?
As the pH falls, the protein becomes protonated, which lessens the intensity of the negative charge. With time, protein retention gets weaker.
Ion exchange chromatography is used to separate ionizable substances based on their overall charge. This method allows the separation of similar types of molecules that would be difficult to separate by other methods because the charge carried by the target molecule may be easily regulated by changing buffer pH.
Ion exchange chromatography is widely used to separate charged biological components such as proteins, peptides, amino acids, or nucleotides. Amino acids protein , which are zwitterionic compounds with chemical groups that are both positively and negatively charged, are the building blocks of protein. Depending on the pH of their environment, proteins might have a net positive charge, a net negative charge, or no charge at all. The pH level where there is no net charge on a molecule is known as its isoelectric point, or pI.
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a deficiency of pancreatic exocrine secretion can result in which one of the following? group of answer choices an increased ph in the intestinal lumen an increased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins a decreased formation of bile salt micelles increased levels of blood chylomicrons decreased amounts of fat in the stool
A deficiency of pancreatic exocrine secretion can result in a decreased formation of bile-salt micelles.
The pancreas produces bicarbonate and digestive enzymes (pancreatic lipase and colipase, enzymes that degrade dietary lipids). Bicarbonate neutralizes stomach acid. The decreased production of bicarbonate will lead to a decrease of intestinal pH. Low levels of pancreatic lipase results in the decreased digestion of dietary triacylglycerols, this will lead to the formation of fewer bile salt micelles. The reduced pH will also interfere with the bile salts to effectively form micelles. Intestinal cells will have less substrate for chylomicron formation, and less fat soluble vitamins will be absorbed. Therefore, more dietary fat will be excreted in the feces. Thus, deficiency of pancreatic exocrine secretion can result in a decreased formation of bile-salt micelles.
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describe and explain the circumstances under which dendritic drainage patterns develop and the conditions under which trellis drainage patterns develop.
A dendritic stream consists of the random merging of streams, with tributaries joining larger streams irregularly at acute angles generally developing in regions where the underlying structure does not significantly control the drainage.
Trellis stream drainage patterns develop on alternating bands of hard and soft strata, with long parallel subsequent streams linked by short, right-angled segments and joined by short tributaries.
Dendritic drainage: The steams display a pattern that resembles a branching tree. These were created in lithologically consistent regions, such as sedimentary, huge igneous, or metamorphic rock. It grows on strata that are either almost horizontal or very gently dipping. That surface has virtually little relief. In the Himalayan region, Deccan plateau, and glaciated lowland region, this type of drainage pattern is quite prevalent.
Short tributaries join the mainstream at practically a straight angle in a drainage system known as a trellis. It grows in an area above strata that are crumpled and inclined. The mainstream develops in the strike troughs cut into the soft rocks, in contrast to the dendritic pattern, while tributaries flow down resistive ridges.
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Meiosis produces four haploid cells from a single cell. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis ii, ___________ of the four haploid cells after meiosis ii will have _______ chromosomes.
Following meiosis II, the four haploid cells will have 23 chromosomes.
What procedure resulted in four haploid cells?Starting with a single diploid cell and ending with four haploid cells, meiosis entails two nuclear and cell divisions without an interphase in between. The four stages of each division—meiosis I and meiosis II—are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
How many haploid cells are generated during meiosis?Therefore, meiosis produces four haploid daughter cells that are each genetically distinct and have half the DNA of the parent cell (Figure below). The parent cell of a human cell has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs), hence the cells created during meiosis have 23. Gametes will develop from these cells.
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Prokaryotes stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell ___.
pathways that transmit information from internal organs to the brain are called , whereas pathways that transmit information from proprioceptors and the body wall are called
pathways that transmit information from internal organs to the brain are called viscerosensory, whereas pathways that transmit information from proprioceptors and the body wall are called somatosensory.
The somatosensory system transmits information from sensory receptors in the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles, allowing one to perceive and respond to stimuli arising from the external environment as well as from the position or movement of the body. The viscerasensory, or internal organs, provide visceral sensory input. Sensory neurons monitor the heart, lungs, stomach, and bladder so that the CNS can regulate them. Proprioceptors are sensory receptors found deep in tissues (such as skeletal or heart muscle, tendons, the gastrointestinal wall, or the carotid sinus) that function in proprioception (as in response to changes in physical tension or chemical condition within the body).
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1. Which of the following is a general feature of kinases? (13% answered correctly) A. NONE OF THESE B. The catalyzed reaction must be protected from water C. ALL OF THESE D. Kinases convert aldoses to ketoses E Phosphoryl groups are transferred from AMP to an acceptor
B. The catalyzed reaction must be protected from water is a general feature of kinases.
What are kinases?
Kinases are the enzymes that facilitate the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to an acceptor. Other molecules in the cell might change their state and become active or inactive as a result. Numerous cell processes involve kinases. Certain kinases that are connected to cancer are the focus of some cancer treatments.
The enzymes known as kinases are responsible for catalyzing the transfer of phosphate groups from high-energy molecules like ATP that can donate phosphate to particular substrates. This method is known as phosphorylation. Kinases are members of the phosphotransferase family of enzymes.
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a vaginal swab for anaerobic culture is received in the laboratory. how should this specimen be handled?
Answer:
The specimen should be rejected
Explanation:
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once the hummingbird dna is cloned, we have the problem of finding the piece of dna that holds our gene of interest. explain how nucleic acid hybridization will accomplish this task.
The capacity of the gene's DNA to base-pair with a complementary sequence on another nucleic acid molecule is utilized in nucleic acid hybridization to identify the gene's DNA.
What is nucleic acid hybridization?
Single-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or ribonucleic acid (RNA) molecules anneal to complementary DNA or RNA during the process known as hybridization (or hybridisation) in molecular biology. Under physiological settings, a double-stranded DNA sequence is typically stable, but altering these conditions in the lab will cause the molecules to break into single strands. In addition to being complimentary to one another, these strands might also be complementary to other sequences in the area. The single-stranded molecules are able to "hybridize" or anneal to one another when the environment's temperature is lowered.
Nucleotide hybridization is essential for DNA replication and transcription of DNA into RNA, as well as for molecular biology methods including Southern and Northern blots, the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and the majority of DNA sequencing methods.
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TRUE/FALSE. histoplasma and coccidioides produce tuberculosis-like damage to the lungs that can be seen on x-ray images.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
write the two hardy-weinberg equations for a trimorphic gene, the equation for allele frequency and the equation for phenotype frequencies of individuals.
The two Hardy-Weinberg formulations for a trimorphic gene are, respectively, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 and Phenotype = genotype + development, which expresses the frequency of alleles and the frequency of phenotypes in an individual.
The Hardy-Weinberg equation, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, describes allele frequency & how these alleles are divided into genotypes within a population. The two variables p and q stand in for the genotypes, whereas p2, 2pq, and q2 stand in for the alleles.
The total number of phenotypic categories will be equal to (2n + 1) if n represents the total of gene pairs.
Phenotype describes how DNA manifests physically. The physical traits that are present in a population are easily described by the phenotypic ratio. A ratio called phenotype frequency measures how frequently a specific feature occurs in a population throughout one generation.
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yellow-headed blackbirds and marsh wrens often occur in the same marshy areas. when they occur together, territory sizes are relatively small with marsh wrens occupying territories at the edge of the marsh, and yellow-headed blackbirds occupying the edges of the ponds at the center of the marsh. in a removal experiment at two different sites, marsh wrens were removed and yellow-headed blackbirds remained. at the second site, yellow-headed blackbirds were removed and marsh wrens remained. at both sites, the territory sizes increased for each species in the regions where the other species is found when they occur together. which statement best reflects which portion of the niche is occupied when both species occur together?
The statement that best reflects which portion of the niche is occupied when both species occur together is that both species occupy their realized niche when found together.
What is a ecological niche?
The term "niche" in ecology refers to an organism's place in a community. A species' niche includes both the physical and environmental variables (such as temperature or topography) and interactions with other species that it needs to survive (like predation or competition).
Marsh Wren (Cistothorus palustris) and Yellow-headed Blackbird (Xanthocephalus xanthocephalus) activity centers are geographically separated. This separation may take place because the two species favor distinct habitats, or because one species excludes the other. These theories were put to the test by keeping track of how Marsh Wren territories changed in size and position over the course of the breeding season and by getting rid of Yellow-headed Blackbird nesting colonies. The theory based on Yellow-headed Blackbirds actively excluding Marsh Wrens is best supported by the extension of Marsh Wren territory into blackbird breeding regions following both the natural emigration of blackbirds and their removal.
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Why is approximately 50% of any individual’s dna inherited from that individual’s father?.
Each pair receives one chromosome from each parent.
How much of your DNA is passed down from your father?23 pairs of chromosomes, those thread-like structures in every cell's nucleus that hold a person's genetic instructions, are among the numerous things parents pass down to their offspring. Our moms give us one set of 23 chromosomes, while our men give us another set of 23 chromosomes.
What influences how much DNA each parent contributes to you?The majority of us have 46 chromosomes total, or 23 pairs. Your mum gives you one of each pair, and your dad gives you the other one. This means that each parent contributes exactly half of your DNA to you.
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aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the filtrate. group of answer choices true false
Principal cells absorb sodium and release potassium into the lumen in response to aldosterone. Potassium ions and hydrogen ions are exchanged in alpha-intercalated cells, which are found in the collecting duct and late distal tubule. The potassium is absorbed while hydrogen is excreted into the lumen.
Aldosterone is a hormone that affects the kidney's tubules to increase sodium and water absorption into the blood; this chemical is directly linked to decreased urine production. The juxtaglomerular cells change prorenin to renin when the blood flow to the kidneys is decreased. Angiotensinogen becomes angiotensin I as a result.
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All cells have some characteristics in common; both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have.
Ribosomes, genetic material, cytoplasm, and plasma membranes are common components of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Structures are shared by both bacterial and eukaryotic cells. A plasma membrane, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and DNA are found in all cells. The plasma membrane, also known as the cell membrane, is the phospholipid layer that surrounds and protects the cell from the outside world.
The plasma membrane and the cytoplasm The plasma membrane serves as the gatekeeper, while the cytoplasm houses chemical processes.
The plasma membrane and the cytoplasm The plasma membrane serves as the gatekeeper, while the cytoplasm houses chemical processes.
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TRUE/FALSE the two major ascending tracts in the spinal cord carry somatic sensory stimuli to the third-order neurons in the thalamus of the brain
It is true that he two major ascending tracts in the spinal cord carry somatic sensory stimuli to the third-order neurons in the thalamus of the brain.
What is Neuron?
Neurons, also known as neurones or nerve cells, are the basic building blocks of the brain and nervous system. They are the cells in charge of absorbing sensory information from the outside world, issuing motor commands to our muscles, and converting and relaying electrical impulses at each stage along the way.
Information is transmitted via neurons. Between various brain regions and between the brain and the rest of the nervous system, information is transmitted using electrical impulses and chemical signals.
Therefore, It is true that he two major ascending tracts in the spinal cord carry somatic sensory stimuli to the third-order neurons in the thalamus of the brain.
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For piano playing, which muscles would have the fewest fibers controlled by each motor neuron?.
A motor neuron, which transmits information from the brain or spinal cord to the muscle, controls each fiber of the skeletal muscle.
The maximum number of muscle fibers that one motor neuron can innervate?This means that each motor neuron will innervate just a few muscle fibers (10–100), allowing the complete muscle to move with many different subtleties.
What purposes serve smaller motor units?A single motor neuron can provide a few muscle fibers in a muscle, which is known as a tiny motor unit. Very fine motor control of the muscle is made possible by small motor units. The tiny motor units of the extraocular eye muscles that move the eyes are the best example in humans.
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Yeast cells can carry out both fermentation and cellular respiration, depending on whether oxygen is present. In which case would you expect yeast cells to grow more rapidly? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Because they can do aerobic cellular respiration, yeast would expand more quickly in the presence of oxygen. Fermentation (anaerobic respiration), in contrast to aerobic cellular respiration, only generates 2 ATP molecules.
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