The change the nurse expects to see related to bleeding is an increase in ammonia level.
The nurse is caring for a client with alcoholism.Why?The gradual, constant GI bleeding causes the patient to not even be aware that they are ill until their haemoglobin level is so low that they are unable to breathe normally or get up without assistance.
What is GI bleeding?Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is a symptom of some disorder in the digestive tract that causes mild to severe bleeding.
What is haemoglobin?Haemoglobin is a protein inside red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to tissues and organs in the body and carries carbon dioxide back to the lungs.
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a client who had a miscarriage 6 months ago becomes pregnant. which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
Pregnancy test instructions should be included in the pregnancy test you repeat right before beginning your second round of contraception.
When a client with vaginal bleeding is admitted at 36 weeks gestation, which nursing intervention is of utmost importance?Keep an eye on uterine contractions. Under the client, place disposable pads.
What part does the nurse play in assessing pregnancies and pregnancies?The prenatal nurse keeps track of the mother's and fetus's health, offers emotional support, and educates the expectant mother and her family on the physical and mental changes that occur throughout pregnancy, the growth of the fetus, labor and delivery, and postpartum care.
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which statements are accurate regarding chronic aspirin poisoning? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The correct answer are (1)Chronic aspirin poisoning is often mistaken for viral illness. (5). Chronic ingestion of aspirin occurs when an amount greater than 100 mg/kg per day is ingested for more than 2 days.
Aspirin, commonly known as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication (NSAID) that is used to treat pain, fever, and/or inflammation, as well as to prevent clotting. Aspirin is used to treat inflammatory disorders such as Kawasaki illness, pericarditis, and rheumatic fever.
In high-risk persons, aspirin is also used long-term to help prevent future heart attacks, ischemic strokes, and blood clots.
For pain or fever, the effects usually start within 30 minutes.
Aspirin functions similarly to other NSAIDs, but it also inhibits platelet activity.
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Which statements are accurate regarding chronic aspirin poisoning? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1. Chronic aspirin poisoning is often mistaken for viral illness.
2. Acute ingestion of aspirin is always more serious than chronic ingestion.
3. Peritoneal dialysis is used in the treatment of severe cases of aspirin poisoning.
4. Acute ingestion of aspirin causes severe toxicity when the dosage is 200 to 250 mg/kg.
5. Chronic ingestion of aspirin occurs when an amount greater than 100 mg/kg per day is ingested for more than 2 days
a client has a serum study that is positive for the rheumatoid factor. what will the nurse tell the client about the significance of this test result?
A positive rheumatoid factor test result indicates a high level of rheumatoid factor in your blood.
What is rheumatoid factor?Rheumatoid factors are proteins produced by the immune system that attack healthy tissue in your body. High levels of rheumatoid factor in the blood are most often associated with autoimmune diseases, like rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren's syndrome.
Methotrexate is the first medicine given for rheumatoid arthritis, with another DMARD and a short course of steroid to relieve any pain. These medicines may be combined with biological treatments.
The normal range for rheumatoid factor (or negative test result) is less than 14 IU/ml. Result with values 14 IU/ml or above is considered abnormally high or positive.
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a patient who had received 25 ml of packed red blood cells (prbcs) has lower back pain and pruritis. after stopping the infusion, which action should the nurse take next?
Each unit of packed RBCs should require a fresh infusion set from the nurse. The older adult client should receive blood slowly from the nurse, taking up to 4 hours per unit.
With a transfusion of packed red blood cells, which remedy would the nurse hang?A unit of packed red blood cells will be transfused to a patient by a healthcare professional. Because it is a compatible saline solution, only 0.9% sodium chloride is suitable for use with whole blood or blood products.
You should transfuse packed red blood cells using which of the following solutions?Normal saline is always used in transfusion medicine and is the only solution that the AABB recommends as being compatible with blood components.
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a client comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the right leg. when obtaining the history, the nurse learns that the client has a history of obesity and hypertension. based on this information the nurse anticipates the client having which musculoskeletal disorder?
Degenerative joint disease
Obesity predisposes the client to degenerative joint disease.
What is musculoskeletal disorder ?Pain (which is frequently persistent) and mobility and dexterity restrictions are the typical symptoms of musculoskeletal conditions, which make it harder for people to work and engage in social activities. The most typical type of non-cancer pain involves pain in the musculoskeletal system.
The three most prevalent musculoskeletal conditions, according to reports, are arthritis, back pain, and trauma. Each year, patients seek treatment for these conditions in hospitals, emergency rooms, and doctor's offices.
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After the physician has discussed euthanasia with a terminal client and his family, the nurse assesses their understanding of the topic. Which of the following statements by the family indicates that learning has occurred?
"It is alright to stop dialysis."
The nurse said : "It is alright to stop dialysis."
What is euthanasia ?Euthanasia is the practice of ending a patient's life in order to relieve their suffering. Normally, the patient in question would have a serious illness or be in excruciating agony.
Different actions are classified as "euthanasia." These distinctions between the various versions are listed below.
Active euthanasia refers to the deliberate killing of a patient, such as administering a deadly amount of medication. Occasionally known as "aggressive" euthanasia.
The deliberate withholding of artificial life support, such as a ventilator or feeding tube, is known as passive euthanasia.
Euthanasia carried out voluntarily: with the patient's permission.
Without the patient's consent, for instance if the patient is unconscious and it is unknown what he or she wants to happen to him or her.
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when assessing a person who is grieving using the grief cycle model, which concept would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind? select all that apply.
The concepts that would be the most important to keep in mind when assessing a person using the grief cycle model are:
People vary widely in their responses to loss. Stages occur at varying rates among people. Some people actually skip some stages of grief altogether.The grief cycle model is a model that attempts to explain the stages of grief when someone is experiencing it. It describes the series of emotions that they experience: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
In reality, most of the time the grief that humans experience is not as discrete as the model may indicate. That's why the model cycle should not be used as an empirical thing. That being said, using the model as a general guide to assess a grieving person is still useful.
The question above is incomplete, but the completed question is most likely as follows:
When assessing a person who is grieving using the grief cycle model, which concept would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind? Select all that apply.
Stages occur at varying rates among people. Some people actually skip some stages of grief altogether. People vary widely in their responses to loss. The stages of grief occur linearly and are static. The stages are relatively discrete and identifiable.Learn more about grief at https://brainly.com/question/16877564
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the nurse prepares to conduct a history and complete physical examination. what should the nurse explain to the client as being the major purpose for this comprehensive evaluation?
The assessment of reflexes, which serves as the beginning point for evaluating neurologic functioning, is often carried out after assessing the lower extremities, even though many components of the assessment can be finished at any time.
Before performing the client's physical assessment, what preparations must the nurse make?Prior to starting the physical assessment, the nurse should wash her hands. This applies before obtaining equipment, too. Auscultation and palpitation shouldn't start until after proper hand washing.
Which of the following occurs first when the client's physical condition is assessed?Utilizing your senses of sight, smell, and hearing, examine each bodily system to detect any abnormalities or disorders. Look at the texture, symmetry, movement, size, color, and position.
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the nurse is educating a client who is breastfeeding her 2-week-old newborn regarding the nutritional requirements of newborns, according to the recommendations of the american academy of pediatrics (aap). which response by the mother would validate her understanding of the information she received?
The response can be "I'll give her/him vitamin D supplements daily for the first 2 months of life."
What is vitamin D?
Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble secosteroids responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, and multiple other biological effects. In humans, the most important compounds in this group are vitamin D3 (also known as cholecalciferol) and vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol). Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption in the gut and maintains adequate serum calcium and phosphate concentrations to enable normal mineralization of bone and to prevent hypocalcemic tetany. It is also needed for bone growth and bone remodeling by osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Without sufficient vitamin D, bones can become thin, brittle, or misshapen. Vitamin D is made in the skin when exposed to sunlight and is also found in some foods. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for osteoporosis, and a low dietary intake of vitamin D can lead to a deficiency.
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when do most spontaneous abortions occur? multiple choice question. first trimester second trimester fourth trimester third trimester
Early pregnancy loss only refers to first-trimester spontaneous abortions. However, the majority of spontaneous abortions take place in the first trimester.
Why do miscarriages occur?About 50% of miscarriages in the first trimester (up to 13 weeks of pregnancy) are brought on by chromosomal abnormalities. Your genes are carried by chromosomes, which are little structures found inside your body's cells.
What trimester experiences miscarriages the most frequently?Before the 12th week of pregnancy, the first trimester is when most miscarriages occur. 1 to 5 out of every 100 (or 1 to 5%) pregnancies) experience a miscarriage in the second trimester (between 13 and 19 weeks).
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a client has experienced increasing pain and progressing inflammation of the hands and feet. the rheumatologist has prescribed nsaid use to treat the condition. what client education is most important for the nurse to address with the use of these medications?
Adults' heel discomfort is frequently brought on by plantar fasciitis. Pain that is particularly intense with the first few steps made in the morning is how the condition often shows. Plantar fasciitis often resolves on its own.
In which of the following positions should someone with back discomfort avoid being?Avoid doing anything that cause you to stoop or lean forward at the waist. Try to stand up and lean back slightly while coughing or sneezing to enhance the curvature in your spine. Knees bowed while lying on your side.
Pharmacological treatment, complementary and alternative medicine (CAM), and exercise are frequently used to treat osteoporosis. These therapies' overarching objectives are to maintain appropriate calcium levels, encourage bone formation, lessen bone breakdown, and minimise deficits.
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patient with chronic renal failure, the nurse would educate the patient on which dietary treatments should be excluded? patho
A decline in the kidneys' capacity to remove waste and fluid from the blood is a symptom of chronic renal failure.
What transpires in the event of chronic renal failure?Kidney disease, or CKD, impairs the ability of the kidneys to properly filter blood. Due to this, extra fluid and blood waste build up in the body and may result in various health issues like heart disease and stroke.
Which three stages of chronic renal failure are there?Stage 1 with a GFR of 90 mL/min or higher and normal or high CKD stage 2 (GFR = 60–89 mL/min) Moderate CKD Stage 3A (GFR = 45–59 mL/min) Moderate CKD Stage 3B (GFR = 30-44 mL/min).
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a patient taking an alpha-adrenergic medication for the treatment of hypertension is having a problem with incontinence. what does the nurse tell the patient?
The incontinence will go away once the drug is changed or stopped. If a patient with hypertension who is taking an alpha-adrenergic drug experiences incontinence issues.
What kind of care should someone seek for urine incontinence first?If you have been diagnosed with urge incontinence, bladder training might be one of the first therapies you are given. If you have mixed urine incontinence, bladder training and strengthening your pelvic floor muscles may be combined.
What kind of medication can be utilized to prevent bladder contraction in an incontinence client?Urge incontinence is commonly treated with the anticholinergic drugs tolterodine (Detrol) and oxybutynin (Ditropan; Oxytrol).
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the registered nurse is teaching isometric exercises to an 80-year-old client. which change as a result of aging requires this intervention?
After an arthroplasty treatment, patients are often given a regimen of isometric exercises to do in order to rehabilitate and strengthen the muscles in their legs.
What is isometric exercise?Exercises called isometric contractions include tightening (contracting) a particular muscle or set of muscles. The length of the muscle does not significantly alter during isometric activities. Additionally, the damaged joint is immobile. Exercises that are isometric assist preserve strength. Although ineffectively, they may also increase strength.
Exercises that involve tensing the muscles against a stationary object, known as isometric or static exercises, are often dangerous for older persons because they put a great deal of strain on the heart and may increase blood pressure.
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a person is taking a long plane trip and wants to take medication to prevent a blood clot from forming. which medication would you recommend?
A person who is boarding a lengthy flight wishes to take medication to avoid developing a blood clot. Aspirin is the drug that would be suggested.
What principal treatment modality is employed for big pleural effusions?To identify and treat pleural effusions, clinicians perform a minimally invasive procedure called thoracentesis. The pleural space, also known as the pleural cavity, has an excessive amount of fluid in this disorder.
In what category does aspirin fall?A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicine (NSAID), aspirin is an acetylated salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) (NSAIDs). These drugs have a wide range of pharmacologic effects, including analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet characteristics, and they lessen the signs and symptoms of inflammation.
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which term refers to the progressive ability of the body to adapt to the effects of a drug used at regular and frequent intervals?
Tolerance is a person's diminished response to a drug, which occurs when the drug is used repeatedly and the body adapts to the continued presence of the drug.
When a medicine is taken frequently, a person may grow tolerant to it. For instance, when morphine or alcohol are used repeatedly, increasing amounts are required to provide the same effect. Tolerance often arises from increased drug metabolism (often as a result of increased activity of the liver enzymes involved in drug metabolism) and a decrease in the number of sites (cell receptors) that the drug binds to or the strength of the link (affinity) between the receptor and drug.
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a client with chronic kidney disease (ckd) will be managed with peritoneal dialysis. which description of this type of dialysis is most accurate? the dialyzer is usually a hollow cylinder composed of bundles of capillary tubes. treatment involves the introduction into the peritoneum of a sterile dialyzing solution, which is drained after a specified time. vascular access is achieved through an internal arteriovenous fistula or an external arteriovenous shunt. treatments typically occur three times each week for 3 to 4 hours.
A client with chronic kidney disease will be managed with peritoneal dialysis. The dialyzer is usually a hollow cylinder composed of bundles of capillary tubes.
What is Haemodialysis?
Haemodialysis involves removing blood from your body, cleaning it in an artificial kidney called a dialyzer, and reintroducing it to your body. This three to five-hour procedure could happen in a hospital or a dialysis facility.
Haemodialysis can be performed at home as well. You could require shorter sessions of at-home therapy four to seven times each week. You might decide to perform haemodialysis at home while you sleep at night.
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a client diagnosed with colorectal cancer reports constipation to the nurse. which teaching will the nurse provide to help the client identify sign(s) or symptom(s) of constipation? select all that apply.
After a few weeks of no bowel movement, keep an eye out for liquid. You may urinate less frequently or at all, and you might feel discomfort when you defecate.
How do u know if u cancer?fluctuations in weight, including such unplanned loss or growth. alterations to a skin, such as yellowing, darkening, and redness, along with unhealing wounds or modifications to moles that already exist. modifications to bowel or bladder routines. persistent cough or breathing issues.
How does cancer start in the body?Disease was brought on by cells that divide uncontrollably and infect surrounding tissues. Cancer is mostly brought on by genetic changes. Most majority of genetic changes that result in cancer occur in areas of a genomes known as genes. Genetic modifications are another name for these changes.
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the nurse is preparing a care plan for a client with hepatic cirrhosis. which nursing diagnoses are appropriate? select all that apply.
Echocardiography or cardiac catheterization should be used to confirm the diagnosis even though ascitic fluid analysis may point to cardiac ascites.
What kind of test is used to confirm liver cirrhosis?It might be advised to use magnetic resonance elastography (MRE). This noninvasive advanced imaging test finds liver stiffness or hardening. You might also undergo additional imaging tests like MRI, CT, and ultrasound.
Which diagnostic procedure verifies liver cirrhosis?Complete blood count (CBC), liver enzyme, liver function, and electrolyte testing, as well as screening for other medical conditions like hepatitis B and C viruses, liver cancer, or gallstones, are tests used to confirm a diagnosis of cirrhosis. A liver biopsy is typically used to confirm the diagnosis.
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a back brace is prescribed for a client who had a laminectomy. which information would the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
A nurse evaluates a patient's medical history before prescribing ziconotide (Prialt) for chronic back pain.
Is laminectomy an extensive procedure?A surgeon removes the lamina in its entirety or mostly during a laminectomy. A more conservative course of treatment has often been exhausted before doing this significant surgery. On the cervical, lumbar, sacral, or thoracic spines, laminectomy can be done.
Is laminectomy a risky procedure?Spinal stenosis symptoms are commonly treated with open lumbar laminectomy surgery. Despite the rarity of this surgery's complications, there may be a few risk factors that could cause the procedure to fail or be delayed.
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most cases of sinusitis and otitis media do not require treatment with antibiotics. they will usually resolve on their own due to natural immune responses. group of answer choices true false
Most cases of sinusitis and otitis media do not require treatment with antibiotics. they will usually resolve on their own due to natural immune responses is true.
Antibiotics are not always required to treat sinus infections. In most cases, sinus infections that are not treated with medicine go away on their own. If you don't need antibiotics, they won't help you, and their side effects could still be harmful. Side effects can range significantly, from very modest reactions like a rash to more serious health problems.
The majority of sinus infections are minor, lasting only a few days to a few weeks. Your health is not in danger from them. However, if sinusitis is left untreated, it could get worse. These include nasal polyps, a deviated septum, and severe allergies.
A week-long sinus infection is frequently brought on by viruses. Bacterial sinus infections, however, could last a while.
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a nurse uses a portable bladder ultrasound device to assess bladder volume for a client who is unable to void. what accurately states information needed to interpret the results?
The information required to interpret the results is accurately stated and the catheter can be connected to a smaller leg bag for ambulation.
How can residual post-void urine be lessened?There are several medications that can help with urinary retention: antibiotics for infections of the bladder, prostate, or urinary system. medications that relax your sphincters or prostate, allowing urine to flow more freely. prescription drugs to shrink your prostate.
How come my bladder doesn't completely empty?When the bladder's muscles are unable to contract effectively to empty the bladder, incomplete bladder emptying happens. This may occur in situations where there has been nerve or muscle damage, which may have been brought on by an accident, surgery, or illness like Parkinson's disease or multiple sclerosis.
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which nursing intervention is correct to encourage the client to verbalize his or her health problem?
Encourage the patient to express his or her feelings health, thoughts, and worries about making decisions regarding their treatment.
What do nurses do in the context of mental health?Interventions that are psychosocial include techniques like stress management, self-coping abilities, relapse prevention, and psychoeducation. Additionally, they use psychological treatments such motivational interviewing methods or cognitive behavioral therapy.
Which nursing interventions highlight client care that promotes physical functioning and which ones should I choose all the time?Which nursing interventions signify physical functioning assistance for the client? Interventions that support physical functioning include maintaining a client's nutritional status and maintaining a client's regular bowel patterns.
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cycles of fever which recur every 48 hours is characteristic of: group of answer choices malaria toxoplasmosis balantidiasis giardiasis leishmaniasis
Malaria is distinguished by fever cycles that repeat every 48 hours.
When do the symptoms of malaria appear?Malaria symptoms often occur 10 days to one month after infection. Symptoms vary depending on the type of parasite. Some people do not feel ill for up to a year after being bitten by a mosquito. Parasites can live in the body for many years without creating symptoms. Malaria symptoms include fever and flu-like disease, as well as shaking chills, headache, muscle aches, and weariness. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are also possible side effects. Malaria can induce anemia and jaundice (yellow skin and eyes) due to the loss of red blood cells. Malaria is quite dangerous.
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select all that apply: the nurse is assessing the musculoskeletal status of a 70 year old patient. what findings should the nurse consider as expected age-related changes in this body system?
Findings that the nurse should consider as expected age-related changes in body: decreased muscle mass, reduced muscle strength, reduced range of shoulders and hips motion and loss of 1/2 inch height.
What assessment findings are symptoms of musculoskeletal impairment?Musculoskeletal conditions are characterized by pain and limitations in mobility and dexterity. It also reduces people's ability to work and participate in society.
Symptoms are swelling, bruising, erythema, tenderness over joints or muscles and deformity of joints. It also causes decreased active range of motion and contracture or foot drop present.
Nodules and bogginess are considered abnormal findings whereas symmetry is an expected finding in a musculoskeletal assessment.
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which statements made by the nurse indicate accurate awareness about the conditions associated with hypothermia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
To keep the person warm, layer on dry blankets or coats. The person's head should be covered, leaving only the face visible. Protect the body from the chilly ground.
Based on condition and stability, which client would the nurse prioritize for care?Because prompt treatment may save the client's life, clients with red tags should receive priority treatment. Because they may have to wait a while for treatment, clients with yellow tags should be given second priority.
Which of the following techniques is safe to employ when warming a hypothermic person?Put dry clothing on the person or wrap them in blankets to keep them warm. Avoid submerging the victim in warm water. Heart arrhythmia can be triggered by rapid heat. If you use hot water bottles or chemical hot packs, wrap them in fabric rather than putting them on your skin.
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the nurse on the oncology unit is planning care for four patients. the patient taking which cytotoxic anticancer drug will require ondansetron least frequently?
A cytotoxic anticancer medication like bleomycin will use ondansetron the least often.
Which medication from the list below should be given to a chemotherapy patient to prevent nausea and vomiting?The following common anti-nausea drugs, however, may be prescribed by your doctor if the chemotherapy is anticipated to produce nausea and vomiting: The aperitif (Emend®) Granisetron (Kytril®) and dolasetron (Anzemet®)
Which medication would be most helpful for treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting?Dexamethasone is the most effective antiemetic for preventing delayed nausea and vomiting, according to studies.
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the client is being seen at 24 weeks' gestation at the prenatal clinic. at her last routine visit, the fundus was located at the umbilicus. today, the fundus is measured and found to be 23 cm. how should the nurse interpret this finding?
The nurse should interpret this as Fundus is at the appropriate level.
Your fundus should be close to your abdominal button after giving delivery (where it was at 20 weeks). After that, it should shrink by a centimeter daily. After having birth, one week later, your fundus should be close to your pubic bone (where it was at 12 weeks).
For instance, the top of the uterus, which is situated opposite the cervix, is referred to as the fundus of the uterus (the opening of the uterus). The bladder's bottom and back are two of the organs that are referred to as the fundus. The term "fundus" refers to the area that is furthest away from an organ's aperture.
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a client who has injured a hip in a fall cannot place weight on the leg and is in significant pain. after radiographs indicate intact yet malpositioned bones, what repair would the physician perform?
Answer:
joint manipulation and immobilization
Explanation:
which assessment finding exhibited by a patient being assessed for posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) would be considered a defining behavior and support such a diagnosis?
Option C. which says “Describes vivid "flashbacks" of being attacked” will be the correct answer.
One characteristic behavior that is exhibited when an individual has PTSD is that the person re-experiences the traumatic incident. This takes occur by having recurrent and intrusive disturbing recollections of the trauma, including thoughts, images, or perceptions concerning the incident. Sometimes the person has frequent dreams about the occurrence and acts or feels as though it is happening again right now (flashback). The PTSD sufferer typically has trouble recalling all the specifics of the experience and isn't all that interested in recounting what happened. The patient typically exhibits a fairly constrained range of emotions.
What is PTSD?
A condition marked by an inability to recover after being exposed to or seeing a terrible incident. The syndrome can endure for months or even years, with triggers causing strong emotional and physical reactions as well as recollections of the event. Dreams or flashbacks, avoiding circumstances that trigger the trauma, increased sensitivity to stimuli, anxiety, or depression are all possible symptoms. In addition to using medications to manage symptoms, treatment options include various forms of psychotherapy.
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